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(1)ĐỀ SỐ 1: SỞ GD-ĐT HÀ TĨNH. ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG - NĂM HỌC TRƯỜNG THPT TRẦN PHÚ 2014 - 2015 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Đề thi gồm có 05 trang Mã đề thi 02 Họ, tên thí sinh:.......................................................................... Số báo danh:............................................................................... Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others: Question 1: A. adventure B. future C. mature D. figure Question 2: A. young B. plough C. couple D. cousin Choose the word whose stress position is different from that of the others: Question 3: A. open B. happen C. offer D. begin Question 4: A. difficulty. B. simplicity. C. discovery. D. commodity. Question 5: A. obligatory B. geographical C. international D. undergraduate Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence below: Question 6: _________ he is old, he wants to travel around the world. A. In spite of B. Although C. Despite D. Because Question 7: Had I studied harder, I_________________better in the last exam. A. would do B. would have done C. had done D. wouldn’t have done Question 8: The larger the apartment, the __________________ the rent is. A. expensive B. more expensive C. expensively D. most expensive Question 9: Nam wanted to know what time _______. A. the movie began B. the movie begins C. does the movie begin D. did the movie begin Question 10: On attaining maximum size, ______ by drawing itself out and dividing into two daughter amoebas, each receiving identical nuclear materials. A. the reproduction of the amoeba B. the amoeba, which reproduces C. reproducing the amoeba D. the amoeba reproduces Question 11: Last week, our class went to Ha Long Bay for a picnic, ________ made us very happy then. A. which B. that C. it D. of which Question 12: Lenses, ____________, are used to correct imperfections in eyesight. A. are the forms of glasses and contact lenses B. in the form of glasses and contact lenses.

(2) C. glasses and contact lenses which form D. glasses and contact lenses may be formed Question 13:Tim: “____________” – Jeycy: “Certainly” A. Welcome back! B. What are you doing there? C. I’m sorry I am late D. May I borrow a pencil , please? Question 14: Jane:“Would you mind if I use you computer for an hour?” Tony:”________” A. Not at all. I’ve finished my job B. Yes, you can use it. C. Of course not. I still need it now D. Yes, It’s all right. Question 15: Thanks to the laser beams, at last, he could get rid of the __________birthmark on his face. A. normal B. abnormal C. abnormality D. abnormally Question 16: That beautiful girl died of an________ morphine. A. overweight B. overhear C. overdo D. overdose Question 17: He is the postman _____ I got this letter.. A. from who B. to whom C. from whom D. with whom Question 18: We usually do go by train, even though the car _________ is a lot quicker. A. travel B. journey C. trip D. voyage Question 19: I suggest the room ………………..before Christmas. A. be decorated B. is decorated C. were decorated D. should decorate Question 20: Many species of plants and animals are in___________ of extinction. A. dangerous B. endangered C. danger D. dangerously Question 21: The last person ______ the room must turn off the lights. A. to leave B. who leave C. that leave D. all are correct Question 22: “What’s the matter? You don’t look very well.” – “I feel a little _________________.” A. out of the blue C. out of order B. under the weather D. under the impression. Question 23: I know we had an arguement, but now I'd quite like to _________. A. look down B. make up C. fall out D. bring up Question 24: Nowadays women ___the same wages as men A.should pay B.will be paid C.will pay D.should be paid Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your sheet to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined words in each of the following sentences. Question 25: As tourism is more developed, people worry about the damage to the flora and fauna of the island. A. fruits and vegetables B. flowers and trees C. plants and animals D. mountains and forests Question 26: “It is a really difficult matter to decide how to solve now. I will need time to think it over”. A. to sleep on it. B. to make it better C. to make up for it D. to think out of time.

(3) Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined words in each of the following sentences. Question 27: “That is a well-behaved boy whose behaviour has nothing to complain about” A. good behavior B. behaving improprely C. behaving nice D. behaving cleverly Question 28: After five days on trial, the court found him innocent of the crime and he was released. A. benevolent B. innovative C. naive D. guilty Question 29: His creer advancement was slow and he did not gain any promotion until he was 40, when he won the position of the company’s Chief Excutive. A. Progress B. elevation C. rise D. decrease Choose the option among A, B, C, D which needs correcting to make a complete sentence Question 30: I didn’t feel like to go to church this morning because it was raining hard A B C D Question 31: Tom likes to gossip about other people, so he doesn’t like them to gossip about him. A B C D Question 32: Have a headache, an upset stomach, and a bad case of sunburn did not put me in a good mood A B C D for the evening. Question 33: . Genetic engineering is helping researchers unravel the mysteries of previously incurable diseases A B so that they get to its root causes and find cures. C D Question 34: The novelist Shirley Hazzard is noted for the insight, poetic style, and sensitive she demonstrates A B C D in her works. Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D)) that best fits the blank space in the following passage: Environmental Concerns Earth is the only place we know of in the universe that can support human life. (35) _____ human activities are making the planet less fit to live on. As the western world.

(4) (36) _____ on consuming two-thirds of the world's resources while half of the world's population do so just to stay alive we are rapidly destroying the (37) _____ resource we have by which all people can survive and prosper. Everywhere fertile soil is (38) _____ built on or washed into the sea. Renewable resources are exploited so much that they will never be able to recover (39) _____. We discharge pollutants into the atmosphere without any thought of the consequences. As a (40) _____ the planet's ability to support people is being reduced at the very time when rising human numbers and consumption are (41) _____ increasingly heavy demands on it. The Earth's (42) _____ resources are there for us to use. We need food, water, air, energy, medicines, warmth, shelter and minerals to (43) _____ us fed, comfortable, healthy and active. If we are sensible in how we use the resources, they will (44) _____ indefinitely. But if we use them wastefully and excessively, they will soon run out and everyone will suffer. Question 35: A. Although B. Yet C. Still D. Despite Question 36: A. continues B. repeats C. follows D. carries Question 37: A. individual B. alone C. very D. solitary Question 38: A. neither B. sooner C. rather D. either Question 39: A. utterly B. completely C. quite D. greatly Question 40: A. result B. reaction C. development D. product Question 41: A. making B. doing C. having D. taking Question 42: A. living B. real C. natural D. genuine Question 43: A. maintain B. stay C. hold D. keep Question 44: A. remain B. go C. last D. stand Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions Ocean water plays an indispensable role in supporting life. The great ocean basins hold about 300 million cubic miles of water. From this vast amount, about 80,000 cubic miles of water are sucked into the atmosphere each year by evaporation and returned by precipitation and drainage to the ocean. More than 24,000 cubic miles of rain descend annually upon the continents. This vast amount is required to replenish the lakes and streams, springs and water tables on which all flora and fauna are dependent. Thus, the hydrosphere permits organic existence. The hydrosphere has strange characteristics because water has properties unlike those of any other liquid. One anomaly is that water upon freezing expands by about 9 percent, whereas most liquids contract on cooling. For this reason, ice floats on water bodies instead of sinking to the bottom. If the ice sank, the hydrosphere would soon be frozen solidly, except for a thin layer of surface melt water during the.

(5) summer season. Thus, all aquatic life would be destroyed and the interchange of warm and cold currents, which moderates climate, would be notably absent. Another outstanding charateristic of water is that water has a heat capacity which is the highest of all liquids and solids except ammonia. This characterisitc enables the oceans to absorb and store vast quantities of heat, thereby often preventing climatic extremes. In addition, water dissolves more substances than any other liquid. It is this characteristic which helps make oceans a great storehouse for minerals which have been washed down from the continents. In several areas of the world these minerals are being commercially exploited. Solar evaporation of salt is widely practised, potash is extracted from the Dead Sea, and magnesium is produced from sea water along the American Gulf Coast. Question 45: The author’s main purpose in this passage is to ___________. A. illustrate the importance of conserving water B. describe the properties and uses of water C. compare water with other liquids D. explain how water is used in commerce and industry Question 46: The phrase “this vast amount” in line 4 of paragraph 1 refers to __________ . A. 80,000 million cubic miles of water B. 24,000 cubic miles of rain C. 80,000 cubic miles of water D. 300 million cubic miles of water Question 47: The word “replenish” in paragraph 1 can best replaced by ________ . A. fill again B. replace C. evaporate D. form Question 48: According to the passage, fish can survive in the oceans because ________ . A. evaporation and condensation create a water cycle B. there are currents in the oceans C. they do not need oxygen D. ice floats Question 49: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a characterisitic of water? A. Water can absorb heat B. Water is good solvent. C. Water contracts on cooling D. Water expands when it is frozen Question 50: The word “outstanding” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________ . A. exceptionally good B. special C. amusing D. important Question 51: According the passage, the hydrosphere is NOT ___________ . A. the part of the earth covered by water B. responsible for all forms of life C. in danger of freezing over D. a source of natural resources Question 52: The author’s tone in the passage can best be described as ________ . A. dispassionate B. speculative C. biased D. dogmatic Question 53: The author organizes the passage by _______. A. juxtaposition of true and untrue ideas B. comparison and contrast C. general statement followed by examples D. hypothesis and proof.

(6) Question 54: Which of the following statements would be the most likely to begin the paragraph immediately following the passage? A. Water has the ability to erode land B. Droughts and flooding are two types of disasters associated with water C. Another remarkably property of ice is its strength D. Magnesium is widely used in metallurgical processes Read the following passage and blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer for each of the questions. Until recently, most American entrepreneurs were men. Discrimination against women in business, the demands of caring for families, and lack of business training had kept the number of women entrepreneurs small. Now, however, businesses owned by women account for more than $40 billion in annual revenues, and this figure is likely to continue rising throughout the 1990s. As Carolyn Doppelt Gray, an official of the Small Business Administration, has noted, "The 1970s was the decade of women entering management, and the 1980s turned out to be the decade of the woman entrepreneur". What are some of the factors behind this trend? For one thing, as more women earn advanced degrees in business and enter the corporate world, they are finding obstacles. Women are still excluded from most executive suites. Charlotte Taylor, a management consultant, had noted, "In the 1970s women believed if they got an MBA and worked hard they could become chairman of the board. Now they've found out that isn't going to happen, so they go out on their own". In the past, most women entrepreneurs worked in "women's" fields: cosmetics and clothing, for example. But this is changing. Consider ASK Computer Systems, a $22-million-a-year computer software business. It was founded in 1973 by Sandra Kurtzig, who was then a housewife with degrees in math and engineering. When Kurtzig founded the business, her first product was software that let weekly newspapers keep tabs on their newspaper carriers-and her office was a bedroom at home, with a shoebox under the bed to hold the company's cash. After she succeeded with the newspaper software system, she hired several bright computer-science graduates to develop additional programs. When these were marketed and sold, ASK began to grow. It now has 200 employees, and Sandra Kurtzig owns $66.9 million of stock. Of course, many women who start their own businesses fail, just as men often do. They still face hurdles in the business world, especially problems in raising money; the banking and finance world is still dominated by men, and old attitudes die hard. Most businesses owned by women are still quite small. But the situation is changing; there are likely to be many more Sandra Kurtzigs in the years ahead. Question 55: What is the main idea of this passage? A.Women today are better educated than in the past, making them more attractive to the business world. B.The computer is especially lucrative for women today..

(7) C. Women are better at small business than men are. D. Women today are opening more business of their own. Question 56:The word “excluded” is closest meaning to _________ . A. not permitted in B. often invited to C. decorators of D. charged admission to Question 57: All of the following were mentioned in the passage as detriments to women in the business world EXCEPT _________ . A.Women were required to stay at home with their families. B. Women lacked ability to work in business. C.Women faced discrimination in business. D.Women were not trained in business. Question 58: The word “that” refers to _________. A. a woman becomes chairman of the board. B. Women working hard C. Women achieving advanced degrees D. Women believing that business is a place for them. Question 59: According to the passage, Charlotte Taylor believes that women in 1970s _________ . A. were unrealistic about their opportunities in business management. B. were still more interested in education than business opportunities C. had fewer obstacles in business than they do today. D. were unable to work hard enough to success in business. Question 60: The author mentions the “ shoesbox under the bed” in order to _________ . A. Show the frugality of women in business B. show the resourcefulness of Sandra Kurtzig C. Point out that initially the financial resources of Sandra Kurtzig’s business were limited D. suggest that the company needed to expand Question 61: The expression “ keep tabs on” is closest meaning to _________ . A. recognize the appearance of B. keep records of C. provide transportation for D. pay the salaries of Question 62: The word “hurdles” can be best replaced by __________ . A. fences B .obstacles C. questions D. small groups Question 63: It can be inferred from the passage that the author believes that business operated by women are small because ________ . A. Women prefer a small intimate setting. B. Women can’t deal with money. C. Women are not able to borrow money easily. D. many women fail at large businesses. Question 64: The author’s attitude about the future of women in business is ________ . A. skeptical B. optimistic C. frustrated D. negative.

(8) WRITING Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it meams the same as the first one. Question 65. Although he was very tired, he agreed to help me with my homework. Tired as he was, he agreed to help me with my homework. Question 66. Someone broke into John’s house last night. John had his house broken into last night.. Question 67. “Sorry, I’m late.” said the boy to the teacher. ` The boy apologised to the teacher for being late. Question 68. I’m sure it wasn’t Mr. Phong you saw because he’s in Hanoi.. It can’t have been Mr. Phong you saw because he’s in Hanoi. Question 69.The training course is too expensive; I can’t afford it. It was such an expensive course that I couldn’t afford it. Part II. In about 140 words, write a paragraph about one of the mass media you find the most useful. ............................................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................................................... .............................................................................................................................................................................. -----------THE END-----------. ĐỀ SỐ 2: SỞ GD-ĐT HÀ TĨNH TRƯỜNG THPT TRẦN PHÚ. ĐỀ THI THỬ TH PT QG - NĂM HỌC 2014 - 2015 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Đề thi gồm có 05 trang Mã đề thi 03.

(9) Họ, tên thí sinh:.......................................................................... Số báo danh:............................................................................... Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. epidemic B. illegal C. education D. competitor Question 2: A. compose B. opponent C. wholesale D. colony. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. discuss B. waving C. airport D. often Question 4: A. interview B. difficulty C. simplicity D. beautiful Question 5: A. obligatory B. geographical C. international D. undergraduate Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 6: The next meeting _________ in May. A. will hold B. will be held C. will be holding D. will have held Question 7: The librarian told us not _________ reference books out of the library. A. taking B. to take C. take D. took Question 8: John: "Congratulations! You did great. Mary: - " ___________.” A. It’s nice of you to say so. B. It’s my pleasure. C. You’re welcome. D. That’s okay. Question 9: My responsibility is to _________ my little brothers. A. take care of B. join hands C. take over D. work together Question 10: In Vietnam, two or more ________ may live in a home. A. generations B. generous C. generation D. generators Question 11: __________ candidates are likely to succeed in job interviews. A. Nervous B. Self-conscious C. Self-doubt D. Self-confident Question 12: A good essay must __________contain enough interesting ideas and specific exam but also have good organization. A. in addition B. either C. not only D. as well Question 13: Minh : " My first English test was not as good as I expected " Thomas : " _________." A. Good Heavens! B. Never mind , better job next time! C. That's brilliant enough! D. It's okay . Don't worry.. Question 14: The ground is wet. It ________ rained last night..

(10) A. must. B. must have. C. may have. D. might have. Question 15: There are several means of mass communication. The newspaper is one. Television is ______. A. another B. other C. the another D. the other. Question 16: Do you know the woman ______ lives next door? A. she B. who C. whom D. her Question 17: If you _______ less last night, you _______ so bad today. A. had drunk- would not have felt B. drank- would not feel C. had drunk- would not feel D. would have drunk- would not feel I can’t sleep ________ the hot weather. A. because of B. as. Question 18:. C. because. D. since. Question 19: British and Australian people share the same language, but in other respects they are as different as _________. A. cats and dogs B. chalk and cheese C. salt and pepper D. here and there Question 20: The boy was sent to the police because of several ________ that he had taken part in. A. set-to B. set-toes C. sets-to D. set-tos Question 21: I just can't ______ that noise any longer! A. put up with B. stand in for C. sit out D. stand up to Question 22: ______ should a young child be allowed to play with fireworks without adult supervision A. Under no circumstances B. No sooner than C. Always D. Only when Question 23: Nobody phoned while I was out, ________? A. wasn’t I B. was I C. did they D. didn’t they Question 24: _________ migrate long distances is well documented. A. That it is birds B. That birds C. Birds that. D. It is that birds. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 25: “It is a really difficult matter to decide how to solve now. I will need time to think it over”. A. to sleep on it. B. to make it better C. to make up for it D. to think out of time Question 26: “He insisted on listening to the entire story”. A. part B. funny C. whole D. interesting Question 27: When being interviewed, you should concentrate on what the interviewer is saying or asking you. A. be related to B. be interested in C. pay all attention to D. express interest in Question 28: He drives me to the edge because he never stops talking. A. steers me B. irritates me C. moves me D. frightens me.

(11) Question 29: . School uniform is required in most of Vietnamese schools. A. divided B. depended C. compulsory D. paid Mark the letter A, B C or D on your answer sheet toindicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 30: The skin receives nearly the third of the blood pumped out by the heart. A B C D Question 31: I had my motorbike repair yesterday but now it still doesn’t work. A B C D Question 32: If you are working with young children in a primary school, you will find that teaching A B C lively songs and rhymes are very popular. D Question 33: Paris has been well-known about its famous monuments, beautiful music, and wonderful A B C restaurants for over 100 years.. D Question 34: Foreign students who are doing a decision about which school to attend may not know A B C exactly where the choices are located. D Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. The English channel Engineers have dreaming of an underwater link between Britain and France (35) ____ 1802 . Finally in 1994 the Channel Tunnel ( nicknamed “ The Chunnel “ by the English ) was ( 36) _____ opened . This fifteen billion dollar project took seven years to (37) ____. It is about 50 km long and built 45 metres under the seabed . The trains which go through the Chunnel can travel at up 300 km/h due to the (38) _____ electrical system . The journey from London to Paris via the Chunnel takes just three hours . It is also (39) _____ for drivers since they can load their cars onto the trains . They don’t need to book in (40) _____ , as trains (41) _____ every few minutes . However, while on the train , there isn’t much to do and many (42) _______ the Chunnel for this (43) ______ the ferries , there is no duty-free shopping , no videogame parlou or refreshment stand (44) ______ can you look outside and enjoy the view . As a result , many would find the Chunnel unappealing and would take the ferry instead . Question 35: A. from B.during C. since D. ago.

(12) Question 36: A . officially D. typically Question 37: A. perform complete Question 38: A. forward increased Question 39: A. benefit spare Question 40: A. advance Question 41: A. go away Question 42: A. criticise blame Question 43: A. Opposite Dissimilar Question 44: A. Nor. B. regularly B. achieve B. advanced. C. correctly C. deal with C. higher. B. handy. C. advantage. B. time B.exit B. accuse. C. ahead C. set out C. complain. B. Not alike B. Either. C. Unlike C. Neither. D. D. D. D. future D. depart D. D. D. Not. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 45 to 54. A recent survey of crime statistics shows that we are all more likely to be burgled now than 20 years ago and the police advise everyone to take a few simple precautions to protect their homes. The first fact is that burglars and other intruders prefer easy opportunities, like a house which is very obviously empty. This is much less of a challenge than an occupied house, and one which is well-protected. A burglar will wonder if it is worth the bother. There are some general tips on how to avoid your home becoming another crime statistic. Avoid leaving signs that your house is empty. When you have to go out, leave at least one light on as well as a radio or television, and do not leave any curtains wide open. The sight of your latest music centre or computer is enough to tempt any burglar. Never leave a spare key in a convenient hiding place. The first place a burglar will look is under the doormat or in a flower pot and even somewhere more 'imaginative' could soon be uncovered by the intruder. It is much safer to leave a key with a neighbour you can trust. But if your house is in a quiet, desolate area be aware that this will be a burglar's dream, so deter any potential criminal from approaching your house by fitting security lights to the outside of your house. But what could happen if, in spite of the aforementioned precautions, a burglar or intruder has decided to target your home. Windows are usually the first point of entry for many intruders. Downstairs windows provide easy access while upstairs windows can be reached with a ladder or by climbing up the drainpipe. Before going to bed you should double-check that all windows and shutters are locked. No matter how small your windows may be, it is surprising what a narrow gap a determined.

(13) burglar can manage to get through. For extra security, fit window locks to the inside of the window. What about entry via doors? Your back door and patio doors, which are easily forced open, should have top quality security locks fitted. Even though this is expensive it will be money well spent. Install a burglar alarm if you can afford it as another line of defence against intruders. A sobering fact is that not all intruders have to break and enter into a property. Why go to the trouble of breaking in if you can just knock and be invited in? Beware of bogus officials or workmen and, particularly if you are elderly, fit a chain and an eye hole so you can scrutinise callers at your leisure. When you do have callers never let anybody into your home unless you are absolutely sure they are genuine. Ask to see an identity card, for example. If you are in the frightening position of waking in the middle of the night and think you can hear an intruder, then on no account should you approach the intruder. It is far better to telephone the police and wait for help. Question 45: A well-protected house _________ . A. is less likely to be burgled. B. is regarded as a challenge by most criminals. C. is a lot of bother to maintain. D. is very unlikely to be burgled. Question 46: According to the writer, we should ________ . A. avoid leaving our house empty. B. only go out when we have to. C. always keep the curtains closed. D. give the impression that our house is occupied when we go out. Question 47: The writer thinks that hiding a key under a doormat or flower pot __________. A. is predictable. B. is useful. C. is imaginative. D. is where you always find a spare key. Question 48: What word best replaces “desolate” in paragraph 4? A. isolated B. populous C. dissatisfying D. depressing Question 49: What word best replaces “aforementioned” in paragraph 5? A. foreseen B. predicted C. foresaid D. forethought Question 50: Gaining entry to a house through a small window _________ . A. is surprisingly difficult. B. is not as difficult as people think. C. is less likely to happen than gaining entry through a door. D. is tried only by very determined burglars. Question 51: According to the writer, window locks, security locks and burglar alarms ________. A. cost a lot of money but are worth it. B. are good value for money. C. are luxury items. D. are absolutely essential items. Question 52: The writer argues that fitting a chain and an eye hole _________. A. will prevent your home being burgled. B. avoids you having to invite people into your home..

(14) C. is only necessary for elderly people. D. gives you time to check if the visitor is genuine. Question 53: What word best replaces “scrutinise” in paragraph 7? A. glance B. gaze C. search D. examine Question 54: The best title for the text is _________. A. Increasing household crime. B. Protecting your home from intruders. C. What to do if a burglar breaks into your home. D. Burglary statistics Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 55 to 64. Millions of people are using cell phones today. In many places, it is actually considered unusual not to use one. In many countries, cell phones are very popular with young people. They find that the phones are more than a means of communication - having a mobile phone shows that they are cool and connected. The explosion in mobile phone use around the world has made some health professionals worried. Some doctors are concerned that in the future many people may suffer health problems from the use of mobile phones. In England, there has been a serious debate about this issue. Mobile phone companies are worried about the negative publicity of such ideas. They say that there is no proof that mobile phones are bad for your health. On the other hand, medical studies have shown changes in the brain cells of some people who use mobile phones. Signs of change in the tissues of the brain and head can be detected with modern scanning equipment. In one case, a traveling salesman had to retire at young age because of serious memory loss. He couldn't remember even simple tasks. He would often forget the name of his own son. This man used to talk on his mobile phone for about six hours a day, every day of his working week, for a couple of years. His family doctor blamed his mobile phone use, but his employer's doctor didn't agree. What is it that makes mobile phones potentially harmful? The answer is radiation. High-tech machines can detect very small amounts of radiation from mobile phones. Mobile phone companies agree that there is some radiation, but they say the amount is too small to worry about. As the discussion about their safety continues, it appears that it's best to use mobile phones less often. Use your regular phone if you want to talk for a long time. Use your mobile phone only when you really need it. Mobile phones can be very useful and convenient, especially in emergencies. In the future, mobile phones may have a warning label that says they are bad for your health. So for now, it's wise not to use your mobile phone too often Question 55: According to the passage, cell phones are especially popular with young people because __________ . A. they make them look more stylish. B. they keep the users alert all the time..

(15) C. they cannot be replaced by regular phones. D. they are indispensable in everyday communications. Question 56: The word "means" in the passage most closely means ________ . A. meanings B. expression C. transmission D. method Question 57: Doctors have tentatively concluded that cell phones may _________ . A. cause some mental malfunction B. change their users’ temperament. C. change their users’ social behaviours. D. damage their users’ emotions. Question 58: "Negative publicity" in the passage most likely means _________ . A. widespread opinion about bad effects of cell phones. B. information on the lethal effects of cell phones. C. the negative public use of cell phones. D. poor ideas about the effects of cell phones. Question 59: The changes possibly caused by the cell phones are mainly concerned with ______ . A. the smallest units of the brain. B. the mobility of the mind and the body. C. the resident memory. D. the arteries of the brain. Question 60: The man mentioned in the passage, who used his cell phone too often, ________ . A. had a problem with memory. B. abandoned his family. C. suffered serious loss of mental ability. D. could no longer think lucidly. Question 61: The word "potentially" in the passage most closely means _________ . A. certainly B. obviously C. privately D. possibly Question 62: According to the passage, what makes mobile phones potentially harmful is ________ . A. their radiant light. B. their raiding power. C. their power of attraction. D. their invisible rays. Question 63: According to the writer, people should __________ . A. keep off mobile phones regularly. B. never use mobile phones in all cases. C. only use mobile phones in medical emergencies. D. only use mobile phones in urgent cases. Question 64: The most suitable title for the passage could be __________ . A. Technological Innovations and Their Price. B. The Way Mobile Phones Work. C. The Reasons Why Mobile Phones Are Popular. D. Mobile Phones: A Must of Our Time WRITING Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it..

(16) Question 65: “Sorry, I’m late.” said the boy to the teacher. The boy apologised __________________________________________ Question 66: Would you mind not smoking in my house? I’d rather __________________________________________________ Question 67:No other city in Vietnam is so large as Ho Chi Minh City. Ho Chi Minh City is ________________________________________ Question 68: If Mike hadn’t been interested, the trip would have been cancelled. But ______________________________________________________ Question 69: The students have discussed the pollution problems since last week The pollution problems _____________________________________ Part II. In about 140 words, write a paragraph about a person you admire most. ………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………….. ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………….. ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………….. ………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………….…. ………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………. ----------THE END----------.

(17) Đáp án I. Phần trắc nghiệm: Câu số Đáp án 1 B 2. D 3 A 4 C 5 A 6 B 7 C 8 A 9 A 10 A 11 D 12 C 13 B 14 B 15 A 16 B 17 C 18 A 19 B 20 D 21 A 22 A. Câu số 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44. Đáp án C B A C C B C B B D B A C A D B B A D A C A. Câu số 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64. Đáp án A D A A C B A D D B A D A A A A D D D A. II. Phần viết: 65. The boy apologised to the teacher for being late 66. I'd rather you didn't smoke in my house 67.Ho Chi Minh City is the largest in Vietnam 68. But for Mike's interest, the trip would have been cancelled 69. The pollution problems have been discussed by the students since last week. ĐỀ SỐ 3: SỞ GD-ĐT HÀ TĨNH TRƯỜNG THPT TRẦN PHÚ. ĐỀ THI THỬ THPTQG - NĂM HỌC 2014 - 2015 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Đề thi gồm có 05 trang.

(18) Mã đề thi 07 Họ, tên thí sinh:.......................................................................... Số báo danh:............................................................................... Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest in each of the following questions. Question 1. A. watch B. match C. catch D. chemical Question 2. A. amount B. astound C. mouthful D. shoulder Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. Question 3. A. apply B. visit C. appear D. attend Question 4. A. curriculum B. kindergarten C. contaminate D.conventional Question 5. A. suspicious B. marvellous C. physical D. argument Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 6. My father is an engineer and he has to work _____ a night shift once a week. A. in B. on C. under D. at Question 7. I'll give you my answer if I_____ you this Sunday afternoon. A. see B. saw C. will see D. am seeing Question 8. He managed to climb over the wall without ______ . A. seeing B. being seen C. to see D. to be seen. Question 9. Do you know the person ______ next to you in the evening class? A. who sit B. whom sits C. sitting D. whose sitting Question 10. Tony Blair is believed _____ for Liverpool last week. A. leaving B. to leave C. having left D. to have left Question 11. In my _______ to win a place at university, I am now under a lot of study pressure. A. improvement B. support C. confidence D. attempt Question 12. A: "Would you mind closing the door?" B: "_______ ".

(19) A. Close it now! B. Not at all ! C. True enough. D. Don’t mention it. Question 13: She should ___________ in the garage when we came around, which would explain why she didn't hear the bell. A. work B. be working C. have worked D. have been working Question 14: The choir stood in four rows according to their ________ heights. A. respected B. respective C. respectable D. respectful Question 15: A: "How lovely your pets are!" B: " ___________ " A. Thank you, it's nice of you to say so B. Really? They are C. Can you say that again D. I love them, too Question 16: My cousin obviously didn't _____ much of an impression on you if you can't remember meeting her. A. do B. make C. create D. build Question 17: It was very difficult to _______ what he was saying about the noise of the traffic. A. pick up B. make up C. turn out D. make out Question 18: I was glad when he said that his car was __________. A. for my use B. at my disposal C. for me use D. at my use Question 19: ____ the exception ____ the little baby, everybody in my family has to jog every morning. A. With / to B. With / of C. In / of D. By / of Question 20: He always takes full__________ of the mistake by these competitors. A.benefit B. advantage C. profit D. advice Question 21:On hearing the news she fainted and it was half an hour before she__________again. A. came up B. came round C. came over D. came forward Question 22: I called Jenna yesterday with a view__________her about the project. A. of asking B. to asking C. in asking D. for asking Question 23: No longer__________ cut the grass. I have just bought a lawn mower. A. do I have to B. I do have to C. I have toD. have I do to Question 24: We have our __________ of course, but we are still quite satisfied with our life. A. odds and ends B. ups and downs C. safe and sound D. ins and outs Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) or phrase(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following.

(20) questions. Question 25. I’m a bit wary of giving people my address when I don’t know them very well. A. cautious B. upset C. willing D. capable Question 26. I received housing benefit when I was unemployed. A. out of work B. out of fashion C. out of order D. out of practice Question 27. How many countries took part in the last SEA Games. A. succeeded B. hosted C. participated D. performed Question 28.When people are angry ,they seldom act in a rational way. A. polite B. friendly C. reasonable D. considerate Question 29. Punctuality is imperative in your new job. A. Being efficient B. Being courteous C. Being on time D. Being cheerful Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 30. Linh didn't know how to swim although she jumped into the swimming pool A B C D Question 31. The shopkeeper warned the boy don't lean their bicycles against his windows A B C D Question 32. He comes from a large family, all of them now live in Australia. A B C D Question 33. What happened in that city were a reaction from city workers, including firemen and A B C policemen who had been laid off from their jobs. D Question 34. The residence of Greenville, Texas hold an annual Cotton Jubilee to remember the crop that A B caused their city to prosper. C D Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. It is relatively easy for computers to speak. A computer that says ‘please’ and ‘thank you’ in the right places is (35) ___ miracle of science ,but recognizing the words that make up normal , continuous human speech is another (36) ___.

(21) Not until now have computer been programmed to (37) ___ to a range of spoken commands.Until recently it was thought that computers would have tobe programmed to the accent and speech hahits of each user,and only then would be able to respond(38) ___to their master’s or mistress’s voice.Now rapid progress is being made (39) ______systems programmed to adapt easily to each new speaker. The IBM Tangora system,under development at the end of 1980s was claimed to (40) ______a spoken vocabulary of 20,000 words with 95 percent accuracy. The system includes a processor that can make informed guesses as to(41)______is a likely sentence.That system has been programmed not only with grammatical rules,but also with an analyssis of a vast quantity of office correspondence.On the(42) ______ of this information ,the machine can calculate the probability of one particular word following another. Statistical probability is necessary for computers to interpret not only speech but also (43) ______data. Security systems can distinguish between faces they have been taught to recognize,but never has a computer been able to match a human’s ability to make sense of a three-dimemsional scene(44) ______identifying all objects in it. (From ‘Heinle & Heinle TOEFL Test Assistant .Grammar’ by Milada Broukal) Question 35: Question 36: theme Question 37: Question 38: right Question 39: Question 40: Question 41: D. that Question 42: basis Question 43: D. visible Question 44:. A. no A. problem. B. not B. topic. A. talk A. truly. B. answer B. completely. A. with A. know A. which. B. for C. within B. recognize C. master B. what C. how. A. foundation. C. nothing D. none C. matter. B. principle. A. visual. B. noticeable. A. from. B. by. C. of. C. communicate C. accurately. D.. D. react D.. D. as D. realize. C. ground. D.. C. seen D. without. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 45 to 54. My family consists of four people. There’s my father whose name is Jan, my mother whose name is Marie, my brother, Peter and of course, me. I have quite a large extended family as well but, only the four of us live together in our apartment in a block of flats. My father is fifty-two years old. He works as an accountant in an insurance company. He is tall and slim, has got short brown and.

(22) gray hair and blue eyes. My father likes gardening very much as well as listening to music and reading books about political science. His special hobbies are bird watching and travelling. Now I’ll describe my mother and my brother. My mother is forty-seven and she works as a nurse in a hospital. She is small, and slim, has short brown hair and green eyes. She likes bird watching and travelling too, so whenever my parents are able to they go some place interesting for nature watching. Since we have a cottage with a garden they both spend a lot of time there. My brother is sixteen. He is slim and has short brown hair and blue eyes. He also attends high school. He is interested in computers and sports like football and hockey. He also spends a lot of time with his friends. I have only one grandmother left still living. She is in pretty good health even at the age of seventy-eight so she still lives in her own flat. I enjoy spending time with her when I can. Both my grandfathers died from cancer because they were smokers, which was really a great tragedy because I didn’t get chance to know them. My other grandmother died just a few years ago. I also have a lot of aunts, uncles, and cousins. The cousin I’m closest to is my uncle’s daughter Pauline. We have a lot in common because we are both eighteen and so we are good friends. My parents have assigned me certain duties around the house. I don’t mind helping out because everyone in a family should contribute in some way. I help with the washing up, the vacuuming and the shopping. Of course I also have to help keep my room tidy as well. My brother is responsible for the dusting and mopping. He also has to clean his own room. Even though my brother and I sometimes fight about who has to do what job, we are still very close. I am also very close to my parents and I can rely on them to help me. My patents work together to keep our home well maintained and it seem they always have a project or another that they are working on. They respect each other’s opinions and even if they disagree they can always come to a compromise. I hope in the future that I have a family like ours. Question 45. What is the writer’s father? A. a cashier B an accountant C. a receptionist D. a writer Question 46. Which of the followings is NOT the hobby of the writer’s father? A listening to music B. bird watching C. painting D. doing the gardening Question 47. Where does the writer’s mother work? A an a clinic B at home C in a company D. in a hospital Question 48. What does the writer’s mother look like? A She is slim and small B She is small and has grey hair C. She has blue eyes D. She has long brown hair. Question 49. What does the writer’s brother do? A. a computer programmer B. a high school student C. a college student D. a football player Question 50. What happened to the writer’s grandfathers? A. They died because they smoked too much. B. They got lung cancer a few years ago, C. They had to leave their own flat. D. They had an accident and died.. Question 51. The word “tragedy” in the third paragraph mostly means ______ A. bad luck B. sudden accident C. sad event D. boring result Question 52. The word “assigned” in the fourth paragraph mostly means ______ A. allowed B. appointed C. forced D. encouraged Question 53. What does the writer do to help her parents at home? A. She does the dusting. B. She does the mopping. C. She does the washing. D. She does the shopping. Question 54. Which of the following statements is NOT true? A The writer’s mother likes travelling..

(23) B. One of the writer’s grandmothers is living with her. C. The writer’s brother has to clean his own room. D. The writer has a cousin whose age is the same as hers.. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 55 to 64. We are descendents of the ice age. Periods of glaciation have spanned the whole of human existence for the past 2 million years. The rapid melting of the continental glaciers at the end of the last ice age spurred one of the most dramatic climate changes in the history of the planet. During this interglacial time, people were caught up in a cataclysm of human accomplishment, including the development of agriculture and animal husbandry. Over the past few thousand years, the Earth’s climate has been extraordinarily beneficial, and humans have prospered exceedingly well under a benign atmosphere. Ice ages have dramatically affected life on Earth almost from the very beginning. It is even possible that life itself significantly changed the climate. All living organisms pull carbon dioxide out of the atmosphere and eventually store it in sedimentary rocks within the Earth’s crust. If too much carbon dioxide is lost, too much heat escapes out into the atmosphere. This can cause the Earth to cool enough for glacial ice to spread across the land. In general the reduction of the level of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere has been equalized by the input of carbon dioxide from such events as volcanic eruptions. Man, however, is upsetting the equation by burning fossil fuels and destroying tropical rain forests, both of which release stored carbon dioxide. This energizes the greenhouse effect and causes the Earth to warm. If the warming is significant enough, the polar ice caps eventually melt. The polar ice caps drive the atmospheric and oceanic circulation systems. Should the ice caps melt, warm tropical waters could circle the globe and make this a very warm, inhospitable planet. Over the past century, the global sea level has apparently risen upwards of 6 inches, mainly because of the melting of glacial ice. If present warming trends continue, the seas could rise as much as 6 feet by the next century. This could flood coastal cities and fertile river deltas, where half the human population lives. Delicate wetlands, where many marine species breed, also would be reclaimed by the sea. In addition, more frequent and severe storms would batter coastal areas, adding to the disaster of the higher seas. The continued melting of the great ice sheets in polar regions could cause massive amounts of ice to crash into the ocean. This would further raise the sea level and release more ice, which could more than double the area of sea ice and increase correspondingly the amount of sunlight reflected back into space. The cycle would then be complete as this could cause global temperatures to drop enough to initiate another ice age..

(24) Question 55. According to the passage, carbon dioxide is stored in each of the following EXCEPT A. polar ice caps. B. sedimentary rocks. C. rain forests. D. fossil fuel. Question 56. What does the final paragraph of the passage mainly discuss? A. The relationship between the ocean and the sun B. The amount of sunlight reflected into space C. A rise in global temperatures D. The conditions that could lead to an ice age Question 57. Which of the following does the author NOT mention as a consequence of a large rise in global sea level? A. The destruction of wetlands B. The flooding of cities C. A more diverse marine population D. Severe storms Question 58. According to the passage, what is the relationship between carbon dioxide and the Earth’s climate? A. Carbon dioxide, which is trapped in glacial ice, is released when warm temperatures cause the ice melt. B. The greenhouse effect, which leads to the warming of the climate, is result of too much carbon stored in the Earth’s crust. C. Rain causes carbon dioxide to be washed out of the atmosphere and into the ocean. D. An increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide results in the warming of the climate. Question 59. The word "beneficial"in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to A. calm B. inviting C. thoughtful D. favorable Question 60. The word "massive"can be replaced to A. wide B. huge C. dense D. thick Question 61. It can be inferred from the passage that the development of agriculture A. preceded the development of animal husbandry. B. withstood vast changes in the Earth’s climate. C. did not take place during an ice age. D. was unaffected by the greenhouse effect. Question 62. The word “this” in the third paragraph refers to A. man’s upsetting the equation B. the reduction of the level of carbon dioxide. C. a volcanic eruption D. the melting of the polar ice caps Question 63. The word “inhospitable” is closest in meaning to A. imperfect. B. uninhabitable. C. unlikable D. cruel. Question 64. What is the main topic of the passage? A. The possibility that the popular ice caps will melt B. The coming of another ice age.

(25) C. Man’s effect on the carbon dioxide level in the atmosphere D. The climate of the Earth over the years. WRITING Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. Question 65: He said to me “ Don’t be late tomorrow” He told me............................................................. Question 66: The demand was so great that they had to reprint the book immediately. So great........................................................... Question 67: He didn’t succeed until 1957. It was not............................................................ Question 68: The film didn’t come up to my expectations. The film fell............................................................................. Question 69: He is the richest person I’ve ever known. I have never.......................................................... Part II. In about 140 words ,write a paragraph about the person in your family that you love most. ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... .... --------THE END---------. Câu số 1 2 3. ĐÁP ÁN Đáp án Câu số C 33 D 34 B 35. Đáp án B A A.

(26) WRITING(2điểm) Part I. (0,5 điểm) Câu 65: He told me not to be late the following day/next day Câu 66: So great was the demand that they had to reprint the book immediately. Câu 67: It was not until 1957 that he succeeded. Câu 68:The film fell short of my expectations. Câu 69: I have never known a richer person than him/I have never known such a richer person before..

(27) Part II. (1,5 điểm). ĐỀ SỐ 4: SỞ GD-ĐT HÀ TĨNH TRƯỜNG THPT TRẦN PHÚ. ĐỀ THI THỬ THQG - NĂM HỌC 2014 2015 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Đề thi gồm có 05 trang Mã đề thi 09 Họ, tên thí sinh:.......................................................................... Số báo danh:............................................................................... Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined parts differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. wanted B. stopped C. decided D. hated Question 2: A. child B. chicken C. machine D. church Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. B. entertain C. Vietnamese D. politics international Question 4: A. polite B. children C. husband D. mother Question 5: A. economy B. communicate C. D. particular unemployment Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is closest in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question 6: The mass media provide apowerful means of disseminating propaganda. A. according B. producing C. spreading D.collecting Question 7: His new yatch is certainly an ostentatious display of his wealth. A. beautiful B. showy C. large D. expensive Question 8: I’d rather stay in a hotel with all the amenities than camp in the woods A. conveniences B. friends C. expenses D. sports Question 9: Earthquakes are regarded as one of the most devastating forces known to man. A. terrifying B. destrutive C. fasnating D. mysterious Question 10: In most countries, compulsory military service does not apply to women A.superior B. mandatory C. beneficial D. constructive.

(28) Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 11: Just keep _______on the dog when I am on holiday, will you? A.a look B. an eye C. a glance D. a care Question 12: The twins look so much alike that no one can______them ______ A.tell/away B. tell/apart C. take/apart D. take/away Question 13: This is ______ the most dificult job I have ever tackled. A.by heart B. by all means C. by no means D. by far Question 14: I’m ______ tired to think about that problem at the moment. A.simply B. nearly C. much more D. far too Question 15: It rained ______yesterday, so we could not go sailing A.cats and dogs B. chalk and C. fast and D. ups and downs cheese furious Question 16: Lucy: “You look really nice in that red sweater!” Sue: “______” A. How dare you? B. Thank you. C. I’m afraid D. Don’t mention so. it. Question 17: Janet: “Do you feel like going to the cinema this evening?” -Susan: "_______.” A. You’re welcome B. That would be great C. I feel very bored D. I don't agree, I'm afraid Question 18: When the customs officer saw my bottle, he said that I ______ have decared that. A. could B. must C. should D. may Question 19: ______ with her boyfriend yesterday, she doesn't want to answer his phone call. A. Having quarreled B. Because having quarreled C. Because of she quarreled D. Had quarreled Question 20: Last night’s concert did not ______ our expectations A. catch up with B. stand in for C. come up to D. look up to Question 21: It's ______ to transfer drugs in our country. A. legally B. illegally C. illegal D. legal Question 22: “It’s about time you_______ your homework, Mary.” A. must do B. did C. do D. will do Question 23: If peopple drove more carefully, there_______so many accidents on the road. A. would not be B. will not be C. wouldn’t have D. aren’t been Question 24: Tom said that he _______his motorbike the day before. A. had lost B. lost C. has lost D. lose Question 25: When Jack ______ me, I______ a letter. A. phoned/ has been B. has phoned/ was writing writing D. was phoning/ wrote.

(29) C. phoned/ was writing Question 26: Her car’s outside so I supposed ______ have arrived. A. can B. must C. should D. might Question 27: _____ the storm, they had to cancel the trip. A.Because B.Although C.In order to Question 28: The four-storey house_____on that hill is still new.. D.Because of. A.be built B.built C.building D.being built Question 29: Tet is a festival which occurs_____late January or early February. A.at. B. from. C.on. D.in. Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 30: California has more land under irrigation than any another states. A B C D Question 31: In the 1920's cinema became an important art form and one of the ten largest industry in A B C D the United States Question 32: Ripe fruit is often stored in a place who contains much carbon dioxide so that the fruit A B C will not decay too rapidly. D Question 33: In the nineteenth century, women used quilts to inscribe their responses to A B C social, economic, and politics issues. D Question 34: Hot at the equator causes the air to expand, rise , and flow toward the poles A B C D Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. The first traffic signal was invented by a railway signaling engineer. It was installed outside the Houses of Parliament in 1868. It (35) ______ like any railway signal of the time, and was operated by gas. (36) ______, it exploded and killed a policeman, and the accident (37) ______further development until cars became common.(38) ______traffic lights are an American invention. Red-green systems was installed in Cleveland in 1914. Three-colour signals, operated (39) ______ hand from.

(30) tower in the (40) ______ of the street, were installed in New York in 1918. The first lights of this type to (41) ______ in Britain were in London, on the junction between St. James’s Street and Piccadilly, in 1925. Automatic signals were installed (42) ______year later. In the past, traffic lights were special. In New York, some lights had a statue on top. In Los Angeles the lights did not just (43) ______ silently, but would ring bells to (44) ______the sleeping motorists of the 1930s. These are gone and have been replaced by standard models which are universally adopted. Question 35: A. resembled B. looked C. showed D. seemed Question 36: A. However B. Therefore C. Although D. Despite Question 37: A. forbade B. disappointed C. avoided D. discouraged Question 38: A. New B. Recent C. Modern D. Late Question 39: A. by B. with C. through D. in Question 40: A. middle B. heart C. focus D. halfway Question 41: A. show B. appear C. happen D. become Question 42: A. a B. in the C. in a D. the Question 43: A. change B. alter C. vary D. move Question 44: A. rise B. raise C. wake D. get up Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from45to54 Large animals that inhabit the desert have evolved a number of adaptations for reducing the effects of extreme heat. One adaptation is to be light in color, and to reflect rather than absorb the Sun’s rays. Desert mammals also depart from the normal mammalian practice of maintaining a constant body temperature. Instead of trying to keep down the body temperature deep inside the body, which would involve the expenditure of water and energy, desert mammals allow their temperatures to rise to what would normally be fever height, and temperatures as high as 46 degrees Celsius have been measured in Grant’s gazelles. The overheated body then cools down during the cold desert night, and indeed the temperature may fall unusually low by dawn, as low as 34 degrees Celsius in the camel. This is an advantage since the heat of the first few hours of daylight is absorbed in warming up the body, and an excessive buildup of heat does not begin until well into the day. Another strategy of large desert animals is to tolerate the loss of body water to a point that would be fatal for non-adapted animals. The camel can lose up to 30 percent of its body weight as water without harm to itself, whereas human beings die after losing only 12 to 13 percent of their body weight. An equally important adaptation is the ability to replenish this water loss at one drink. Desert animals can drink prodigious volumes in a short time, and camels have been known to imbibe over 100 liters in a few minutes. A very dehydrated person, on the other hand, cannot drink enough water to rehydrate at one session, because the human stomach is not sufficiently big and because a too rapid dilution of the body fluids causes death from water intoxication. The tolerance of water loss is of obvious advantage in the desert, as animals do not have to remain near a water hole but can obtain food from grazing sparse and far-flung pastures. Desert-adapted mammals have the further ability to feed normally when extremely dehydrated, it is a common experience in people that appetite is lost even under conditions of moderate thirst. Question 45: 1. What is the main topic of the passage?. A. Weather variations in the desert. C. Diseased of desert animals.

(31) B. Adaptations of desert animals.. D. Human use of desert animals.. Question 46: According to the passage, why is light coloring an advantage to large desert animals?. A. It helps them hide from predators C. It helps them see their young at B. It does not absorb sunlight as much as dark night. D. It keeps them cool at night. colors Question 47: The word “maintaining” is closest in meaning to _________.. A. measuring. B. inheriting. C. preserving. D. delaying. Question 48: The author uses of Grant’s gazelle as an example of A. an animal with a low average temperature B. an animal that is not as well adapted as the camel C. a desert animal that can withstand high body temperatures D. a desert animal with a constant body temperature Question 49: When is the internal temperature of a large desert mammal lower? A. Just before sunrise. C. Just after sunset. B. In the middle of the day. D. Just after drinking. Question 50: The word “tolerate” is closest in meaning to _________.. A. endure. B. replace. C. compensate. D. reduce. Question 51: What causes water intoxication? A. Drinking too much water very quickly. C. Bacteria in water.. B. Drinking polluted water.. D. Lack of water.. Question 52: Why does the author mention humans in the second paragraph? A. To show how they use camels.. C. To give instructions about desert survival.. B. To contrast them to desert mammals. D. To show how they have adapted to desert life.. Question 53: The word “obtain” is closest in meaning to _________.. A. digest. B. carry. C. save. D. get. Question 54: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an adaptation of large desert animals?. A. Variation in body temperatures. C. Drinking water quickly. B. Eating while dehydrated D. Being active at night Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 55to 64..

(32) An air pollutant is defined as a compound added directly or indirectly by humans to the atmosphere in such quantities as to affect humans, animals, vegetation, or materials adversely. Air pollution requires a very flexible definition that permits continuous change. When the first air pollution laws were established in England in the fourteenth century, air pollutants were limited to compounds that could be seen or smelled - a far cry from the extensive list of harmful substances known today. As technology has developed and knowledge of the health aspects of various chemicals has increased, the list of air pollutants has lengthened. In the future, even water vapor might be considered an air pollutant under certain conditions. Many of the more important air pollutants, such as sulfur oxides, carbon monoxide, and nitrogen oxides, are found in nature. As the Earth developed, the concentration of these pollutants was altered by various chemical reactions; they became components in biogeochemical cycles. These serve as an air purification scheme by allowing the compounds to move from the air to the water or soil. On a global basis, nature's output of these compounds dwarfs that resulting from human activities. However, human production usually occurs in a localized area, such as a city. In such a region, human output may be dominant and may temporarily overload the natural purification scheme of the cycles. The result is an increased concentration of noxious chemicals in the air. The concentrations at which the adverse effects appear will be greater than the concentrations that the pollutants would have in the absence of human activities. The actual concentration need not be large for a substance to be a pollutant; in fact, the numerical value tells us little until we know how much of an increase this represents over the concentration that would occur naturally in the area. For example, sulfur dioxide has detectable health effects at 0.08 parts per million (ppm), which is about 400 times its natural level. Carbon monoxide, however, has a natural level of 0.1 ppm and is not usually a pollutant until its level reaches about 15 ppm.. Question 55: What does the passage mainly discuss? C. How much harm air pollutants can cause. A. The economic impact of air D.The effects of compounds added to the atmosphere pollution. B. What constitutes an air pollutant Question 56: The word "adversely" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to _______. A. negatively B. quickly C. admittedly D. considerably Question 57: It can be inferred from the first paragraph that _______. A. water vapor is an air pollutant in localized areas B. most air pollutants today can be seen or smelled C. the definition of air pollution will continue to change. D. a substance becomes an air pollutant only in cities Question 58:The word "These"in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to_. A. the various chemical reactions B. the pollutants from the developing Earth. C. the compounds moved to the water. D. the components in biogeochemical cycles Question 59: For which of the following reasons can natural pollutants play an important role in controlling air pollution? A. They function as part of a purification process. B. They occur in greater quantities than other pollutants. C. They are less harmful to living beings than other pollutants.. D. They have existed since the Earth developed Question 60: According to the passage, human-generated air pollution in localized regions _______. A. can be dwarfed by nature's output of pollutants.

(33) B. can overwhelm the natural system that removes pollutants C. will damage areas outside of the localized regions D. will react harmfully with natural pollutants. Question 61: The word "localized"in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to _______. A. specified B. circled C. surrounded D. encircled Question 62: According to the passage, the numerical value of the concentration level of a substance is only useful if _______. A. the other substances in the area are known C. the natural level is also known B. it is in a localized area D. it can be calculated quickly. Question 63: The word "detectable" in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to_________. A. beneficial B. special C. measurable D. separable Question 64:Which of the following is best supported by the passage? A. To effectively control pollution, local government should regularly review their air pollution laws. B. One of the most important steps in preserving natural lands is to better enforce air pollution laws. C. Scientists should be consulted in order to establish uniform limits for all air pollutants. D. Human activities have been effective in reducing air pollution.. WRITING PART 1. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentences printed bepore it. Question 65: The only way you can become a good athlete is by training hard. àOnly by……………………………………………………………………………………… ……… Question 66: “It certainly wasn’t me who took your car! “ said Bob àBob denied ………………………………………………………………………………………….. Question 67: I’m sorry that I didn’t finish my homework last night. à I wish ………………………………………………………………………………………… ……. Question 68: If I have free time, I will help you. à Unless…………………………………………………………………………………… …………….. Question 69: He left quietly so that he wouldn’t disturb the children. à So as……………………………………………………………………………………… ……….. PART 2. In about 140 words, write a paragraph about one of your most memorable experiences in your life..

(34) ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………… ---------THE END-------ANSWER KEY Câu 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22. Đáp án B C D A C C B A B B B B D D A B B C A C C B. Câu 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44. Đáp án A A C B D B D D D C D A B A D C A A B A A C. Câu 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64. Đáp án B B C C A A A B D D B A C D A B A C C D. Question 65: The only way you can become a good athlete is by training hard àOnly by training hard can you become a good athlete Question 66: “It certainly wasn’t me who took your car! “ said Bob àBob denied having taken my car/ taking my car Question 67: I’m sorry that I didn’t finish my homework last night. à I wish I had finished my homework lastnight. Question 68: If I have free time, I will help you. Unless I have freetime, I will help you. Question 69: 10. He left quietly, so that he wouldn’t disturb the children..

(35) à So as not to disturb the children, he left quietly.. ĐỀ SỐ 5: SỞ GD-ĐT HÀ TĨNH TRƯỜNG THPT TRẦN PHÚ. ĐỀ THI THỬ THQG - NĂM HỌC 2014 2015 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Đề thi gồm có 05 trang Mã đề thi 11 Họ, tên thí sinh:.......................................................................... Số báo danh:............................................................................... Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from pronunciation in each of the following Questions Question 1: A. question B. presentation C. industrialization D. modernization Question 2: A. exchange B. champagne C. teacher. D. children. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following word. Question 3: A. project Question 4: A. company Question 5: A. rhinoceros. B. support B. atmosphere B. curriculum. C.secure C. customer C. kindergarten. D. believe D. employment D. discriminate. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 6: Not until the end of the 19th century ______ become a scientific discipline. A. plant breeding has B. did plant breeding C. plant breeding had D. has plant breeding Question 7: When friends insist on ______ expensive gifts, it makes most people uncomfortable. A. them to accept B. they accepting C. their accepting D. they accept Question 8: They always kept on good ______ with their next-door neighbors for the children’s sake. A. will B. friendship C. terms D. relations Question 9: They stayed for hours, ______ my mother was very annoyed about. A. that B. which C. this D. whom Question 10: The vase is definitely not_______, but just a very good imitation. A. real B. factual C. genuine D. true Question 11: I walked away as calmly as I could. __________, they would have thought I was a thief. A. In case B. If so C. Or else D. Owing to.

(36) Question 12: By the time Brown’s daughter graduates, __________ retired. A. he B. he has C. he’ll being D. he’ll have Question 13: I like that photo very much. Could you make an _____ for me? A. increase B. enlargement C. extension D. expansion Question 14: The problem is difficult, therefore ______ students could answer it. A. a great number of B. a lot of C. few D. a few Question 15: Do you think you can meet the _________ given by our teacher ?. A. deadline B. line C. dead D face Question 16: The twins look so much alike that almost no one can____ them____ A. take/apart B. tell/away C. tell/apart D. take/on Question 17: Everyone can join our club, ______ age and sex. A. not mention B. in case of C. in place of D. regardless of Question 18: There was a terrible storm on the night we first stayed at the campsite but we were alright with our tent and were dry as a ____. A. bone B. cover C. coat D. sheet Question 19: James Cook,______ , also discovered tje Hawaiian Islands. A. by exploring the South Sea he reached Australia. B. explored the South Sea and reaching Australia. C. who explored the South Sea and reached Australia. D. explored the South Sea then reached Australia. Question 20: The factory was _____ so the management tried to cut costs by making some workers redundant. A. competition B. competitive C. uncompetitive D. competed Question 21: 'These tablets really are ______. My headache’s much better now.' A. affective B. effective C. efficient D. affected Question 22: “I understand you don’t like opera. _____ I go at least once a month.” A. On contrast B. In contrast C. In the contrast D. On the contrast Question 23: “Excuse me, is anybody sitting here?” – “____________ .” A. Yes, I am so glad. C. Sorry, the seat is taken.. B. No, thanks. D. Yes, yes. You can sit here.. Question 24: Customer: " Can I have a look at that pullover, please" ? Salesgirl: “__________.” A. It's much cheaper B. Can I help you? C. Sorry, it is out of stock. D. Which one? This one?. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is closest in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question 25. : I didn’t go to work this morning . I stayed at home because of the morning rain. A. thanks to B. on account of C. in spite of D. in addition to Question 26. Scientists warn of the impending extinction of many species of plants and animals. A. irrefutable B. imminent C. formidable D. absolute Question 27. The aircraft carrier is indispensable in naval operations against sea or shore based enemies. A. unique B. novel C. exotic D. vital Question 28: I’d rather stay in a hotel with all the amenities than camp in the woods. A. expenses B. friends C. sports D. conveniences.

(37) Question 29: The most important thing is to keep yourself occupied. A. busy B. comfortable C. free D. relaxed Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.. Question 30:It announced today that an enquiry would be held into the collapse of a high-rise apartment A B C block in Kuala Lumpur last week. D Question 31: Not only the number of mahogany trees has decreased markedly during the last decade, but A B other valuable trees are becoming scarcer and scarcer as well. C D Question 32: Several people have apparent tried to change the man’s mind, but he refuses to listen A B C D Question 33: A galaxy, where may include billions of stars, is held together by gravitation attraction. A B C D Question 34: When Irene got home, she was lying in bed thinking about the wonderful time she has had. A B C D. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks . TRAFFIC LIGHTS The first traffic signal was invented by a railway signaling engineer. It was installed (35) ___ the Houses of Parliament in 1868. It (36)_____ like any railway signal of the time, and was operated by gas. (37) ____, it exploded and killed a policeman, and the accident discouraged further development until cars became common. (38) ____ traffic lights are an American invention. Red – green systems were installed in Cleveland in 1914. Three - color signals, operated (39) _____ hand from a tower in the (40) _____ of the street, were installed in New York in 1918. The first lights of this type to (41) ____ in Britain were in London, on the junction between St. James’s Street and Piccadilly, in 1925. Automatic signals were installed (42) ____ year later. In the past, traffic lights were special. In New York, some lights had a statue on top. In Los Angeles the lights did not just change silently, but would ring bells to (43).

(38) _____ the sleeping motorists of the 1930s. These are gone and have been (44) ____ by standard models which are universally adopted. Question 35. A. outside B. out C.out of D. outdoors Question 36. A. resembled B. looked C. showed D. seemed Question 37. A. However B. Therefore C. Although D. Despite Question 38. A. New B. Recent C. Modern D. Late Question 39. A. by B. with C. through D. in Question 40. A. middle B. heart C. focus D. halfway Question 41. A. show B. appear C. happen D. become Question 42. A. a B. in the C. in a D. the Question 43. A. rise B. raise C. wake D. get up Question 44. A. reproduced B. replaced C. removed D. remained Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each of the following questions. Recent technological advances in manned and unmanned vehicles, along with breakthroughs in satellite technology and computer equipment, have overcome some of the limitations of divers and diving equipment for scientists doing research on the great oceans of the world. Without a vehicle, divers often became sluggish, and their mental concentration was severely limited. Because undersea pressure affects their speech organs, communication among divers has always been difficult or impossible. But today, most oceanographers avoid the use of vulnerable human divers, preferring to reduce the risk to human life and make direct obervations by means of instruments that are lowered into the ocean, from samples take from the water, or from photographs made by orbiting satellites. Direct observations of the ocean floor can be made not only by divers but also by deep-diving submarines in the water and even by the technology of sophisticated aerial photgraphy from vantage points above the surface of more than seven miles and cruise at depths of fifteen thousand feet. In addition, radio-equipped buoys can be operated by remote control in order to transmit data back to land-based laboratories via satellite. Particularly important for ocean study are data about water temperature, currents, and weather. Satellite photographs can show the distribution of sea ice, oil slicks, and cloud formations over the ocean. Maps created from satellite pictures can represent the temperature and the color of the ocean’s surface, enabling researchers to study the ocean currents from laboratories on dry land. Furthermore, computers help oceanographers to collect, organize, and.

(39) analyze information from submarines and satellites. By creating a model of the ocean’s movement and characteristics, scientists can predict the patterns and possible effects of the ocean on the enviroment. Recently, many oceanographers have been relying more on satellites and computers than on research ships or even submarine vehicles because they can supply a greater range of information more quickly and more effectively. Some of humankind’s most serious problems, especially those concerning energy and food, may be solved with the help of observations made possible by this new technology. Question 45. With what topic is the passage primarily converned? A. Communication among drivers. B. Direct observation of the ocean floor. C. Undersea vehicles. D. Technological advances in oceanography. Question 46. The word “sluggish” is closest in meaning to _______. A. very weak B. nervous C. confused D. slow moving Question 47This passage suggests that the successful exploration of the ocean depends upon _______. A. vehicles as well as divers B. controlling currents and the weather C. radios that divers use to communicate D. the limitations of diving equipment Question 48. Divers have had problems in communicating underwater because _______. A. they did not pronounce clearly B. the water destroyed their speech organs C. the pressure affected their speech organs D. the vehicles they used have not been perfected Question 49. The word “cruise” could best be replaced by _______. A. travel at a constant speed B. function without problems C. stay in communication D. remain still Question 50. Undersea vehicles _______. A. have the same limitations that divers have B. are too small for a man to fit inside C. make direct observations of the ocean floor D. are very slow to respond Question 51. The word “data” is closest in meaing to _______. A. samples B. photographs C. information D. articles Question 52. How is a radio-quipped buoy operated? A. by operators outside the vehicle on a diving platform. B. by operators outside the vehicle in a laboratory on shore. C. By operators outside the vehicle on ship. D. by operators inside the vehicle in the part underwater. Question 53. Which of the following are NOT shown in satellite photographs? A. The location of sea ice. B. Cloud formations over the ocean. C. The temperature of the ocean’s surface. D. A model of the.

(40) ocean’s movements. Question 54. The words “those” refers to __________. A. vehicles B. problems C. ships. D. computers. Reading the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Animation traditionally is done by hand-drawing or painting successive frame of an object, each slightly different than the proceeding frame. In computer animation, although the computer may be the one to draw the different frames, in most cases the artist will draw the beginning and ending frames and the computer will produce the drawings between the first and the last drawing. This is generally referred to as computer-assisted animation, because the computer is more of a helper than an originator. In full computer animation, complex mathematical formulas are used to produce the final sequences of pictures. These formulas operate on extensive databases of numbers that defines the objects in the pictures as they exist in mathematical space. The database consists of endpoints, and color and intensity information. Highly trained professionals are needed to produce such effects because animation that obtains high degrees of realism involves computer techniques from three-dimensional transformation, shading, and curvatures. High-tech computer animation for film involves very expensive computer systems along with special color terminals or frame buffers. The frame buffer is nothing more than a giant image memory for viewing a single frame. It temporarily holds the image for display on the screen. A camera can be used to film directly from the computer’s display screen, but for the highest quality images possible, expensive film recorders are used. The computer computers the positions and colors for the figures in the picture, and sends this information to the recorder, which captures it on film. Sometimes, however, the images are stored on a large magnetic disk before being sent to the recorder. Once this process is completed, it is replaced for the next frame. When the entire sequence has been recorded on the film, the film must be developed before the animation can be viewed. If the entire sequence does not seem right, the motions must be corrected, recomputed, redisplayed, and rerecorded. This approach can be very expensive and time- consuming. Often, computer-animation companies first do motion tests with simple computer-generated line drawings before selling their computers to the task of calculating the high-resolution, realistic-looking images. Question 55: What aspect of computer animation does the passage mainly discuss? A. The production procession B. The equipment needed C. The high costD. The role of the artist.

(41) Question 56: According to the passage, in computer-assisted animation the role of the computer is to draw the ____. A. first frame B. middle frames C. last frame D. entire sequences of frames Question 57: The word “they” in the second paragraph refers to _________. A. formulas B. objects C. numbers D. database Question 58: According to the passage, the frame buffers mentioned in the third paragraph are used to ___. A. add color to the images B. expose several frames at the same time C. store individual images D. create new frames Question 59: According to the passage, the positions and colors of the figures in high-tech animation are determined by _____. A. drawing several versions B. enlarging one frame at a lime C. analyzing the sequence from different angles D. using computer calculations Question 60: The word “captures” in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to _________. A. separates B. registers C. describes D. numbers Question 61: The word “Once” in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to _________. A. before B. since C. after D. while Question 62: According to the passage, how do computer-animation companies often test motion? A. They experiment with computer-generated line drawings. B. They hand-draw successive frames. C. They calculate high-resolutions images. D. They develop extensive mathematical formulas. Question 63: The word “task” in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to _________. A. possibility B. position C. time D. job Question 64: Which of the following statement is supported by the passage? A. Computers have reduced the costs of animation. B. In the future, traditional artists will no longer be needed. C. Artists are unable to produce drawings as high in quality as computer drawings. D. Animation involves a wide range of technical and artistic skills. WRITING: Part 1. Complete the second sentence so that it has similar meaning to the first one. Question 64: He was sentenced to six months in prison for his part in the robbery. →He received ........................................................................................................................

(42) Question 64: He is too short to be a policemam. →He is so.............................................................................................................................. Question 64: If you want my advice, I would forget about buying a new house. →If I were............................................................................................................................ Question 64: The fridge is completely empty. →There ............................................................................................................................ ... Question 64: There is a rumour that you stole it. →It is ................................................................................................................................... Part 2. Write a paragraph about 140 words with the topic "University is not the only way for students who have just graduated from high school” ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................

(43) ........................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................... ---------THE END----------. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20. A B A D C B C C B C C D B C A C D A C C. ĐÁP ÁN PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM 64*0,125 =8,0 m 21 B 41 B 61 22 B 42 A 62 23 C 43 C 63 24 D 44 B 64 25 B 45 D 26 B 46 D 27 D 47 A 28 D 48 C 29 A 49 A 30 A 50 C 31 A 51 C 32 B 52 B 33 A 53 D 34 D 54 B 35 A 55 A 36 B 56 B 37 A 57 B 38 C 58 C 39 A 59 B 40 A 60 B. PHẦN TỰ LUẬN Part 1. (0,5m) 1.→He received a six month sentence for his part in the robbery. 2.→He is not tall enough to become a policeman 3.→If I were you, I would forget about buying a new house. 4.→There is nothing left in the fridge. 5.→It is rumoured that you stole it. Part 2. (1,5m) 1. Content: (Nội dung) 0.5 m 2. Organization & Presentation:(bố cục và sắp xếp) 0.5m 3. Language& Handwriting (cấu trúc& chính tả) 0.5m. C A A D.

(44) ĐỀ SỐ 6: SỞ GD-ĐT HÀ TĨNH TRƯỜNG THPT TRẦN PHÚ. ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG - NĂM HỌC 2014 - 2015 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Đề thi gồm có 05 trang Mã đề thi 01 Họ, tên thí sinh:.......................................................................... Số báo danh:............................................................................... Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. hand B. bank C. sand D. band Question 2: A. cooks B. loves C. joins D. spends Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. investigate B. aborigine C. convenient D. supervisor Question 4: A. determine B. diversity C. occupation D. miraculous Question 5: A. suitable B. eliminate C. accent D. cultural Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 6: Okay, I …………… the popcorn if you buy the drinks. A. will buy B. buy C. would buy D. bought Question 7: ...................... flowers are usually made of plastic or silk. A. Unreal B. False C. Artificial D. Untrue Question 8: Computers are said to be ……….…… for the development of mankind. A. here today, gone tomorrow B. here and there C. here to stay D. neither here nor there Question 9: If only the Prime Minister ........his arts policy would lose him the election. A. had known B. knows C. was knowing D. could have knowing Question 10: How can the boss act ……………… nothing had happened? A. therefore B. so C. if D. as though.

(45) Question 11: I don’t remember ………….. of your decision to change our vocation plan. A. to tell B. being told C. telling D. to be told Question 12: Last year Matt earned …………. his brother, who had a better position. A. twice as much as B. twice more than C. twice as more as D. twice as many as Question 13: Most people prefer flying ………….. going by the sea because it’s too much faster. A. over B. than C. from D. to Question 14: We have a party tonight and Daisy is worried about ……………. . A. what to wear B. which wearing C. these wearing D. that she wearing Question 15: Paul was .... of himself for having stolen money from his mother. A. shy B. ashamed C. timid D. embarrassed Question 16: While studying, he was financially dependent …………….. his parents. A. of B. to C. from D. on. Question 17: Mr. Pike …………. English at our school for 20 years before he retired last year. A. had been teaching B. has been teachingC. was teaching D. is teaching Question 18: Don't worry about trying to catch last train home, as we can easily …… you up for the night. A. keep B. put C. take D. set Question 19: This is valuable ................ chair which dates back to the eighteeth century. A. traditional B. old-fashioned C. antique D. ancient Question 20: Come with me. I’m seeing “The killer” tomorrow. ………………. A. Do you? B. Shall you? C. Are you? D. Will you? Question 21: It is a ……………………… . A. polyester sleeping blue bag B. blue sleeping polyester bag C. blue polyester sleeping bag D. sleeping blue polyester bag Question 22: It is essential that every student ………….. to learn English at university. A. had B. have C. has D. to have Question 23: James: “How about a game of cards?” Susan: “……………………….” A. Good idea. B. I’m afraid I do. C. No, it’s interesting, isn’t it? D. Sorry, I don’t like. Question 24: Tom: “How did you get here?” - John: “………………..” A. The train is so crowded. B. I came here last night. C. I came here by train. D. Is it far from here?.

(46) Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 25: It was inevitable that the smaller company should merge with the larger. A. urgent. B. unavoidable. C. important. D. necessary. Question 26: Around 150 B.C. the Greek astronomer Hipparchus developed a system to classify stars according to brightness. A. shine diversify. B. record. C. categorize. D.. Question 27: S. Mayo Hospital in New Orleans was so named in recognition of Dr. Mayo’s outstanding humanitarianism. A. exhaustive B. charitable C. remarkable D. widespread Question 28: The weather is horrible at the moment, isn’t it? I hope it clears up later. A. becomes brighter B. shines C. is not cloudy D. clean Question 29:. There used to be a shop at the end of the street but it went out of business a year ago. A. closed up B. closed C. closed down D. closed into In these sentences, each one has four underlined words or phrases marked A, B, C, and D. Choose the one word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct. Question 30: Students suppose to read all the questions carefully and find out the answers to them. A B C D Question 31: It was suggested that Pedro studies the material more thoroughly before attempting to pass the exam. A B C D Question 32: My father used to give me a good advice whenever I had a problem. A B C D Question 33: Not until I was on my way to the airport that I realized I had left my passport at home. A B C D Question 34: Each of the nurses report to the operating room when his or her name is called. A B C D.

(47) Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. The latest addiction to trap thousands of people is Internet, which has been (35) ............... for broken relationships, job losses, finacial ruin and even one suicide. Psychologists now recognize Internet Addiction Syndrome (IAS) as a new illness that could (36) ................... serious problems and ruin many lives. Special help groups have been set up to (37) .................. sufferers help and support. IAS is similar to (38) ................... problems like gambling, smoking and drinking : addicts have dreams about Internet; they need to use it first thing in the morning; they (39) ............... to their partners about how much time they spend online; they (40) .................. they could cut down, but are unable to do so . A recent study found that many users spend up to 40 hours a week on the Internet; (41) .................... they felt guilty, they became depressed if they were (42) ................... to stop using it. Almost anyone can be at risk. Some of the addicts are teenagers who are already hooked on computer games and who (43) .................... it very difficult to resist the games on the Internet. Surprisingly, however, psychologists (44) .................. that most victims are middle-aged housewives who have never used a computer before. Question 35: A. accused B. mistaken C. blamed D. faulted Question 36: A. take B. cause C. affect D. lead Question 37: A. recommend B. offer C. suggest D. advise Question 38: A. others B. another C. the other D. other Question 39: A. lie B. cheat C. deceive D. betray Question 40: A. rather B. want C. prefer D. wish Question 41: A. unless B. without C. although D. despite Question 42: A. made B. allowed C. let D. had Question 43: A. have B. find C. feel D. say Question 44: A. say B. tell C. object D. promise Read the following passage carefully and then choose the best answer to each question. Butterflies are among the most extensively studied insects - an estimated 90 percent of the world's species have scientific names. As a consequence, they are perhaps the best group of insects for examining patterns of terrestrial biotic diversity and distribution. Butterflies also have a favorable image with the general public. Hence, they are an excellent group for communicating information on science and conservation issues such as diversity. Perhaps the aspect of butterfly diversity that has received the most attention over the past century is the striking difference in species richness between tropical and temperate regions. For example, in 1875 one biologist pointed out the diversity of butterflies in the Amazon when he mentioned that about 700 species were found within an hour's.

(48) walk, whereas the total number found on the British islands did not exceed 66, and the whole of Europe supported only 321. This early comparison of tropical and temperate butterfly richness has been well confirmed. A general theory of diversity would have to predict not only this difference between temperate and tropical zones, but also patterns within each region, and how these patterns vary among different animal and plant groups. However, for butterflies, variation of species richness within temperate or tropical regions, rather man between them, is poorly understood. Indeed, comparisons of numbers of species among the Amazon basin, tropical Asia, and Africa are still mostly "personal communication" citations, even for vertebrates, In other words, unlike comparison between temperate and tropical areas, these patterns are still in the documentation phase. In documenting geographical variation in butterfly diversity, some arbitrary, practical decisions are made. Diversity, number of species, and species richness are used synonymously; little is known about the evenness of butterfly distribution. The New World butterflies make up the preponderance of examples because they are the most familiar species. It is hoped that by focusing on them, the errors generated by imperfect and incomplete taxonomy will be minimized. Question 45: Which aspect of butterflies does the passage mainly discuss? A. Their adaptation to different habitats B. Their names C. Their physical characteristics D. Their variety Question 46: The word consequence in the passage is closest in meaning to "………….". A. explanation B. result C. analysis D. requirement Question 47: Butterflies are a good example for communicating information about conservation issues because they …………… . A. are found mainly in temperate climates B. have been given scientific names C. are simple in structure D. are viewed positively by people Question 48: The word striking in the passage is closest in meaning to "……………..". A. successful B. noticeable C. confusing D. physical Question 49: The word exceed in the passage is closest in meaning to "……………". A. come close to B. locate C. go beyond D. allow Question 50: All of the followings are mentioned as being important parts of a general theory of diversity EXCEPT ……………….. . A. migration among temperate and tropical zones B. variation of patterns of distribution of species among different animals and plants C. differences between temperate and tropical zones D. patterns of distribution of species in each region Question 51: The author mentions tropical Asia in the passage as an example of a location where ………..

(49) A. butterflies are affected by human populations B. documenting plant species is more difficult than documenting butterfly species C. butterfly behavior varies with climate D. a general theory of butterfly diversity has not yet been firmly established Question 52: Which of the following is NOT well understood by biologists? A. Differences in species richness between temperate and tropical regions B. Comparisons of behavior patterns of butterflies and certain animal groups C. European butterfly habitats D. Differences in species richness within a temperate or a tropical region Question 53: The idea "little is known about the evenness of butterfly distribution" is that ………… . A. we know about butterfly evenness distribution to some extent B. we don't know anything about butterfly evenness distribution C. there are many other things that we don't know about butterfly evenness distribution D. we know much about butterfly evenness distribution Question 54: The word generated in the passage is closest in meaning to "……………". A. caused B. assisted C. estimated D. requested Read the following passage carefully and then choose the best answer to each question. During the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries, almost nothing was written about the contributions of women during the colonial period and the early history of the newly formed United States. Lacking the right to vote and absent from the seats of power, women were not considered an important force in history. Anne Bradstreet wrote some significant poetry in the seventeenth century, Mercy Otis Warren produced the best contemporary history of the American Revolution, and Abigail Adams penned important letters showing she exercised great political influence over her husband, John, the second President of the United States. But little or no notice was taken of these contributions. During these centuries, women remained invisible in history books. Throughout the nineteenth century, this lack of visibility continued, despite the efforts of female authors writing about women. These writers, like most of their male counterparts, were amateur historians. Their writings were celebratory in nature, and they were uncritical in their selection and use of sources. During the nineteenth century, however, certain feminists showed a keen sense of history by keeping records of activities in which women were engaged. National, regional, and local women’s organizations compiled accounts of their doings. Personal correspondence, newspaper clippings, and souvenirs were saved and stored. These sources from the core of the two greatest collections of women’s history in the United States one at the Elizabeth and Arthur Schlesinger Library at Radcliffe College, and.

(50) the other the Sophia Smith Collection at Smith College. Such sources have provided valuable materials for later Generations of historians. Despite the gathering of more information about ordinary women during the nineteenth Century, most of the writing about women conformed to the “great women” theory of History, just as much of mainstream American history concentrated on “great men.” To demonstrate that women were making significant contributions to American life, female authors singled out women leaders and wrote biographies, or else important women produced their autobiographies. Most of these leaders were involved in public life as reformers, activists working for women’s right to vote, or authors, and were not representative at all of the great of ordinary woman. The lives of ordinary people continued, generally, to be untold in the American histories being published. Question 55: What does the passage mainly discuss? A. The role of literature in early American histories B. The place of American women in written histories C. The keen sense of history shown by American women D.The “great women” approach to history used by American historians Question 56: The word “contemporary” in the 1st paragraph means that the history was A. informative B. thoughtful C. written at that time D. faultfinding Question 57: In the first paragraph, Bradstreet, Warren, and Adams are mentioned to show that ________ A. a woman’s status was changed by marriage B. even the contributions of outstanding women were ignored C. only three women were able to get their writing published D. poetry produced by women was more readily accepted than other writing by women Question 58: The word “celebratory” in the 2nd paragraph means that the writings referred to ________ A. related to parties B. religious C. serious D. full of praise nd Question 59: The word “they” in the 2 paragraph refers to________ A. efforts B. authors C. counterparts D. sources nd Question 60: In the 2 paragraph, what weakness in nineteenth-century histories does the author point out? A. They put too much emphasis on daily activities B. They left out discussion of the influence of money on politics. C. The sources of the information they were based on were not necessarily accurate. D. They were printed on poor-quality paper. Question 61: On the basis of information in the third paragraph, which of the following would most likely have been collected by nineteenth-century feminist organizations?.

(51) A. Newspaper accounts of presidential election results B. Biographies of John Adams C. Letters from a mother to a daughter advising her how to handle a family problem D. Books about famous graduates of the country’s first college Question 62: What use was made of the nineteenth-century women’s history materials in the Schlesinger Library and the Sophia Smith Collection? A. They were combined and published in a multivolume encyclopedia B. They formed the basis of college courses in the nineteenth century. C. They provided valuable information for twentieth- century historical researchers. D. They were shared among women’s colleges throughout the United States. Question 63: In the last paragraph, the author mentions all of the following as possible roles of nineteenth-century “great women” EXCEPT ________ A. authors B. reformers C. activists for women’s rights D. politicians Question 64: The word “representative” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _________ A. typical B. satisfied C. supportive D. distinctive WRITING Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. Question 65: This is my first game of water-polo. > I have ............................................................................................................................... . Question 66: “What time does the film start, Peter?” > I asked ............................................................................................................................... . Question 67: Smith Ltd are supplying our company with furniture. > Our company ............................................................................................................................... .. Question 68: I didn't have an umbrella with me and so I got wet. > I wouldn't ............................................................................................................................... . Question 69: It was a mistake for you to buy that car. > You shouldn’t ............................................................................................................................... . Part II. In about 140 words, write a paragraph about one of the parties you have ever attended. ………………………………………………………………………………………… …….. ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………..………………….

(52) ………………………………………………………………………………………… ……..………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ……..………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ……..………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ……..………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ……..………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… …….. ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………..………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ……..………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ……..………………… ----------- The End ----------.

(53) ĐÁP ÁN PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM (8 điểm) Câu hỏi 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22. Đáp án B A D C B A C C A D B A D A B D A B C D C B. Câu hỏi 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44. Đáp án A C B C C C C A A B C B C B B D A D C A B A. Câu hỏi 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64. Đáp án D B D B C A D A C A B C B D B C C C D A. PHẦN VIẾT ( 2 điểm) I. (0,5 điểm) Câu 65: I have never played water-polo before. Câu 66: I asked Peter what time the film started. Câu 67: Our company is being supplied with furniture by Smith Ltd. Câu 68: I wouldn’t have got wet if I had had an umbrella with me. Câu 69: You shouldn’t have bought that car. II. (1.5 điểm) Mô tả tiêu chí đánh giá 1.. Bố cục o Câu đề dẫn chủ đề mạch lạc o Bố cục hợp lí rõ ràng phù hợp yêu cầu của đề bài. Điểm đa 0.40. tối.

(54) 2. 3.. 4.. 5.. o Bố cục uyển chuyển từ mở bài đến kết luận Phát triển ý o Phát triển ý có trình tự logic o Có dẫn chứng, ví dụ, … đủ để bảo vệ ý kiến của mình Sử dụng ngôn ngữ o Sử dụng ngôn từ phù hợp nội dung o Sử dụng ngôn từ đúng văn phong/ thể loại o Sử dụng từ nối các ý cho bài viết uyển chuyển Nội dung o Đủ thuyết phục người đọc o Đủ dẫn chứng, ví dụ, lập luận o Độ dài: Số từ không nhiều hơn hoặc ít hơn so với quy định 5% Ngữ pháp, dấu câu và chính tả o Sử dụng đúng dấu câu o Chính tả: Viết đúng chính tả _ Lỗi chính tả gây hiểu nhầm/ sai lệch ý sẽ bị tính một lỗi (trừ 1% điểm của bài viết) _ Cùng một lỗi chính tả lặp lại chỉ tính là một lỗi o Sử dụng đúng thời, thể, cấu trúc câu đúng ngữ pháp. (Lỗi ngữ pháp gây hiểu nhầm/ sai lệch ý sẽ bị trừ 1% điểm bài viết.) Tổng. 0.25 0.30. 0.30. 0.25. 1.5. ĐỀ SỐ 7: SỞ GD-ĐT HÀ TĨNH TRƯỜNG THPT TRẦN PHÚ. ĐỀ THI THỬ THQG - NĂM HỌC 2014 2015 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Đề thi gồm có 05 trang Mã đề thi 02 Họ, tên thí sinh:.......................................................................... Số báo danh:............................................................................... Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others: Question 1: A. adventure B. future C. mature D. figure Question 2: A. young B. plough C. couple D. cousin.

(55) Choose the word whose stress position is different from that of the others: Question 3: A. open B. happen C. offer Question 4: A. difficulty. B. simplicity. C. discovery. D. begin. D. commodity. Question 5: A. obligatory B. geographical C. international D. undergraduate Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence below: Question 6: _________ he is old, he wants to travel around the world. A. In spite of B. Although C. Despite D. Because Question 7: Had I studied harder, I_________________better in the last exam. A. would do B. would have done C. had done D. wouldn’t have done Question 8: The larger the apartment, the __________________ the rent is. A. expensive B. more expensive C. expensively D. most expensive Question 9: Nam wanted to know what time _______. A. the movie began B. the movie begins C. does the movie begin D. did the movie begin Question 10: On attaining maximum size, ______ by drawing itself out and dividing into two daughter amoebas, each receiving identical nuclear materials. A. the reproduction of the amoeba B. the amoeba, which reproduces C. reproducing the amoeba D. the amoeba reproduces Question 11: Last week, our class went to Ha Long Bay for a picnic, ________ made us very happy then. A. which B. that C. it D. of which Question 12: Lenses, ____________, are used to correct imperfections in eyesight. A. are the forms of glasses and contact lenses B. in the form of glasses and contact lenses C. glasses and contact lenses which form D. glasses and contact lenses may be formed Question 13:Tim: “____________” – Jeycy: “Certainly” A. Welcome back! B. What are you doing there? C. I’m sorry I am late D. May I borrow a pencil , please? Question 14: Jane:“Would you mind if I use you computer for an hour?” Tony:”________” A. Not at all. I’ve finished my job B. Yes, you can use it. C. Of course not. I still need it now D. Yes, It’s all right. Question 15: Thanks to the laser beams, at last, he could get rid of the __________birthmark on his face. A. normal B. abnormal C. abnormality D. abnormally Question 16: That beautiful girl died of an________ morphine. A. overweight B. overhear C. overdo D. overdose Question 17: He is the postman _____ I got this letter.. A. from who B. to whom C. from whom D. with whom Question 18: We usually do go by train, even though the car _________ is a lot quicker. A. travel B. journey C. trip D. voyage.

(56) Question 19: I suggest the room ………………..before Christmas. A. be decorated B. is decorated C. were decorated D. should decorate Question 20: Many species of plants and animals are in___________ of extinction. A. dangerous B. endangered C. danger D. dangerously Question 21: The last person ______ the room must turn off the lights. A. to leave B. who leave C. that leave D. all are correct Question 22: “What’s the matter? You don’t look very well.” – “I feel a little _________________.” A. out of the blue C. out of order B. under the weather D. under the impression. Question 23: I know we had an arguement, but now I'd quite like to _________. A. look down B. make up C. fall out D. bring up Question 24: Nowadays women ___the same wages as men A.should pay B.will be paid C.will pay D.should be paid Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your sheet to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined words in each of the following sentences. Question 25: As tourism is more developed, people worry about the damage to the flora and fauna of the island. A. fruits and vegetables B. flowers and trees C. plants and animals D. mountains and forests Question 26: “It is a really difficult matter to decide how to solve now. I will need time to think it over”. A. to sleep on it. B. to make it better C. to make up for it D. to think out of time Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined words in each of the following sentences. Question 27: “That is a well-behaved boy whose behaviour has nothing to complain about” A. good behavior B. behaving improprely C. behaving nice D. behaving cleverly Question 28: After five days on trial, the court found him innocent of the crime and he was released. A. benevolent B. innovative C. naive D. guilty Question 29: His creer advancement was slow and he did not gain any promotion until he was 40, when he won the position of the company’s Chief Excutive. B. Progress B. elevation C. rise D. decrease Choose the option among A, B, C, D which needs correcting to make a complete sentence Question 30: I didn’t feel like to go to church this morning because it was raining hard A B C D.

(57) Question 31: Tom likes to gossip about other people, so he doesn’t like them to gossip about him. A B C D Question 32: Have a headache, an upset stomach, and a bad case of sunburn did not put me in a good mood A B C D for the evening. Question 33: . Genetic engineering is helping researchers unravel the mysteries of previously incurable diseases A B so that they get to its root causes and find cures. C D Question 34: The novelist Shirley Hazzard is noted for the insight, poetic style, and sensitive she demonstrates A B C D in her works. Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D)) that best fits the blank space in the following passage: Environmental Concerns Earth is the only place we know of in the universe that can support human life. (35) _____ human activities are making the planet less fit to live on. As the western world (36) _____ on consuming two-thirds of the world's resources while half of the world's population do so just to stay alive we are rapidly destroying the (37) _____ resource we have by which all people can survive and prosper. Everywhere fertile soil is (38) _____ built on or washed into the sea. Renewable resources are exploited so much that they will never be able to recover (39) _____. We discharge pollutants into the atmosphere without any thought of the consequences. As a (40) _____ the planet's ability to support people is being reduced at the very time when rising human numbers and consumption are (41) _____ increasingly heavy demands on it. The Earth's (42) _____ resources are there for us to use. We need food, water, air, energy, medicines, warmth, shelter and minerals to (43) _____ us fed, comfortable, healthy and active. If we are sensible in how we use the resources, they will (44) _____ indefinitely. But if we use them wastefully and excessively, they will soon run out and everyone will suffer. Question 35: A. Although B. Yet C. Still D. Despite Question 36: A. continues B. repeats C. follows D. carries.

(58) Question 37: A. individual solitary Question 38: A. neither B. sooner Question 39: A. utterly B. completely Question 40: A. result B. reaction Question 41: A. making B. doing Question 42: A. living B. real Question 43: A. maintain keep Question 44: A. remain B. go. B. alone. C. very. D.. C. rather C. quite C. development C. having C. natural B. stay. D. either D. greatly D. product D. taking D. genuine C. hold D.. C. last. D. stand. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions Ocean water plays an indispensable role in supporting life. The great ocean basins hold about 300 million cubic miles of water. From this vast amount, about 80,000 cubic miles of water are sucked into the atmosphere each year by evaporation and returned by precipitation and drainage to the ocean. More than 24,000 cubic miles of rain descend annually upon the continents. This vast amount is required to replenish the lakes and streams, springs and water tables on which all flora and fauna are dependent. Thus, the hydrosphere permits organic existence. The hydrosphere has strange characteristics because water has properties unlike those of any other liquid. One anomaly is that water upon freezing expands by about 9 percent, whereas most liquids contract on cooling. For this reason, ice floats on water bodies instead of sinking to the bottom. If the ice sank, the hydrosphere would soon be frozen solidly, except for a thin layer of surface melt water during the summer season. Thus, all aquatic life would be destroyed and the interchange of warm and cold currents, which moderates climate, would be notably absent. Another outstanding charateristic of water is that water has a heat capacity which is the highest of all liquids and solids except ammonia. This characterisitc enables the oceans to absorb and store vast quantities of heat, thereby often preventing climatic extremes. In addition, water dissolves more substances than any other liquid. It is this characteristic which helps make oceans a great storehouse for minerals which have been washed down from the continents. In several areas of the world these minerals are being commercially exploited. Solar evaporation of salt is widely practised, potash is extracted from the Dead Sea, and magnesium is produced from sea water along the American Gulf Coast. Question 45: The author’s main purpose in this passage is to ___________. A. illustrate the importance of conserving water B. describe the properties and uses of water C. compare water with other liquids D. explain how water is used in commerce and industry.

(59) Question 46: The phrase “this vast amount” in line 4 of paragraph 1 refers to __________ . A. 80,000 million cubic miles of water B. 24,000 cubic miles of rain C. 80,000 cubic miles of water D. 300 million cubic miles of water Question 47: The word “replenish” in paragraph 1 can best replaced by ________ . A. fill again B. replace C. evaporate D. form Question 48: According to the passage, fish can survive in the oceans because ________ . A. evaporation and condensation create a water cycle B. there are currents in the oceans C. they do not need oxygen D. ice floats Question 49: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a characterisitic of water? A. Water can absorb heat B. Water is good solvent. C. Water contracts on cooling D. Water expands when it is frozen Question 50: The word “outstanding” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________ . A. exceptionally good B. special C. amusing D. important Question 51: According the passage, the hydrosphere is NOT ___________ . A. the part of the earth covered by water B. responsible for all forms of life C. in danger of freezing over D. a source of natural resources Question 52: The author’s tone in the passage can best be described as ________ . A. dispassionate B. speculative C. biased D. dogmatic Question 53: The author organizes the passage by _______. A. juxtaposition of true and untrue ideas B. comparison and contrast C. general statement followed by examples D. hypothesis and proof Question 54: Which of the following statements would be the most likely to begin the paragraph immediately following the passage? A. Water has the ability to erode land B. Droughts and flooding are two types of disasters associated with water C. Another remarkably property of ice is its strength D. Magnesium is widely used in metallurgical processes Read the following passage and blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer for each of the questions. Until recently, most American entrepreneurs were men. Discrimination against women in business, the demands of caring for families, and lack of business training had kept the number of women entrepreneurs small. Now, however, businesses owned by women account for more than $40 billion in annual revenues, and this figure is likely to continue rising throughout the 1990s. As Carolyn Doppelt Gray, an official of the Small Business Administration, has noted, "The 1970s was the decade of women entering management, and the 1980s turned out to be the decade of the woman.

(60) entrepreneur". What are some of the factors behind this trend? For one thing, as more women earn advanced degrees in business and enter the corporate world, they are finding obstacles. Women are still excluded from most executive suites. Charlotte Taylor, a management consultant, had noted, "In the 1970s women believed if they got an MBA and worked hard they could become chairman of the board. Now they've found out that isn't going to happen, so they go out on their own". In the past, most women entrepreneurs worked in "women's" fields: cosmetics and clothing, for example. But this is changing. Consider ASK Computer Systems, a $22-million-a-year computer software business. It was founded in 1973 by Sandra Kurtzig, who was then a housewife with degrees in math and engineering. When Kurtzig founded the business, her first product was software that let weekly newspapers keep tabs on their newspaper carriers-and her office was a bedroom at home, with a shoebox under the bed to hold the company's cash. After she succeeded with the newspaper software system, she hired several bright computer-science graduates to develop additional programs. When these were marketed and sold, ASK began to grow. It now has 200 employees, and Sandra Kurtzig owns $66.9 million of stock. Of course, many women who start their own businesses fail, just as men often do. They still face hurdles in the business world, especially problems in raising money; the banking and finance world is still dominated by men, and old attitudes die hard. Most businesses owned by women are still quite small. But the situation is changing; there are likely to be many more Sandra Kurtzigs in the years ahead. Question 55: What is the main idea of this passage? A.Women today are better educated than in the past, making them more attractive to the business world. B.The computer is especially lucrative for women today. C. Women are better at small business than men are. D. Women today are opening more business of their own. Question 56:The word “excluded” is closest meaning to _________ . A. not permitted in B. often invited to C. decorators of D. charged admission to Question 57: All of the following were mentioned in the passage as detriments to women in the business world EXCEPT _________ . A.Women were required to stay at home with their families. B. Women lacked ability to work in business. C.Women faced discrimination in business. D.Women were not trained in business. Question 58: The word “that” refers to _________. A. a woman becomes chairman of the board. B. Women working hard C. Women achieving advanced degrees D. Women believing that business is a place for them..

(61) Question 59: According to the passage, Charlotte Taylor believes that women in 1970s _________ . A. were unrealistic about their opportunities in business management. B. were still more interested in education than business opportunities C. had fewer obstacles in business than they do today. D. were unable to work hard enough to success in business. Question 60: The author mentions the “ shoesbox under the bed” in order to _________ . A. Show the frugality of women in business B. show the resourcefulness of Sandra Kurtzig C. Point out that initially the financial resources of Sandra Kurtzig’s business were limited D. suggest that the company needed to expand Question 61: The expression “ keep tabs on” is closest meaning to _________ . A. recognize the appearance of B. keep records of C. provide transportation for D. pay the salaries of Question 62: The word “hurdles” can be best replaced by __________ . A. fences B .obstacles C. questions D. small groups Question 63: It can be inferred from the passage that the author believes that business operated by women are small because ________ . A. Women prefer a small intimate setting. B. Women can’t deal with money. C. Women are not able to borrow money easily. D. many women fail at large businesses. Question 64: The author’s attitude about the future of women in business is ________ . A. skeptical B. optimistic C. frustrated D. negative WRITING Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it meams the same as the first one. Question 65. Although he was very tired, he agreed to help me with my homework. Tired as he was, he agreed to help me with my homework. Question 66. Someone broke into John’s house last night. John had his house broken into last night.. Question 67. “Sorry, I’m late.” said the boy to the teacher. ` The boy apologised to the teacher for being late. Question 68. I’m sure it wasn’t Mr. Phong you saw because he’s in Hanoi.. It can’t have been Mr. Phong you saw because he’s in Hanoi. Question 69.The training course is too expensive; I can’t afford it. It was such an expensive course that I couldn’t afford it. Part II. In about 140 words, write a paragraph about one of the mass media you find the most useful..

(62) ............................................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................................................... .............................................................................................................................................................................. -----------THE END-----------. ĐỀ SỐ 8: SỞ GD-ĐT HÀ TĨNH TRƯỜNG THPT TRẦN PHÚ. ĐỀ THI THỬ THQG - NĂM HỌC 2014 2015 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Đề thi gồm có 05 trang Mã đề thi 04 Họ, tên thí sinh:.......................................................................... Số báo danh:............................................................................... Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from pronunciation in each of the following questions from 1 to 2. Question 1: A. confine B. conceal C. convention D. concentrate Question 2: A. booked B. missed C. described D. pronounced Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions from 3 to 5 Question 3: A. capture B. picture C. ensure D. pleasure Question 4: A. particular B. environment C. advertisement D. circumstances Question 5: A. museum B. position C. recommend D. commitment.

(63) Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 6 to 24. Question 6: “It is very hot in here.___________” “Of course” A.Must you open the window B.Shall you open th window C. Could you open th window D . A or C Question 7: I can't imagine____________anywhere except here A. studying. B. to study. C. study. D. that I study. Question 8: When Tet holiday comes, Vietnamese people often feel inclined to ________ their houses. A. do up B. do in C. do through D. do over Question 9: My director is angry with me . I didn't do all the work I ____________last week. A. should have done B. may have done C. need to have done D. must have done Question 10: There is __________in my bed room . A. an old square wooden table B. a square wooden old table C. a square old wooden table D. an old wooden square table Question 11: The boy __________went to the hospital to ask for doctor's help. A. whose sick sister B. whose sister sicked C. who his sister is sick D. whose sister was sick Question 12:____________the phone rang later that night did Tom remember the appoinment. A. No sooner B. Only C. Not until D. Just before Question 13: Our project was successful ________ its practicality. A. in terms of B. with a view to C. regardless D. on behalf of Question 14: __________is the existence of a large number of different kinds of animals and plants which make a balanced environment.. A. extinction B. biodiversity C. habitat D. conservation Question 15: - Kate: “ How lovely your cats are!” - David: “ ____________” A. Really? They are B. Thank you, it is nice of you to say so C. Can you say it again D. I love them, too Question 16: He managed to keep his job_________the manager had threatened to sack him. A. therefore B. although C. unless D. despite Question 17: Peter was ejected after committing five personal _________ in water sport game yesterday. A. mistakes B. faults C. fouls D. errors Question 18: She ran ________ an interesting article about fashion while she was reading the newspaper. A. after B. cross C. away D. out.

(64) Question 19: It’s essential that every student ________ all the lectures. A. attends B. attend C. has attended D. attended Question 20: You have to move this box to __________ the new television set. A. lose touch with B. make room for C. pay attention to D. take notice of Question 21: It’s a secret. You _________ let anyone know about it. A. mustn’t B. needn’t C. mightn’t D. may not Question 22: The singer was _______________ on the piano by her sister. A. discarded B. accompanied C. performed D. played Question 23: It is possible ______ may assist some trees in saving water in the winter. A. to lose leaves B. that the loss of leaves C. the leaves are lost D. when leaves have lost Question 24: Although my village is not far away from the city centre , we had no ______ until recently. A.electric B.electricity C. electrical D.electrify Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions from 25 to 29. Question 25: Today’s scientists have overcome many of the challenges of the depth by using more sophisticated tools. A. complicated B. worldly C. experienced D. aware Question 26: We went away on holiday last week, but it rained day in day out. A. every single day B. every other day C. every second day D. every two days Question 27: We can use either verbal or non – verbal forms of communication. A. using gesture B. using speech C. using verbs D. using facial expressions Question 28: Each year about fifty hundred species of plants and animals are already being eliminated. A. dropped B. removed C. kicked D. tossed Question 29: The unmanned U.S space probe Mariner 9 sent back over 7,000 photos of Mars. A. circulated B. transmitted C. conveyed D. submitted Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction from 30 to 34. Question 30: Musical comedies, as an American form of entertainment, often take its subjects from America’s present or past. A B C D.

(65) Question 31: Of all seashore plants, seaweeds are best able to tolerate long periods out of water, A B followed by long periods covering by water C D Question 32: Although not widely sold, that book is considered to be best book on the subject. A B C D Question 33: Because his sickness he didn’t take part in the English competition held last Sunday. A B C D. Question 34: I found my new contact lenses strangely at first, but I got used to them in the end. A B C D Read the following passage and mark the latter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 35 to 44. Why is it that many teenagers have the energy to play computer games until late at night but can’t find the energy to get out of bed (35) ________ for school? According to a new report, today’s generation of children are in danger of getting so (36)_______ sleep that they are putting their mental and physical health at (37)_______. Adults can easily survive on seven to eight hours’ sleep a night, (38)_______teenagers require nine or ten hours. According to medical experts, one in five youngsters (39)________ anything between two and five hours’ sleep a night less than their parents did at their age. This (40) _____ serious questions about whether lack of sleep is affecting children’s ability to concentrate at school. The connection between sleep deprivation and lapses in memory, impaired reaction time and poor concentration is well (41) _______. Research has shown that losing as little as half an hour’s sleep a night can have profound effects (42) ______how children perform the next day. A good night’s sleep is also crucial for teenagers because it is while they are asleep (43)______ they release a hormone that is essential for their ‘growth spurt’ (the period during teenage years when the body grows at a rapid rate). It’s true that they can, to some (44) ______, catch up on sleep at weekends, but that won’t help them when they are dropping off to sleep in class on a Friday afternoon. By Tim Falla and Paul A.Davies, Solutions Advanced. OUP Question 35 A. behind time B. about time C.in time D. at time Question 36 A. few B. less C. much D. little Question 37 A. jeopardy B. threat C. risk D. danger Question 38 A. or B. because C. whereas D. so.

(66) Question 39 A. puts D. makes Question 40 A. raises. B. gets. D. comes Question 41 A. organized established D. acquired Question 42 A. in B. on Question 43 A. at which D. that Question 44 A. rate B. extent. C. brings B. rises B. arranged C. to B. which C. level. C. results C. D. at C. where D. point. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 45 to 54. Why is it that flying to New York from London will leave you feeling less tired than flying to London from New York? The answer may be a clear case of biology not being able to keep up with technology. Deep inside the brain there is a “clock” that governs every aspect of the body’s functioning: sleep and wake cycles, levels of alertness, performance, mood, hormone levels, digestion, body temperature and so on. It regulates all of these functions on a 24-hour basis and is called the circadian clock (from the Latin, circa “about” + dies “day”). This body clock programmes us to be sleepy twice a day, between 3-5 a.m and again between 3-5 p.m. Afternoon tea and siesta times are all cultural responses to our natural biological sleepiness in the afternoon. One of the major causes of the travelers’ malady known as jet lag is the non-alignment of a person’s internal body clock with clocks in the external world. Crossing different time zones confuses the circadian clock, which then has to adjust to the new time and patterns of light and activity. To make matters more complex, not all internal body functions adjust at the same rate. So your sleep/wake may adjust to a new time zone at one rate, while your temperature adjusts at a different pace. Your digestion may be on a different schedule altogether. Though we live in a 24-hour day, the natural tendency of the body clock is to extend our day beyond 24 hours. It is contrary to our biological programming to shrink our day. That is why travelling in a westward direction is more body-clock friendly than flying east. NASA studies of long haul pilots showed that westward travel was associated with significantly better sleep quantity and quality than eastward flights. When flying west, you are “extending” your day, thus travelling in the natural direction of your internal clock. Flying eastward will involve “shrinking” or reducing your day and is in direct opposition to your internal clock’s natural tendency. One of the more common complaints of travelers is that their sleep becomes disrupted. There are many reasons for this: Changing time zones and schedules, changing light and activity levels, trying to sleep when your body clock is programmed to be awake, disruption of the internal circadian clock and working longer hours. Sleep loss, jet lag and fatigue can seriously affect our ability to function well. Judgment and decision-making can be reduced by 50%, attention by 75 percent, memory by 20 percent and communication by 30 percent. It is often suggested that.

(67) you adjust your watch as soon as you board a plane, supposedly to try to help you adjust to your destination’s schedule as soon as you arrive. But it can take the body clock several days to several weeks to fully adjust to a new time zone. Question 45: The main function of the body clock is to_________ A. govern all the body’s responses. B. regulate the body’s functions. C. help us sleep. D. help us adapt to a 24-hour cycle. Question 46: The word “It” refers to_________ A. the programme B. the body clock C. the function D. the brain Question 47: Jet lag _________ A. makes our body clock operate badly. B. causes our body clock to change. C. extends the hours of our body clock. D. upsets our body’s rhythms. Question 48: The word “malady” is closest in meaning to A. illness B. bore C. thought D. feeling Question 49: The direction you fly in_________ A. helps you sleep better. B. alters your body’s natural rhythms. C. affects the degree of jet lag. D. extends or shrinks your body clock. Question 50: According to the article, _________ A. various factors stop us sleeping when we fly. B. travelers complain about the negative effects of flying. C. flying seriously affects your judgment and decision-making. D. jet lag can affect different abilities differently. Question 51: On the subject of avoiding jet lag the article_________ A. makes no suggestions. B. says there is nothing you can do. C. proposes gradually adjusting your body clock. D. suggests changing the time on your watch. Question 52: According to the author, which of the following reasons disrupt travelers’ sleep? A. Travelers try to sleep between 3-5 p.m. B. Travelers’ attention is reduced by 75 percent. C. The traveler’s internal circadian clock has to adjust to patterns of light and activity. D. Travelers fly in the natural direction of their internal clock. Question 53: It can be inferred from the passage that_________ A. travelers have to spend more money flying westward than eastward. B. there are more travelers in westward flights than in eastward ones. C. westward travelers become friendlier than eastward ones..

(68) D. travelers do not sleep as well in eastward flights as in westward ones. Question 54: The word “fatigue” is closest in meaning to_________ A. obsession B. exhaustion C. sleeplessness frustration. D.. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 55 to 64 The ability to conduct electricity is one of the key properties of a metal. Other solid material such as silicon can conduct electricity but only effectively at certain temperatures. Also, some substances such as salt (sodium chloride) can conduct when molten or when dissolved in water. The ability of metals to conduct electricity is due to how their atoms bond together. In order to bond together the metal atoms lose at least one of their outermost electrons. This leaves the metal atoms with a positive charge and they are now strictly ions. The lost electrons are free to move in what are known as a sea of electrons. Since the electrons are negatively charged they attract the ions and this is what keeps the structure together. An electric current is a flow of charge and since the electrons in the sea of electrons are free to move they can be made to flow in one direction when a source of electrical energy such as a battery is connected to the metal. Hence we have an electric current flowing through the wire, and this is what makes metals such good conductors of electricity. The only other common solid conducting material that pencil users are likely to encounter is graphite (what the ‘lead’ of a pencil is made from). Graphite is a form of carbon and again the carbon atoms bond in such a way that there is a sea of electrons that can be made to flow as an electric current. Likewise, if we have an ionic substance like salt we can make the electrically charged ions flow to create a current but only when those ions are free to move, either when the substance is a liquid or dissolved in water. In its solid state an ionic substance like salt cannot conduct electricity as its charged ions cannot flow. Electrical insulators are substances that cannot conduct electricity well either, because they contain no charged particles or any charged particles they might contain do not flow easily. Water itself is a poor conductor or electricity as it does not contain a significant amount of fully charged particles (the ends of a water molecule are partly charged but overall the molecule is neutral). However, most water we encounter does contain dissolved charged particles, so it will be more conductive than pure water. Many of the problems that occur when touching electrical devices with wet hands result from the ever-present salt that is left on our skin through perspiration and it dissolves in the water to make it more conductive. By Helena Gillespie and Rob Gillespie. Science for Primary School Teacher. OUP. Question 55: Electrical conductivity is . A.one of the most important properties of metals B.one of the key properties of most solid materials C. impossible for any substance when it is dissolved in water D. completely impossible for silicon.

(69) Question 56: According to the passage, a metal can conduct electricity due to . A. the absence of free electrons B. its atoms with a positive charge C. the way its atoms bond together D. the loss of one electron in the core of its atoms Question 57: The word “outermost” in paragraph 1 mostly means . A. the lightest B. nearest to the inside C. furthest from the inside D. the heaviest Question 58: The atoms of a metal can bond together because . A. the lost electrons cannot move freely in the sea of electrons B. electrons can flow in a single direction C. they lose all of electrons D. negatively charged electrons attract positive ions Question 59: Slat in its solid state is not able to conduct electricity because . A. it has free electrons B. its charged ions can flow easily C. it cannot create any charge ions D. it charged ions are not free to move Question 60: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to . A. charged ions B. electric currents C. charged particles D. electrical insulator Question 61: Water is a poor conductor because it contains . A. no positive or negative electric charge B. only a small amount of fully charged particles C. only a positive electric charge D. only a negative electric charge Question 62: We can have problems when touching electrical devices with wet hands because . A. the eater itself is a good conductor of electricity B. the water dissolves the salt on our skin and becomes more conductive C. the water contains too many neutral molecules D. the water containing no charged particles makes it more conductive Question 63: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage? A. Pure water is much more conductive than most water we encounter every day. B. Graphite is a common solid substance that can conduct electricity. C. Salt can conduct electricity when it is molten or dissolved. D. Some materials are more conductive than others. Question 64: Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage? A. Electrical Energy B. Electrical Devices C. Electrical Insulators D. Electrical Conductivity WRITING A. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence before it..

(70) Question 65: It's the first time I've been to a flower shop. → I haven’t ____________________________________________________. Question 66: “ You damaged my camera", said John to Mary → John accused __________________________________________________. Question 67: We didn't have any holiday until last summer → It was not_____________________________________________________. Question 68 : If you hadn’t helped me, I wouldn’t have known how to solve it. → Had _______________________________________________________.. Question 69: Mary is pretty but Camry is prettier. → Camry is the __________________________________________________. B. Write a paragraph about your hobby.You should write at least 140 words. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………. ---------THE END---------.

(71) ĐÁP ÁN Phần I: Trắc nghiệm khách quan: (64 x 0,125 = 8 điểm) Câu số Đáp án Câu số Đáp án Câu số 1 C 23 B 45 2 D 24 B 46 3 C 25 A 47 4 D 26 B 48 5 C 27 D 49 6 C 28 B 50 7 A 29 B 51 8 D 30 C 52 9 A 31 D 53 10 A 32 C 54 11 D 33 A 55 12 C 34 B 56 13 A 35 C 57 14 B 36 D 58 15 B 37 C 59 16 B 38 C 60 17 C 39 B 61 18 B 40 A 62 19 B 41 C 63 20 B 42 B 64 21 A 43 D 22 B 44 B. Đáp án B B D A C D A C D B A C C D D D B B A D. Phần 2: Tự luận: ( 2 điểm) A. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence before it.( 0,1 X 5 = 0,5) Question 65: It's the first time I've been to a flower shop. → I haven’t been to a flower shop before. Question 66: “ You damaged my camera", said John to Mary → John accused Mary of damaging his camera. Question 67: We didn't have any holiday until last summer → It was not until last summer that we had some holidays. Question 68 : If you hadn’t helped me, I wouldn’t have known how to solve it. → Had you not helped me , I wouldn’t have known how to solve it.. Question 69: Mary is pretty but Camry is prettier. → Camry is the prettier of the two girls. B. Writing ( 1,5) Giám khảo tự quyết định dựa trên các yêu cầu sau. - Đáp ứng được cấu trúc của đoạn văn ( Topic sentence, supporting ideas, concluding sentence): điểm tối đa là 0,5 điểm.

(72) - Đáp ứng được yêu cầu về nội dung của đề: điểm tối đa là 0,5 điểm - Sử dụng linh hoạt và chính xác một số cấu trúc ngữ pháp , sử dựng được vốn từ vựng phong phú, bài văn viết trôi chảy, mạch lạc, đáp ứng được độ dài theo yêu cầu của đề: điểm tối đa là 0,5 điểm - Sai dưới 4 lỗi về cấu trúc ngữ pháp, từ vựng không trừ điểm. Sai trên 4 lỗi trừ điểm, đặc biệt các lỗi nặng trừ 0,1 điểm cho. ĐỀ SỐ 9: SỞ GD-ĐT HÀ TĨNH TRƯỜNG THPT TRẦN PHÚ. ĐỀ THI THỬ THQG - NĂM HỌC 2014 2015 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Đề thi gồm có 05 trang Mã đề thi 06 Họ, tên thí sinh:.......................................................................... Số báo danh:............................................................................... Choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. linked B. declared C. finished D. developed Question 2: A. heavy B. head C. weather D. easy Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. attract B. decide C. reject D. beauty Question 4: A. delicate B. promotion C. volcanic D. resources Question 5: A. achievement B. argument C. confinement D. involvement Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 6: My student practices ______ English with her friends every day. A. speaking B. to speak C. spoke D. speak Question 7: Our project was successful ________ its practicality. A. in terms of B. with a view to C. regardless D. on behalf of Question 8: It has been raining ______ I got up..

(73) A. when B. since C. until D. as Question 9: It is possible ______ may assist some trees in saving water in the winter. A. to lose leaves B. that the loss of leaves C. the leaves are lost D. when leaves have lost Question 10: _______, we tried our best to complete it. A. Thanks to the difficult homework B. Despite the homework was difficult C. Difficult as the homework was D. As though the homework was difficult Question 11: - Anne: “ Make yourself at home” - John: “ ____________” A. Thanks! Same to you B. That’s very kind. Thank you C. Not at all. Don’t mention it D. Yes, Can I help you? Question 12: You look exhausted. You __________ in the garden all day. A. can’t have worked hard B. must have worked hard C. should have worked hard D. couldn’t have worked hard Question 13: -Claire:” Mr. Black. How do you do?" - Pete :"_____________, my name's Pete. How do you do? " A. Pardon B. Excuse me C. By the way D. By all means Question14: ___________drivers usually drive very slowly. A. Learning B. Practice C. Learner D. Student Question 15: Peter was ejected after committing five personal _________ in water sport game yesterday. A. mistakes B. faults C. fouls D. errors Question 16: The strike was caused by the_________ of two workers. A. dismiss B. dismissing C. dismissed D. dismissal Question 17: They always kept on good ______ with their next-door neighbors for the children’s sake. A. will B. friendship C. terms D. relations Question 18: : Of all the factors affecting agricultural yields, weather is the one ______ the most. A. that influences farmers B. farmers that is influences C. why farmers influence it D. it influences farmers Question 19: Learning English isn't so difficult once you_______ . A. get on it B. get off it C. get down to it D. get down with it Question 20: George wouldn't have met Mary_______ to his brother's graduation party. A. had he not gone B. hadn't he gone C. if he has not gone D. if he shouldn't have gone Question 21: We bought some _______. A. German lovely old glasses B. German old lovely glasses.

(74) C. lovely old German glasses D. old lovely German glasses Question 22: Tom. "I'm sorry. I won't be able to come". - Mary. “_______”. A. Great B. Oh, that's annoying C. Well, never mind D. Sounds like fun Question 23: My family consist ________ five people: my parents, my two younger brothers and I. A. on B. of C. over D. up Question 24: I ______________sport to keep fit, not because I like it. A. train B. practise C. make D. do Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the followings. Question 25: Few businesses are flourishing in the present economic climate. A. taking off B. setting up C. growing well D. closing down Question 26: The dog saw his reflection in the pool of water . A. imagination B. bone C. leash D. image Question 27: At times, I look at him and wonder what is going on in his mind. A. sometimes B. always C. hardly D. never Question 28: We went away on holiday last week, but it rained day in day out. A. every single day B. every other day C. every second day D. every two days Question 29: We can use either verbal or non – verbal forms of communication. A. using gesture B. using speech C. using verbs D. using facial expressions Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction. Question 30: Several people have apparent tried to change the man’s mind, but he refuses tolisten. A B C D Question 31: The top of the mountain covered with snow during winter.. A B C D Question 32: What I told her a few days ago were not the solutions to most of her problems. A B C D Question 33: Lake Superior, that lies on the US Canadian border, is the largest lake in North America. A B C D Question 34: It’s not that I don’t like her, but I object to be called that by her. I am not her “buddy”, am I? A B C D.

(75) Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks 35 to 44 . We are using up the world’s petroleum. We use (35) _________in our cars and to heat our building in winter.Farmers use petrochemicals to (36) _________ the soil rich. They use them to kill insects (37) _________eat plants. These chemicals go (38) __________rivers and lakes and kill the fish there. Thousands of pollutants also go into the air and pollute it. Winds carry this (39) _________ air to other countries and other continents. Poor farmers use the same land over and (40) __________ The land needs a rest so it will be better next year. However, the farmers must have food this year. Poor people cut down forests (41) _________ firewood. In some areas when the trees are gone, the land (42) _________ desert. Poor people can’t save the environment for the (43) ___________ This is not a problem for one country or one area of the world. It is a problem for all- humans. The people and the nations of the world must work together to (44) ___________ the world’s resources. Question 35: A. it B. them C. that D. those Question 36: A. work B. change C. make D. let Question 37: A. what B. who C. whom D. which Question 38: A. out B. for C. at D. into Question 39: A. pollute B. polluting C. polluted D. pollution Question 40: A. over B. again C. repeatedly D. repeating Question 41: A. of B. for C. with D. at Question 42: A. gets B. changes C. turns D. becomes Question 43: A. future B. time being C. times D. period Question 44: A. recycle B. preserve C. keep D. reuse Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions MOBILE PHONES: Are they about to transform our lives? We love them so much that some of us sleep with them under the pillow, yet we are increasingly concerned that we cannot escape their electronic reach. We use them to convey our most intimate secrets, yet we worry that they are a threat to our privacy. We rely on them more than the Internet to cope with modern life, yet many of us don’t believe advertisements saying we need more advanced services..

(76) Sweeping aside the doubts that many people feel about the benefits of new third generations phones and fears over the health effects of phone masts, a recent report claims that the long-term effects of new mobile technologies will be entirely positive so long as the public can be convinced to make use of them. Research about users of mobile phones reveals that the mobile has already moved beyond being a mere practical communications tool to become the backbone of modern social life, from love affairs to friendship to work. The close relationship between user and phone is most pronounced among teenagers, the report says, who regard their mobiles as an expression of their identity. This is partly because mobiles are seen as being beyond the control of parents. But the researchers suggest that another reason may be that mobiles, especially text messaging was seen as a way of overcoming shyness. The impact of phones, however, has been local rather than global, supporting existing friendship and networks, rather than opening users to a new broader community. Even the language of texting in one area can be incomprehensible to anybody from another area. Among the most important benefits of using mobiles phones, the report claims, will be a vastly improved mobile infrastructure, providing gains throughout the economy, and the provision of a more sophisticated location-based services for users. The report calls on government to put more effort into the delivery of services by mobile phone, with suggestion including public transport and traffic information and doctors’ text messages to remind patients of appointments. There are many possibilities. At a recent trade fair in Sweden, a mobile navigation product was launched. When the user enters a destination, a route is automatically downloaded to their mobile and presented by voiced, pictures and maps as they drive. In future, these devices will also be able to plan around congestion and road works in real time. Third generation phones will also allow for remote monitoring of patients by doctors. In Britain scientists are developing an asthma management solution using mobiles to detect early signs of an attack. Mobile phones can be used in education. A group of teachers in Britain use third generation phones to provide fast internet service to children who live beyond the reach of terrestrial broadband services and can have no access to online information. ‘As the new generation of mobile technologies takes off, the social potential of the vastly increase,’ the report argues. Question 45: What does the writer suggest in the first paragraph about our attitudes to mobile phones? A. We can’t live without them. B. We are worried about using them so much. C. We have contradictory feelings about them. D. We need them more than anything else to deal with modern life. Question 46: What does “them” in paragraph 2 refer to? A. long-term effects B. new mobile technologies C. doubts D. benefits.

(77) Question 47: What is the connection between social life and mobile phones? A. Modern social life relies significantly on the use of mobile phones B. Mobile phones makes romantic communication easier C. Mobile phones encourage people to make friends. D. Mobile phones enable people to communicate while moving around Question 48: Why do teenagers have such a close relationship with their mobile phones? A. They use text messages more than any other group C. They feel independent when they use them B. They are more inclined to be late than older people D. They tend to feel uncomfortable in many situations Question 49: Which of the following is NOT true? A. Mobile phone is considered as a means for the youth to show their characters. B. Mobile phones are playing a wide range of roles in people’s life. C. People can overcome shyness by using texting to communicating things that make them uncomfortable. D. There is no need to suspect the harmfulness of mobile phones. Question 50: In what sense has the impact of phones been “local” in paragraph 3? A. People tend to communicate with people they already know. B. Users generally phone people who live in the same neighborhood. C. It depends on local dialects. D. The phone networks use different systems. Question 51: How might mobile phones be used in the future? A. To give the address of the nearest doctor’s surgery B. To show bus and train timetables C. To arrange deliveries D. To cure diseases Question 52: The navigation product launched in Sweden is helpful for drivers because ________. A. it can suggest the best way to get to a place B. it provides directions orally C. it tells them which roads are congested D. it shows them how to avoid road works Question 53: What is the general attitude of the report described here? A. Manufacturers need to produce better equipment. B. The government should take over the mobile phone networks. C. There are problems with mobile phones that cannot be overcome. D. Mobile phones can have a variety of very useful applications. Question 54: The word “pronounced” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______. A. obvious B. serious C. voiced D. overwhelmed Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions..

(78) Animation traditionally is done by hand-drawing or painting successive frames of an object, each slightly different than the preceding frame. In computer animation, although the computer may be the one to draw the different frames, in most cases the artist will draw the beginning and ending frames and the computer will produce the drawings between the first and the last drawing. This is generally referred to as computer-assisted animation, because the computer is more of a helper than an originator. In full computer animation, complex mathematical formulas are used to produce the final sequence of pictures. These formulas operate on extensive databases of numbers that define the objects in the pictures as they exist in mathematical space. The database consists of endpoints, and color and intensity information. Highly trained professionals are needed to produce such effects because animation that obtains high degrees of realism involves computer techniques for three-dimensional transformation, shading, and curvatures. High-tech computer animation for film involves very expensive computer systems along with special color terminals or frame buffers. The frame buffer is nothing more than a giant image memory for viewing a single frame. It temporarily holds the image for display on the screen. A camera can be used to film directly from the computer's display screen, but for the highest quality images possible, expensive film recorders are used. The computer computes the positions and colors for the figures in the picture, and sends this information to the recorder, which captures it on film. Sometimes, however, the images are stored on a large magnetic disk before being sent to the recorder. Once this process is completed, it is repeated for the next frame. When the entire sequence has been recorded on the film, the film must be developed before the animation can be viewed. If the entire sequence does not seem right, the motions must be corrected, recomputed, redisplayed, and rerecorded. This approach can be very expensive and time consuming. Often, computer-animation companies first do motion tests with simple computer-generated line drawings before selling their computers to the task of calculating the high-resolution, realistic-looking images. Question 55: What aspect of computer animation does the passage mainly discuss? A. The production process B. The equipment needed C. The high cost D. The role of the artist Question 56: According to the passage, in computer-assisted animation the role of the computer is to draw the____. A. first frame B. middle frames C. last frame D. entire sequence of frames Question 57: The word "they" in the second paragraph refers to____. A. formulas B. databases C. numbers D. objects Question 58: According to the passage, the frame buffers mentioned in the third paragraph are used to____. A. add color to the images B. expose several frames at the same time.

(79) C. store individual images D. create new frames Question 59: According to the passage, the positions and colours of the figures in high-tech animation are determined by____. A. drawing several versions B. enlarging one frame at a lime C. analyzing the sequence from different angles D. using computer calculations Question 60: The word "captures" in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to____. A. separates B. registers C. describes D. numbers Question 61: The word "Once" in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to____. A. before B. since C. after D. while Question 62: According to the passage, how do computer-animation companies often test motion? A. They experiment with computer-generated line drawings. B. They hand-draw successive frames. C. They calculate high-resolution images. D. They develop extensive mathematical formulas. Question 63: The word "task" in the 4th paragraph is closest in meaning to____. A. possibility B. position C. time D. job Question 64: Which of the following statements is supported by the passage? A. Computers have reduced the costs of animation. B. In the future, traditional artists will no longer be needed. C. Artists are unable to produce drawings as high in quality as computer drawings. D. Animation involves a wide range of technical and artistic skills. WRITING: Part I: Rewrite the following sentences in order to keep their original meanings. Question 1: This is the best film I’ve ever seen. > I’ve ……………………………………………………………………………… Question 2: My school has over 2,000 students. > There are ………………………………………………………………………… Question 3: The workers only called off the strike after a new pay offer.. > Only after ………………………………………………………………………… Question 4: He tries to learn English well so as to find a good job. > He tries to learn English well with ……………………………………………… Question 5: Without his help we would all have died.. > If it ……………………………………………………………………………… Part II: Write a paragraph about the book you like most, about 140 words..

(80) ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… …………….... --------THE END-------ĐÁP ÁN Phần trắc nghiệm: (64 câu - mỗi câu 0,125 điểm) 1. B. 2. D. 3. D. 4. A. 5. B. 6. A. 7. A. 8. A. 9. B. 10. C. 11. B. 12. B. 13. C. 14. C. 15. C. 16. D. 17. C. 18. B. 19. C. 20. A. 21. C. 22. C. 23. B. 24. D. 25. C. 26. D. 27. A. 28. A. 29. B. 30. B. 31. B. 32. B. 33. A. 34. B. 35. A. 36. C. 37. D. 38. D. 39. C. 40. A. 41. B. 42. D. 43. A. 44. B. 45. C. 46. B. 47. A. 48. C. 49. D. 50. A. 51. C. 52. B. 53. D. 54. D. 55. A. 56. B. 57. D. 58. C. 59. D. 60. B. 61. C. 62. A. 63. D. 64. D. WRITING(2 điểm) Part I: Rewrite the following sentences in order to keep their original meanings. (0,5 điểm - mỗi câu 0,1 điểm).

(81) 1. I’ve never seen a better film than this (this film/this one)/I’ve never seen such a good film. 2. There are over 2,000 students in my school. 3. Only after a new pay offer did the workers call of the strike. 4. If it hadn’t been for his help, we would all have died. 5. He tries to learn English well with a view to finding a good job. Part II: Write a paragraph about the book you like most, about 140 words. (1,5 điểm) Giám khảo tự quyết định dựa trên các yêu cầu sau. - Đáp ứng được cấu trúc của đoạn văn ( Topic sentence, supporting ideas, concluding sentence): điểm tối đa là 0,5 điểm - Đáp ứng được yêu cầu về nội dung của đề: điểm tối đa là 0,5 điểm - Sử dụng linh hoạt và chính xác một số cấu trúc ngữ pháp , sử dựng được vốn từ vựng phong phú, bài văn viết trôi chảy, mạch lạc, đáp ứng được độ dài theo yêu cầu của đề: điểm tối đa là 0,5 điểm - Sai dưới 4 lỗi về cấu trúc ngữ pháp, từ vựng không trừ điểm. Sai trên 4 lỗi trừ điểm, đặc biệt các lỗi nặng trừ 0,1 điểm cho. ĐỀ SỐ 10: SỞ GD-ĐT HÀ TĨNH TRƯỜNG THPT TRẦN PHÚ. ĐỀ THI THỬ THQG - NĂM HỌC 2014 2015 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Đề thi gồm có 06 trang Mã đề thi 08 Họ, tên thí sinh:.......................................................................... Số báo danh:............................................................................... Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. consume B. reflect C. local D. between Question 2: A. disappear B. engineer C. understand D. attachment Question 3: A. confidential B. relationship C. enthusiast D. endangerment Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that is pronounced differently from the rest in each of the following questions. Question 4: A. wasted B. practiced C. laughed D. jumped Question 5: A. coast B. most C. lost D. whole.

(82) Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 6: Since fireworks are dangerous, many countries have laws preventing businesses to sell them. A B C D Question 7: It was suggested that your father gave up smoking for the sake of himself. A B C D Question 8: All nations may have to make fundamental changes in their economic, political, and A B the technological institutions if they are to preserve environment. C D Question 9: One of the students who are being considered for the scholarship are from this university. A B C D Question 10: The Oxford English Dictionary is well known for including many different meanings A B C of words and to give real examples. D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 11: In a formal interview, it is essential to maintain good eye _______ with the interviewers. A. link B. connection C. touch D. contact Question 12: Grace Kelly was first famous as a Hollywood actress and then ______ Prince Rainier of Monaco. A. to be the wife of B. she was the wife of C. the wife of D. as the wife of Question 13: We often take this small road home to avoid heavy _______ on the main streets. A. cars B. traffic C. vehicles D. movement Question 14: When he came to the counter to pay, he found that he had _______ cash _______ his credit card with him. A. either / or B. neither / nor C. both / and D. not / neither Question 15: You look tired. _______ hard all day? A. Have you been working B. Did you work C. Do you work D. Are you working.

(83) Question 16: Tom looks so frightened and upset. He _______ something terrible. A. must experience B. can have experienced C. should have experienced D. must have experienced Question 17: Ann was very surprised to find the door unlocked. She remembered _______ it before she left. A. to lock B. having locked C. to have locked D. she locks Question 18: The speed of light is _______ the speed of sound. A. faster B. much faster than C. the fastest D. as fast Question 19: _______ imaginative stories about the origin of the game of chess. A. Many of the B. Many C. There are many D.Of the many Question 20: _______ it not been for the torrential rain, we would have gone out. A. But B. If C. Had D. Should Question 21: A week or two before New Year’s Days, the markets are _______ people selling and buying things. A. filled with B. crowd with C. ready for D. crowded with Question 22: The kind-hearted woman _______ all her life to helping the disabled and the poor. A. wasted B. spent C. dedicated D. lived Question 23: “May I leave a message for Ms Davis?” - “______” A. I’m afraid she is not here at the moment. B. No, she’s not here now. C. She’s leaving a message for you now D. Yes, I’ll make sure she gets it. Question 24: Peter was born and brought up in Hastings and knows it likes the _____ . A. nose on his faceB. tip of his tongue C. back of his hand D. hair on his head Question 25: Nobody wears clothes like that any more – they’re ______ A. fashion B. unfashionable C. fashionable D. fashionably Question 26: The more you work, _____ you’ll pass your exams. A. good B.the best C. best D. the better Question 27: “It was very kind of you to help me out, Paul?” – “_____” A. I’m glad you like it B. Thanks a million C. That was the least I could do D. You can say that again. Question 28: Lucy was late for school this morning because the alarm didn’t _______ as usual. A. ring off B. get off C. go off D. take off.

(84) Question 29: The ________ of the radio by Marconi played an important part in the development of communication. A. development B. discovery C. invention D. research Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 30: The air is naturally contaminated by foreign matter such as plant pollens and dust. . A. polluted B. occupied C. filled D. concentrated Question 31: I was not aware of what was happening after I tripped and knocked my head against the table. A. careful B. responsive C. conscious D. cautious Question 32: The company empowered her to declare their support for the new event. As a matter of fact, she now has more power to do what she wants than ever before. A. forbade B. helped C. authorized D. ordered Question 33: There was no one to take over the army when the general died in a battle. A. fight B. defend C. protect D. control Question 34: Chicken pox results in an eruption on the skin and sometimes it leaves permanent marks. A. rash B. hole C. erosion D. division Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase to fill in the blank in the following passage Environmental Concerns Earth is the only place we know of in the universe that can support human life (35) ______ human activities are making the planet less fit to live on. As the western world carries on consuming two-thirds of the world's resources while half of the world's population do so (36)______ to stay alive we are rapidly destroying the (37)______ resource we have by which all people can survive and prosper. Everywhere fertile soil is (38)______ built on or washed into the sea. Renewable resources are exploited so much that they will never be able to recover (39)______ We discharge pollutants into the atmosphere without any thought of the consequences. As a (40)______ the planet's ability to support people is being reduced at the very time when rising human numbers and consumption are (41)______increasingly heavy demands on it. The Earth's (42)______ resources are there for us to use. We need food, water, air, energy, medicines, warmth, shelter and minerals to (43)______ us fed, comfortable,.

(85) healthy and active. If we are sensible in how we use the resources they will (44)______ indefinitely. But if we use them wastefully and excessively they will soon run out and everyone will suffer. Question 35: A. still B. despite C. yet D. although Question 36: A. for B. just C. already D. entirely Question 37: A. lone B. Individual C. lonely D. alone Question 38: A. sooner B. rather C. either D. neither Question 39: A. completely B. quite C. greatly D. utterly Question 40: A. result B. product C. development D. reaction Question 41: A. having B. doing C. taking D. making Question 42: A. natural B. real C. living D. genuine Question 43: A. stay B. keep C. maintain D. hold Question 44: A. last B. stand C. remain D. go Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. A number of factors related to the voice reveal the personality of the speaker. The first is the broad area of communication, which includes imparting information by use of language, communicating with a group or an individual and specialized communication through performance. A person conveys thoughts and ideas through choice of words, by a tone of voice that is pleasant or unpleasant, gentle or harsh, by the rhythm that is inherent within the language itself, and by speech rhythms that are flowing and regular or uneven and hesitant, and finally, by the pitch and melody of the utterance. When speaking before a group, a person's tone may indicate uncertainty or fright, confidence or calm. At interpersonal levels, the tone may reflect ideas and feelings over and above the words chosen, or may belie them. Here the participant’s tone can consciously or unconsciously reflect intuitive sympathy or antipathy, lack of concern or interest, fatigue, anxiety, enthusiasm or excitement, all of which are usually discernible by the acute listener. Public performance is a manner of communication that is highly specialized with its own techniques for obtaining effects by voice and /or gesture. The motivation derived from the text, and in the case of singing, the music, in combination with the performer's skills, personality, and ability to create empathy will determine the success of artistic, political, or pedagogic communication. Second, the voice gives psychological clues to a person's self-image, perception of others, and emotional health. Self-image can be indicated by a tone of voice that is confident, pretentious, shy, aggressive, outgoing, or exuberant, to name only a few personality traits. Also the sound may give a clue to the facade or mask of that person, for example, a shy person hiding behind an overconfident.

(86) front. How a speaker perceives the listener's receptiveness, interest, or sympathy in any given conversation can drastically alter the tone of presentation, by encouraging or discouraging the speaker. Emotional health is evidenced in the voice by free and melodic sounds of the happy, by constricted and harsh sound of the angry, and by dull and lethargic qualities of the depressed. Question 45: What does the passage mainly discuss? A. The function of the voice in performance B. Communication styles C. The connection between voice and personality D. The production of speech Question 46: What does the author mean by staring that, "At interpersonal levels, tone may reflect ideas and feelings over and above the words chosen" in lines 8- 9? A. Feelings are expressed with different words than ideas are. B. The tone of voice can carry information beyond the meaning of words. C. A high tone of voice reflects an emotional communication. D. Feelings are more difficult to express than ideas. Question 47: The word "Here" in line 9 refers to _____ . A. interpersonal interactions B. the tone C. ideas and feelings D. words chosen Question 48: The word "derived" in line 13 is closest in meaning to _____ . A. discussed B. prepared C. registered D. obtained Question 49: Why does the author mention "artistic, political, or pedagogic communication" in line 14-15? A. As examples of public performance B. As examples of basic styles of communication C. To contrast them to singing D. To introduce the idea of self-image Question 50: According to the passage, an exuberant tone of voice may be an indication of a person's ____ . A. general physical health B. personality C. ability to communicate D. vocal quality Question 51: According to the passage, an overconfident front may hide _____ . A. hostility B. shyness C. friendliness D. strength Question 52: The word "drastically" in line 21 is closest in meaning to _____ . A. frequently B. exactly C. severely D. easily Question 53: The word "evidenced" in line 22 is closest in meaning to _____ . A. questioned B. repeated C. indicated D. exaggerated Question 54: According to the passage, what does a constricted and harsh voice indicate? A. lethargy B. depression C. boredom D. anger. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 56 to 65. Since water is the basis of life, composing the greater part of the tissues of all living things, the crucial problem of desert animals is to survive in a world where sources of flowing water are rare. And since man’s inexorable necessity is to absorb large quantities of water at frequent intervals, he can scarcely comprehend that many creatures of the desert pass their entire lives without a single drop. Uncompromising as it is, the desert has not eliminated life but only those forms unable to withstand its desiccating effects. No moist- skinned, water-loving animals can exist there. Few large animals are found. The giants of the North American desert are the deer, the coyote, and the bobcat. Since desert country is open, it holds more swift-footed running and leaping creatures than the tangled forest. Its.

(87) population is largely nocturnal, silent, filled with reticence, and ruled by stealth. Yet they are not emaciated. Having adapted to their austere environment, they are as healthy as animals anywhere else in the word. The secret of their adjustment lies in the combination of behavior and physiology. None could survive if, like mad dogs and Englishmen, they went out in the midday sun; many would die in a matter of minutes. So most of them pass the burning hours asleep in cool, humid burrows underneath the ground, emerging to hunt only by night. The surface of the sun-baked desert averages around 150 degrees, but 18 inches down the temperature is only 60 degrees. Question 55: The title for this passage could be. .. A. “Animal Life in a Desert Environment”. B. “Desert Plants”. C. “Man’s Life in a Desert Environment”. D. “Life Underground”. Question 56: The word “tissues” in the passage mostly means. .. A. “the smallest units of living matter that can exist on their own” B. “the simplest forms of life that exist in air, water, living and dead creatures and plants” C. “collections of cells that form the different parts of humans, animals and plants” D. “very small living things that cause infectious disease in people, animals and plants” Question 57: Man can hardly understand why many animals live their whole life in the desert, as . A. water is an essential part of his existence B. water composes the greater part of the tissues of living things C. very few lager animals are found in the desert D. sources of flowing water are rare in a desert Question 58: The phrase “those forms” in the passage refers to all of the following EXCEPT A. many large animals. B. water-loving animals. C. moist-skinned animals. D. the coyote and the bobcat. Question 59: According to the passage, creatures in the desert A. are more active during the day than those in the tangled forest B. are not as healthy as those anywhere else in the world C. run and leap more slowly than those in the tangled forest. ..

(88) D. run and leap faster than those in the tangled forest Question 60: The author mentions all the following as examples of the behavior of desert animals EXCEPT . A. they dig home underground. B. they sleep during the day. C. they are watchful and quiet. D. they are noisy and aggressive. Question 61: The word “emaciated” in the passage mostly means. .. A. “living or growing in natural conditions, not kept in a house or on a farm” B. “large and strong, difficult to control or deal with” C. “thin and weak because of lack of food and water” D. “able to get what one wants in a clever way, especially by tricking or cheating” Question 62: According to the passage, one characteristic of animals living in the desert is that A. they are smaller and fleeter than forest animals B. they can hunt in temperature of 150 degrees C. they live in an accommodating environment D. they are less healthy than animals living in other places Question 63: The word “burrows” in the passage mostly means. .. A. “places where a particular type of animal or plant is normally found” B. “holes or tunnels in the ground made by animals for them to live in” C. “places where insects or other small creatures live and produce their young” D. “structures made of metal bars in which animals or birds are kept” Question 64: We can infer from the passage that. .. A. desert life is colorful and diverse environment. B. living things adjust to their. C. healthy animals live longer lives. D. water is the basis of desert life. PHẦN TỰ LUẬN: Part I: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. Question 65: Mike has never been to the capital before. > This is the first _____________________________________________ . Question 66: The football match was put off because of the bad weather..

(89) > Because ___________________________________________________ . Question 67: Nam is not old enough to join the army. > Nam is too ________________________________________________ . Question 68: The manager made all the employees work at the weekend. > All the employees ___________________________________________ . Question 69: The bus driver cannot be blamed for the accident in any way. > In _______________________________________________________ . Part II: In about 140 words, write a paragraph about the most memorable experience in your life. ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… … --------THE END--------.

(90) ĐÁP ÁN VÀ BIỂU ĐIỂM: PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM (64 câu x 0,125 = 8 điểm): 1. C 9. D 17. B 25. B 33. D 41. D 2. D 10. D 18. B 26. D 34. A 42. A 3. A 11. D 19. C 27. C 35. C 43. B 4. A 12. D 20. C 28. C 36. B 44. A 5. C 13. B 21. D 29. C 37. C 45. C 6. D 14. B 22. C 30. A 38. C 46. B 7. B 15. A 23. D 31. C 39. A 47. A 8. C 16. D 24. C 32. C 40. A 48. D PHẦN TỰ LUẬN (2 điểm): Part I: (5 câu x 0,1 = 0,5 điểm) 65. This is the first time Mike has been to the capital. 66. Because the weather was bad, the football match was put off. 67. Nam is too young to join the army. 68. All the employees were made to work at the weekend. 69. In no way can the bus driver be blamed for the accident. Part II: 1,5 điểm - content: 30% - organization: 30% - vocabulary and structures: 40%. 49. B 50. B 51. B 52. C 53. C 54. D 55. A 56. C. 57. A 58. A 59. D 60. D 61. C 62. A 63. B 64. B. ĐỀ SỐ 11: SỞ GD-ĐT HÀ TĨNH TRƯỜNG THPT TRẦN PHÚ. ĐỀ THI THỬ THQG - NĂM HỌC 2014 2015 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Đề thi gồm có 05 trang Mã đề thi 10 Họ, tên thí sinh:.......................................................................... Số báo danh:............................................................................... Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.

(91) Question 1: village Question 2: station. A. energy. B. gain. C. gesture. D.. A. population. B. nation. C. question. D.. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. compete B. finish C. expectD. invent Question 4: A. develope B. attractive C. advertise D. construction Question 5: A. community B. particular C. authority D. mathematics Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer that best completes each unfinished sentence Question 6: We are going to ……………. A. get our house being redecorated B. have our house be redecorated C. have our house to be redecorated D. have our house redecorated Question 7: So little………….about mathematics that the lecture was completely beyond me. A. I have known B. I knew C. do I know D. did I know Question 8: His letter is full of mistakes. He ………………….. the mistakes carefully before sending it. A. must have checked B. should have checked C. can have checked D. could have checked Question 9: Light ……………. faster than sound. A. travel B. travels C. is travelling D. travelled Question 10: He found…………………………….to answer all the questions within the time given. A. it impossibly B. it impossible C. that impossibly D. that impossible Question 11: Tom: “The maintenance people didn’t remove the chairs from ballroom.” Mary: “Don’t worry. They …………them before the dance begins.” A. will have moved B. moved C. will have been moved D. were moved Question 12: I really regret …………………your feeling when I asked you such a silly question. A. to hurt B. hurt C. hurts D. hurting Question 13: “Is the lift is working?” – “No , it’s .................Let’s use the stairs.” A. out of work B. out of order C. impossible D. in danger Question 14: A good essay must ………………..contain enough interesting ideas and specific exam but also have good organization. A. not only B. as well C. either D. in addition.

(92) Question 15: I'm sorry! I didn't break that vase on............ A. time B. purpose C. intention D. my mind Question 16: Maria: “I’m taking my end-of-term examination tomorrow.” Sarah: “.................” A. Good luck B. Good chance C. Good day D. Good time Question 17: The girls and flowers …………. he painted were vivid. A. whose B. that C. which D. who Question 18: Women's employment rate is getting ………… A. high and high highest. B. higher and higher. C. high and higher. D. higher and the. Question 19: Gold………. in California in the 19th century. A. has been discovered B. was discover C. they discovered D. was discovered Question 20: Laura: “What a lovely house you have!” Mary: “……………….” A. Thank you. Hope you will drop in. B. No problem C. Of course not, It’s not costly D. Thanks. I think so Question 21: Would John be angry if I ………………..his bicycle without asking? A. had taken B. take C. took D. would take Question 22: Although he was ………………………………… , he agreed to play tennis with me. A. exhaustive B. exhausting C. exhausted D. exhaustion Question 23: He is very worried ……… his new job because he is not quite prepared …………working. A. about / for B. in / at C. to / off D. on / over Question 24: I ……………………. my Mum by cooking dinner for her. A. cheered up B. looked up C. waited for D. felt like Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 25: Mrs. Stevens, along with her cousins from New Mexico, are planning to attend the festivities. A B C D. Question 26: The teacher asked him why hadn’t he done his homework, but he said nothing. A B C D Question 27: Hardly had he entered the room than all the lights went out. A B C D Question 28: A paragraph is a portion of a text consists of one or more sentences related to the same idea. A B C D Question 29: John congratulated us to our excellent results although we didn’t know each other very well..

(93) A. B. C. D Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions. Psychologists have debated a long time about whether a child’s upbringing can give it the ability to do outstandingly well. Some think that it is impossible to develop genius and say that it is simply something a person is born with. Others, however, argue that the potential for great achievement can be developed. The truth lies somewhere between these two extremes. It seems very obvious that being born with the right qualities from gifted parents will increase a child’s ability to do well. However, this ability will be fully realized only with the right upbringing and opportunities. As one psychologist says, “To have a fast car, you need both a good engine and fuel.” Scientists have recently assessed intelligence, achievement, and ability in 50 sets of identical twins that were separated shortly after birth and brought up by different parents. They found that achievement was based on intelligence, and later influenced by the child’s environment. One case involving very intelligent twins was quoted. One of the twins received a normal upbringing, and performed well. The other twin, however, was brought up by extremely supportive parents and given every possible opportunity to develop its abilities. That twin, though starting out with the same degree of intelligence as the other, performed even better. This case reflects the general principle of intelligence and ability. The more favorable the environment, the more a child’s intelligence and ability are developed. However, there is no link between intelligence and the socioeconomic level of a child’s family. In other words, it does not matter how poor or how rich a family is, as this does not affect intelligence. Gifted people cannot be created by supportive parents, but they can be developed by them. One professor of music said that outstanding musicians usually started two or three years earlier than ordinary performers, often because their parents had recognized their ability. These musicians then needed at least ten years’ hard work and training in order to reach the level they were capable of attaining. People who want to have very gifted children are given the following advice:  Marry an intelligent person.  Allow children to follow their own interests rather than the interests of the parents.  Start a child’s education early but avoid pushing the child too hard.  Encourage children to play; for example, playing with musical instruments is essential for a child who wants to become an outstanding musician. Question 30: The upbringing of highly intelligent children requires. ..

(94) A. an expensive education B. good musical instruments C. parental support and encouragement D. wealthy and loving parents Question 31: The word “others” used in the first paragraph refers to . A. other people B. other scientists C. other children D. other geniuses Question 32: When scientists studied intelligence and ability in twins, they found that . A. ability depends mainly on intelligence and achievement B. intelligence and development are irrelevant to ability C. ability depends both on intelligence and on environment D. different twins generally have different levels of ability. Question 33: Scientists chose twins for their study because . A. each twin has the same environment as his/her twin B. they are born into the same family, hence the same upbringing C. they have the same economic background and hence the same opportunities D. they have the same genetic background, usually with similar intelligence Question 34: How were great musicians different from ordinary musicians in their development? A. Their ability was realized at an early stage and then nutured. B. They practice playing their instruments for many years. C. They concentrated on music to the exclusion of other areas. D. They were exceptionally intelligent and artistic. Question 35: The writer advises that gifted children should be allowed to follow . A. their own interests B. their parent’s interests C. only their interests in musical instruments D. only their interests in computer games Question 36: When encouraging their gifted children, parents should avoid . A. pushing their children too hard. B. letting them play their own way C. permitting them to follow their own interests D. starting their education at an early age Question 37: The remark: “To have a fast car, you need both a good engine and fuel.” in the passage means that in order to become a genius . A. you need to have good health and good nourishment B. you need intelligence and you need to develop it C. you should try to move quickly and efficiently D. you must nourish your brain and train your muscles hard Question 38: The word “favorable” in the passage mostly means . A. “good for someone and making him/her likely to be successful”.

(95) B. “helping somebody to be more intelligent compared to other people” C. “of high quality or an acceptable standard” D. “under the control or in the power of somebody else” Question 39: All of the following statements are true EXCEPT . A. educational development depends completely on economic well-being B. a child’s intelligence is influenced by that of his/ her parents C. to become successful, a child needs both native intelligence and development D. studying different twins is a useful scientific procedure. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best option for each of the blanks. At 19, Ben Way was already a millionaire, and one of a number of teenagers who_____(40) their fortune through the Internet._____(41) makes Ben’s story all the more remarkable is that he is dyslexic, and was_____ (42)by teachers at his junior school that he would never be able to read or write properly.” I wanted to prove them_____ (43)“, says Ben, creator and director of Waysearch engine which can be used to find goods in online shopping malls. When he was eight, his local authorities_____(44) him with a PC to help with school work. Althrough he was_____ (45)to read the manuals, he had a natural ability with the computer, and encouraged by his father, he soon began_____(46) people $ 10 an hour for his knowledge and skills. At the age of 15 he _____(47) up his own computer consultancy, Quad Computer, which he ran from his bedroom, and two years later he left school to_____(48) all his time to business. “By this time the company had grown and needed to take_____(49) a couple of employees to help me”, says Ben.That enabled me to start doing business with bigger companies.It was his ability to consistently overcome difficult challenges that led him to win the “Young Entrepreneur of the year” award in the same year that he formed Waysearch. Question 40: A. taken B. made C. put D. done Question 41: A. This B. That C. Something D. What Question 42: A. said B. told C. suggested D. reported Question 43: A. wrong B. false C. untrue D. unfair Question 44: A. provided B. gave C. offered D. got Question 45: A. imppossible B. incapable C. disabled D. unable Question 46: A. owing B. charging C. lending D. borrowing Question 47: A. put B. ran C. made D. set Question 48: A. pay B. spend C. devote D. invest Question 49: A. on B. up C. out D. over Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

(96) In the world today, particular in the two most industrialized areas, North America and Europe, recycling is the big news. People are talking about it, practicing it, and discovering new ways to be sensitive to the environment. Recycling means finding ways to use products a second time. The motto of the recycling movement is “Reduce, Reuse, Recycle”. The first step is to reduce garbage. In stores, a shopper has to buy products in blister packs, boxes and expensive plastic wrappings. A hamburger from a fast food restaurant comes in lots of packaging: usually paper, a box and a bag. All that packaging is wasted resources. People should try to buy things that are wrapped simply, and to reuse cups and utensils. Another way to reduce waste is to buy highquality products. When low-quality appliances break, many customers throw them away and buy new ones - a loss of more resources and more energy. For example, if a customer buys a high-quality appliance that can be easily repaired, the manufacturer receives an important message. In the same way, if a customer chooses a product with less packaging, that customer sends an important message to the manufacturers. To reduce garbage, the throw-away must stop. The second step is to reuse. It is better to buy juices and soft drinks in returnable bottles. After customers empty the bottles, they return them to the stores. The manufacturers of the drinks collect bottles, wash them, and then fill them again. The energy that is necessary to make new bottles is saved. In some parts of the world, returning bottles for money is a common practice. In those places, the garbage dumps have relatively little glass and plastic from throw-away bottles. The third step being environmentally sensitive is to recycle. Spent motor oil can be cleaned and used again. Aluminum cans are expensive to make. It takes the same amount of energy to make one aluminum can as it does to run a color TV set for three hours. When people collect and recycle aluminum (for new cans), they help save one of the world’s precious resources. Question 50:. Which area is considered one of the most industrialized? A. South America B. Middle East C. Europe D. Asia Question 51: What does the word “sensitive” means? A. cautious B. logical C. responding D. friendly Question 52: The word “motto” is closest in meaning to _______. A. meaning B. value C. belief D. reference Question 53: It is a waste when customers buy low-quality products because _______. A. they have to be repaired many times. B. they will soon throw them away C. customers always change their idea D. they are very cheap. . Question 54: What is the topic of the passage? A. How to live sensitively to the environment. B. How to reduce garbage disposal. C. What is involved in the recycling movement. D. What people understand the term “recycle” Question 55: People can do the following to reduce waste EXCEPT _______..

(97) A. buy high-quality products B. buy simply-wrapped things C. reuse cups D. buy more hamburgers Question 56: What best describe the process of reuse? A. The bottles are filled again after being returned, collected and washed. B. The bottles are collected, washed, returned and filled again. C. The bottles are washed, returned filled again and collected. D. The bottles are collected, returned, filled again and washed. Question 57: The word “practice” is closest in meaning to _______. A. training B. exercise C. deed D. belief Question 58: Garbage dumps in some areas have relatively little glass and plastic because _______. A. people are ordered to return bottles B. returned bottles are few C. each returned bottle is paid D. few bottles are made of glass or plastic Question 59: What are the two things mentioned as examples of recycling? A. TV sets and aluminum cans. B. Hamburger wrappings and spent motor oil. C. Aluminum cans and plastic wrappings. D. Aluminum cans and spent motor oil. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question 60: His new work has enjoyed a very good review from cristics and readers. A. viewing B. regard C. opinion D. look Question 61: We'd better hurry up if we want to get there in time. A. lie down B. slow down C. speed up D. turn down Question 62: Don’t forget to drop me a line when you’re away A. telephone me B. call me C. write to me D. send me a telegram Question 63: Fruit and vegetables grew in abundance on the island. The islanders even exported the surplus. A. excess B. large quantity C. small quantity D. sufficiency Question 64: There is growing concern about the way man has destroyed the environment. A. attraction B. consideration C. ease D. speculation WRITING: Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. Question 65: It is believed that the man escaped in a stolen car..

(98) > The man……………………………………………………………………………………… .. Question 66: We started working for this company seven years ago. > We have…………………………………………………………………………………… ….. Question 67: No body in my class is more intelligent than Mark. > Mark…………………………………………………………………………………… ……… Question 68: The test was very difficult. We couldn’t do it. > The test was so………………………………………………………………………………… Question 69: But for your help, I couldn’t have finished my project. > Had……………………………………………………………………………………… ……. Part II. In about 140 words, write a paragraph about a teacher that you admire. ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………… ---------THE END--------ĐÁP ÁN Phần I: Trắc nghiệm khách quan: (64 x 0,125 = 8 điểm) Câu số Đáp án Câu số Đáp án 1 B 23 A 2 C 24 A 3 B 25 C. Câu số 45 46 47. Đáp án D B D.

(99) 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22. C D D D B B B C D B A B A B B D A C C. 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44. B B B A C B C D A A A B A A B D B A A. 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64. C A C D C B A D A C C D C C C B B. WRITING( 2 điểm) Part I: 0,5 điểm Question 65: The man is believed to have escaped in a stolen car. Question 66: We have been working/ have worked for this company for seven years. Question 67: Mark is the most intelligent (student) in my class. Question 68: The test was so difficult that we couldn’t do it. Question 69: Had you not helped me, I couldn’t have finished my project. Part II: 1,5 điểm. Mô tả tiêu chí đánh giá 1.. 2. 3.. 4.. Bố cục o Câu đề dẫn chủ đề mạch lạc o Bố cục hợp lí r. ràng phù hợp yêu cầu của đề bài o Bố cục uyển chuyển từ mở bài đến kết luận Phát triển ý o Phát triển . có tr.nh tự logic o Có dẫn chứng, ví dụ, … đủ để bảo vệ . kiến của m.nh Sử dụng ngôn ngữ o Sử dụng ngôn từ phù hợp nội dung o Sử dụng ngôn từ đúng văn phong/ thể loại o Sử dụng từ nối các . cho bài viết uyển chuyển Nội dung o Đủ thuyết phục người đọc. Điểm đa 0.40. 0.25 0.30. 0.30. tối.

(100) 5.. o Đủ dẫn chứng, ví dụ, lập luận o Độ dài: Số từ không nhiều hơn hoặc ít hơn so với quy định 5% Ngữ pháp, dấu câu và chính tả o Sử dụng đúng dấu câu o Chính tả: Viết đúng chính tả _ Lỗi chính tả gây hiểu nhầm/ sai lệch . sẽ bị tính một lỗi (trừ 1% điểm của bài viết) _ Cùng một lỗi chính tả lặp lại chỉ tính là một lỗi o Sử dụng đúng thời, thể, cấu trúc câu đúng ngữ pháp. (Lỗi ngữ pháp gây hiểu nhầm/ sai lệch . sẽ bị trừ 1% điểm bài viết.) Tổng. 0.25. 1.5. ĐỀ SỐ 12: SỞ GD-ĐT HÀ TĨNH TRƯỜNG THPT TRẦN PHÚ. ĐỀ THI THỬ THQG - NĂM HỌC 2014 2015 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Đề thi gồm có 05 trang Mã đề thi 12 Họ, tên thí sinh:.......................................................................... Số báo danh:............................................................................... Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. Question 1. A. addition B. adventure C. advertise D. advantage Question 2. A. christmas B. chemical C. switch D. character Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. Question 3. A. appeal B. human C. suffer D.mission Question 4. A. consignation B. abnormality C. supplementary D. confidence Question 5. A. alternative B. improvement C. modernize D. exhausted.

(101) Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 6: The_______ horse began to run as fast as he could. A. frightening B. frighten C. frightful D. frightened Question 7: ______ is to give strangers your address. A. What you must never do B.That you must never do C. What must never you do D.That must never you do Question 8: Nobody likes his behaviour, ________? A. do they B. don’t they C. does he D. doesn’t he Question 9: On no account _______ be touched. A. this switch must B. must this switchC. you must D. must this switch not Question 10: Have you heard about all the complaints? It _________ have been a pleasant holiday for them. A. mayn’t B. shouldn’t C. mustn’t D. can’t Question 11: Tom: “ Sorry, I forgot to phone you last night.” -Mary: “________” A. I have nothing to tell you. B. Oh. Poor me! C. Never mind! D. You was absent - minded. Question 12: After running up the stairs, I was ________breath. A. away from B. without C. no D. out of Question 13: Having been selected to present the Association of American Engineers at the International Convention, ________ A. the members applauded him B. a speech had to be given by him C. the members congratulated him D. he gave a short acceptance speech Question 14:Charlotte Bronte died of tuberculosis, ________. A. as did all her sisters B. and all her sisters did C. and so were all sisters D. either did all her sisters Question 15: David: “ Why don’t we ask Martin to chair the meeting?” Fiona: “ Well, suppose _________ to ask him, do you think he would accept?” A. were we B. we have C. we try D. we were Question 16: His father prefers _________ . A. that he attend a different university B. that he attends a different university C. he attends a different university D. he attend a different university Question 17: Busy ________ he was , Bob’s father still spent time playing with him. A. like B. though C. although D. however.

(102) Question 18:Extinction means a situation _______ a plan , an animal or a way of life ect …. stops existing. A. to which B. in which C. on which D. for which Question 19:As I was walking along the street, I saw _______ $ 10 note on _______ pavement. A. a/ the B. the/ the C. a/ a D. the/a Question 20: Thirty – eight national sites are known as parks, another eighty – two as monuments, and _________ . A. the another one hundred seventy – eight as historical sites B. seventy – eight plus one hundred more as historical sites C. the other one hundred seventy–eight as historical sites. D. as historical sites one hundred seventy – eight. Question 21:Tom : “This medicine tastes horrible! ” Mary : “________, it will cure your cough. ” A. Be that as it may. B. Come what may C. How much horrible is it D. Whatever it tastes Question 22: I’ve never really enjoyed going to the ballet or the opera; they’re not really my______. A. piece of cake B. sweets and candy C. biscuit D. cup of tea Question 23:John said that no other car could go ______. A. so fast like his car B. as fast like his car C. as fast like the car of him D. as fast as his car Question 24: Paul, do you think you could_______ for the night? It’s a bit too late to go home now. A. let me off B. go me out C. fall me out D. put me up Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is closest in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question 25: She is always diplomatic when she deals with angry students. A. strict B. outspoken C. tactful D. firm Question 26: The book received a lot of good reviews in the press, and went on to become one of the year’s best sellers A. write-ups B. suggestions C. achievements D. supports Question 27: John wants to buy a new car so he starts setting aside a small part of his monthly earnings.. A. spending on. B. using up. C. putting out. D. saving. up Question 28: After all these years of good work, Arthur deserves a promotion. A. ought to be denied B. might be produced C. should be given rejected Question 29: What is the principal distinction between ducks and geese?. D.. could. be.

(103) A.relation. B. difference. C. characteristic. D. similarity. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction. Question 30:Of the two lectures, the first was by far the best, partly because the person who delivered it had A B C such a dynamic style. D Question 31:John got his sister read his assignment, and then asked her to write the report for him because A B C he did not have enough time. D Question 32: The industry minister blamed lower production figures for a severe shortage of raw material A B C D and frequent strikes by workers. Question 33: A basic knowledge of social studies, such as history and geography, are considered a A B C basic part of the education of every child. D Question 34: Drug addiction has resulted of many destroyed careers and expulsions from school or college. A B C D Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. The overall outlook for the hotel and tourism industry in Vietnam is very (35)____ . Tourism is viewed as an important economic (36)____ in the future development of this country, and it is easy to see why Vietnam , among the countries in South East Asia, has become increasingly popular as a new (37)____ destination. The sublime beauty of the country’s natural settings is very (38)____ . The sights, the sounds and the tastes of Vietnam leave a lasting memory for many foreign (39)____ . Its key destination such as Dalat, PhanThiet, Hoi An or NhaTrang are offering, indeed, great tourism (40)____ . Combine this with the friendly nature of the Vietnamese people and the current political (41)____ , and we are set for solid growth pattern for the years to come. It is therefore not a surprise that foreign (42)____ to Vietnam have steadily increased during the past few years..

(104) Also important is the increasing demand from the domestic market. It is projected that 17 million domestic (43)____ will make a short trip in 2005 within the country for leisure and (44)____. Question 35. A. famous B. good C. positive D. proud Question 36. A. force B. goal C. growth D. task Question 37. A. tour B. tourist C. tourism D. touring Question 38. A. impress B. impressive C. impressing D. impression Question 39. A.friends B. foreigners C.visitors D. people Question 40. A. industry B. value C. growth D. worth Question 41. A. stable B. stability C.unstable D. instability Question 42. A. arrive B. arriving C. arrival D. arrivals Question 43. A. tourists B. people C. guides D. interpreters Question 44. A. relax B. relaxation C. relaxed D. relaxing Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Today we take electricity for granted and perhaps we do not realize just how useful this discovery has been. Steam was the first invention that replaced wind power. It was used to drive engines and was passed through pipes and radiators to warm rooms. Petrol mixed with air was the next invention that provided power. Exploded in a cylinder, it drove a motor engine. Beyond these simple and direct uses, those forms have not much adaptability. On the other hand, we make use of electricity in thousands of ways. From the powerful voltages that drive our electric trains to the tiny current needed to work a simple calculator, and from the huge electric magnet in steel works that can lift 10 tons to the tiny electric magnet in a doorbell, all are powered by electricity. An electric current can be made with equal ease to heat a huge mass of molten metal in a furnace, or to boil a jug for a cup of coffee. Other than atomic energy, which has not as yet been harnessed to the full, electricity is the greatest power in the world. It is flexible, and so adaptable for any task for which it is wanted. It travels so easily and with incredible speed along wires or conductors that it can be supplied instantly over vast distances. To generate electricity, huge turbines or generators must be turned. In Australia they use coal or water to drive this machinery. When dams are built, falling water is used to drive the turbines without polluting the atmosphere with smoke from coal. Atomic power is used in several countries but there is always the fear of an accident. A tragedy once occurred at Chernobyl, in Ukraine, at an atomic power plant used to make electricity. The reactor leaked, which caused.

(105) many deaths through radiation. Now scientists are examining new ways of creating electricity without harmful effects to the environment. They may harness the tides as they flow in and out of bays. Most importantly, they hope to trap sunlight more efficiently. We do use solar heaters for swimming pools but as yet improvement in the capacity of the solar cells to create more current is necessary. When this happens, electric cars will be viable and the world will rid itself of the toxic gases given off by trucks and cars that burn fossil fuels. Question 45. Which of the following power sources causes pollution by emitting harmful gases? A. Wind. B. Petrol. C. Water. D. Sunlight. Question 46. The word "they" in the last paragraph refers to ______. A. the tides B. scientists C. harmful effects D. new ways Question 47. What do we call machines that make electricity? A. Voltages B. Generators or turbines. C. Pipes and radiators. D. Electric magnets. Question 48. Before electricity, what was sometimes passed through pipes to heat rooms? A. Gas. B. Hot wind C. Steam D. Petrol Question 49. The author mentions the sources of energy such as wind, steam, petrol in the first paragraph to ______. A. emphasize the usefulness and adaptability of electricity B. suggest that electricity should be alternated with safer sources of energy C. imply that electricity is not the only useful source of energy D. discuss which source of energy can be a suitable alternative to electricity Question 50. What does the author mean by saying that electricity is flexible? A. It is used to drive motor engines. B. It can be adapted to various uses. C. It can be made with ease. D. It is cheap and easy to use. Question 51. The main forms of power used to generate electricity in Australia are ______. A. atomic power and water B. wind and gas C. water and coal D. sunlight and wind power Question 52. Electric magnets are used in steel works to ______. A. heat the molten steel B. lift heavy weights up to ten tons C. test the steel for strength D. boil a jug of water Question 53. The advantage of harnessing the power of the tides and of sunlight to generate electricity is that they _____. A. do not require attention B. are more adaptable C. do not pollute the environment D. are more reliable Question 54. The best title for this passage could be ______. A. “Types of Power Plants” B. “Why Electricity Is So Remarkable”.

(106) C. “Electricity: Harmful Effects on Our Life” to Produce Electricity”. D. “How. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.. Before the mid-nineteenth century, people in the United States ate most foods only in season. Drying, smoking and salting could preserve meat for a short time, but the availability of fresh meat, like that of fresh milk, was very limited; there was no way to prevent spoilage. But in 1810, a French inventor named Nicolas Appert developed the cooking-and-sealing process of canning. And in the 1850’s an American named Gail Borden developed a means of condensing and preserving milk. Canned goods and condensed milk became more common during the 1860’s, but supplies remained low because cans had to be made by hand. By 1880, however, inventors had fashioned stamping and soldering machines that mass-produced cans from tinplate. Suddenly all kinds of food could be preserved and bought at all times of the year. Other trends and inventions had also helped make it possible for Americans to vary their daily diets. Growing urban population created demand that encouraged fruit and vegetable farmers to raise more produce. Railroad refrigerator cars enabled growers and meat packers to ship perishables great distances and to preserve them for longer periods. Thus, by the 1890’s, northern city dwellers could enjoy southern and western strawberries, grapes, and tomatoes, previously available for a month at most, for up to six months of the year. In addition, increased use of iceboxes enabled families to store perishables. As easy means of producing ice commercially had been invented in the 1870’s, and by 1900 the nation had more than two thousand commercial ice plants, most of which made home deliveries. The icebox became a fixture in most homes and remained so until the mechanized refrigerator replaced it in the 1920’s and 1930’s. Almost everyone now had a more diversified diet. Some people continued to eat mainly foods that were heavily in starches or carbohydrates, and not everyone could afford meat. Nevertheless, many families could take advantage of previously unavailable fruits, vegetables, and dairy products to achieve more varied fare. Question 55. What does the passage mainly discuss? A. Causes of food spoilage B. Commercial production of ice C. Population movements in the nineteenth century D. Inventions that led to changes in the American diet Question 56. The phrase “in season” in line 1 refers to ________ . A. a particular time of year B. a kind of weather C. an official schedule D. a method of flavoring Question 57. During the 1860’s, canned food products were _________ . A. unavailable in rural areas B. available in limited quantities C. shipped in refrigerator cars D. a staple part of the American diet. Question 58. It can be inferred that railroad refrigerator cars came into use _________ ..

(107) A. before 1860 B. before 1890 C. after 1900 D. after 1920 Question 59. The word” them” in line 12 refers to _________ . A. refrigerator cars B.growers C. perishables D. distances. Question 60. The word” fixture” in line 16 is closest in meaning to _________ . A. commonplace object B. substance C. luxury item D. mechanical device Question 61.The author implies that in the 1920’s and 1930’s home deliveries of ice _________ . A. increased in cost B. occurred only in the summer C. decreased in number D. were on an irregular schedule Question 62. The word “ Nevertheless” in line 19 is closest meaning to _________ . A. occasionally B. however C. therefore D. because Question 63. Which of the following types of food preservation was NOT mentioned in the passage? A. Drying B. Chemical additives C. Canning D. Cold storage Question 64. Which of the following statements is supported by the passage? A. Most farmers in the United States raised only fruits and vegetables. B. People who lived in cities demanded home delivery of foods. C. Tin cans and iceboxes helped to make many foods more widely available. D. Commercial ice factories were developed by railroad owners WRITING Part I: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. Question 65: It is said that he escaped in a stolen car. > He is…………………………………………………… Question 66: I would prefer you to deliver the sofa on Sunday. > I would rather ………………………………………………………………………….. Question 67: This village is inaccessible in winter due to heavy snow. > Heavy snow makes …………………………………………………………………………………. … Question 68: “Why don’t you ask your boss for a rise?” He asked me. > He advised ………………………………………………………………………………………….. Question 69: I was not surprised to hear that Harry had failed his driving test. > It came ……………………………………………………………………………… Part II: In about 140 words, write a paragraph to describe one of the most important holidays in Vietnam. ............................................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................................................... ................................................................................................................................................................................

(108) ............................................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................................... -----THE END-----. 1. C 2. C 3. A 4. D 5. C 6. D 7. A 8. A 9. B 10. D 11. C 12. D 13. D 14. A 15. D 16. A. ĐÁP ÁN PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM (8 điểm) 17. B 33. C 18. B 34. B 19. A 35. C 20. C 36. A 21. A 37. C 22. D 38. B 23. D 39. C 24. D 40. B 25. C 41. B 26.A 42. D 27. D 43. A 28. C 44. B 29. B 45. D 30. B 46. A 31. A 47. B 32. B 48. C. PHẦN VIẾT (2 điểm) I (0,5điểm) Câu 65: He is said to have escaped in a stolen car.. 49. A 50. B 51. C 52. B 53. C 54. B 55. D 56. A 57. B 58. B 59. C 60. A 61. C 62. B 63. B 64. C.

(109) Câu 66: I would rather you delivered the sofa on Sunday. Câu 67: Heavy snow makes it impossible to reach this village. Câu 68: He advised me to ask my boss for a rise. Câu 69: It came as no surprise to me that Harry had failed his driving test.. ĐỀ SỐ 13: SỞ GD-ĐT HÀ TĨNH TRƯỜNG THPT TRẦN PHÚ. ĐỀ THI THỬ THQG - NĂM HỌC 2014 2015 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Đề thi gồm có 06 trang Mã đề thi 14 Họ, tên thí sinh:.......................................................................... Số báo danh:............................................................................... Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underline is pronounced differently from the rest. Question 1: A. loved B. appeared C. agreed D. coughed Question 2: A. thereupon B. thrill C. threesome D. throne Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress. Question 3: A. television B. information C. economic D. engineer Question 4: A. achievement B. argument C. confinement D. involvement Question 5: A. teacher B. prefer C. offer D. flower Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 6: I will stand here and wait for you ______ you come back. A. because B. though C. so D. until Question 7: Let’s begin our discussion now, ______? A. shall we B. will we C. don’t we D. won’t we Question 8: Of all the factors affecting agricultural yields, weather is the one ______ the most. A. that influences farmers B. farmers that is influences C. why farmers influence it D. it influences farmers Question 9: It gets _______ to understand what the professor has explained..

(110) A. the more difficult B. difficult more and more C. more difficult than D. more and more difficult Question 10: I was doing my homework ______ the light went out. A. after B. before C. while D. when Question 11: He carried a(n)_________ driving license. A. untrue B. unfaithful C. artificial D. false Question 12: John: “I’ve passed my final exam.” Tom: “______” A. That’s a good idea. B. Good luck. C. It’s nice of you to say so. D. Congratulations! Question 13: _______, we tried our best to complete it. A. Thanks to the difficult homework B. Despite the homework was difficult C. Difficult as the homework was D. As though the homework was difficult Question 14: Students are often advised to look at the first and last_________of a book before attempting to read it in details. A. paragraphs B. headings C. chapters D. titles Question 15: ______ ten minutes earlier, you would have got a better seat. A. Had you arrived B. If you arrived C. Were you arrived D. If you hadn’t arrived Question 16: The song has ______ been selected for the 22nd Sea Games, Vietnam. A. officially B. office C. official D. officer Question 17: Edith Harlow has kindly agreed ______. You should ask him. A. to helping B. to help C. help D. helping Question 18: People usually can get sufficient ______ of the calcium their bodies need from the food they consume. A. variety B. source C. amount D. number Question 19: It is possible ______ may assist some trees in saving water in the winter. A. to lose leaves B. that the loss of leaves C. the leaves are lost D. when leaves have lost Question 20: Kitchen appliances called blenders became ______ in the 1930s, when Stephen B. Poplawski developed a machine that excelled at making his favorite drink. A. establish B. established C. which establish D. establishing Question 21: There’s somebody walking behind us. I think we are ______. A. followed B. being followed C. following D. being following Question 22: Chosen as the nation’s capital at the end of the American Civil War, ______ the city of over a million people. A. Washington, DC is now B. for Washington, DC, C. Washington, DC, D. now in Washington, DC, Question 23: It is a top secret. You _______ tell anyone about it. A. won't B. needn't C. mustn't D. mightn't.

(111) Question 24: Although he hadn’t spoken French for many years, he picked it _____ again after a few weeks. A. over B. on C. up D. through Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. The Winterthur Museum is a collection and a house. There are many museums devoted to the decorative arts and many house museums, but rarely in the United States is a great collection displayed in a great country house. Passing through successive generations of a single family, Winterthur has been a private estate for more than a century. Even after the extensive renovations made to it between 1929 and 1931, the house remained a family residence. This fact is of importance to the atmosphere and effect of the museum. The impression of a lived-in house is apparent to the visitor: the rooms look as if they were vacated only a short while ago whether by the original owners of the furniture or the most recent residents of the house can be a matter of personal interpretation. Winterthur remains, then, a house in which a collection of furniture and architectural elements has been assembled. Like an English country house, it is an organic structure; the house, as well as the collection and manner of displaying it to the visitor, has changed over the years. The changes have coincided with developing concepts of the American arts, increased knowledge on the part of collectors and students, and a progression toward the achievement of a historical effect in period-room displays. The rooms at Winterthur have followed this current, yet still retained the character of a private house. The concept of a period room as a display technique has developed gradually over the years in an effort to present works of art in a context that would show them to greater effect and would give them more meaning for the viewer. Comparable to the habitat group in a natural history museum, the period room represents the decorative arts in a lively and interesting manner and provides an opportunity to assemble objects related by style, date, or place of manufacture. Question 25: What does the passage mainly discuss? A. Historical furniture contained in Winterthur B. How Winterthur compares to English country houses C. Elements that make Winterthur an unusual museum D. The reason that Winterthur was redesigned Question 26: The phrase "devoted to" in line 1 is closest in meaning to ________ . A. specializing in B. sentimental about C. surrounded by D. successful in Question 27: What happened at Winterthur between 1929 and 1931? A. The old furniture was replaced B. The estate became a museum C. The owners moved out D. The house was repaired Question 28: What does the author mean by stating "the impression of a lived-in house is apparent to the visitor"? A. Few people visit Winterthur B. The furniture at Winterthur looks comfortable.

(112) C. Winterthur does not look like a typical museum D. Winterthur is very old Question 29: The word "assembled" in line 9 is closest in meaning to ________ . A. summoned B. appreciated C. fundamentally changed D. brought together Question 30: The word "it" in line 10 refers to _________ . A. collection B. English country house C. visitor D. Winterthur Question 31: The word "developing" in line 11 is closest in meaning to _________ . A. evolving B. exhibiting C. informative D. traditional Question 32: According to the passage, objects in a period room are related by all of the following EXCEPT _________ . A. place of manufacture B. date C. past ownership D. style Question 33: What is the relationship between the two paragraphs in the passage? A. Paragraph 2 explains a philosophy of art appreciation that contrasts with that explained in Paragraph 1. B. Paragraph 2 explains a term that was mentioned in Paragraph 1. C. Each paragraph describes a different historical period D. Each paragraph describes a different approach to the display of objects in a museum Question 34: Where in the passage does the author explain why displays at Winterthur have changed? A. lines 6-8 B. lines 4-5 C. lines 1-2 D. lines 10-12 Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer for each of the blanks. CARNIVOROUS PLANTS All plants rely on nutrients taken from the soil in order to survive. However, in areas where the soil does not contain enough (35)_____ nutrients, some plants have adapted to (36) _____ their diets from another source: living organisms. Though they are few in number, carnivorous plants are (37)_____ fascinating beings that “eat” anything from one-celled organisms to insects in order to survive. They are commonly found in marshlands. Carnivorous plants feature one of several types of “traps” to ensnare prey, which they consume to make up for nutrients that may be missing from the soil. While there are over 400 species of carnivorous plants in the world today, some are more (38)_____ than others. The most well-known of these plants are the snap traps, which include the Venus flytrap. Snap traps are easily identified by their leaves, which are separated into two lobes that have the ability to fold together. Inside the lobes, the surface is covered with tiny hairs that are (39) _____ to movement. When the plant’s prey brushes against the hairs, it triggers a closing mechanism that rapidly brings the two lobes together, trapping the prey (40)_____ inside. The response of the traps is phenomenal.

(113) (41)_____ speed: the time between triggering the hairs and snapping shut is less than a second. As the prey struggles inside the trap, it only triggers more hairs, causing the leaves to tighten their (42) _____. The plant then secrets liquid chemicals from special glands into the trap to dissolve the prey and absorb all of its nutrients. Besides the Venus flytrap, only one other type of snap trap exists today, (43)_____ to as the waterwheel plant. The two share a common ancestor and differ only in a few ways. For instance, the waterwheel is an aquatic plant, while the flytrap is exclusively terrestrial. In addition, the flytrap feeds primarily on arthropods like spiders, while the waterwheel lives (44)_____ simple invertebrates, like certain types of plankton. Question 35: A. critical B. vital C. crucial D. indispensable Question 36: A. modify B. enlarge C. augment D. supplement Question 37: A. nonetheless B. though C. contradictorily D. yet Question 38: A. prevalent B. current C. domineering D. prevailing Question 39: A. vulnerable B. liable C. prone D. sensitive Question 40: A. closely B. securely C. irreplaceably D. steadily Question 41: A. in accordance with B. in preference to C. in regard to D. on merits of Question 42: A. fist B. hold C. seizure D. grip Question 43: A. denoted B. referred C. indicated D. implicated Question 44: A. off B. onto C. though D. with Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the followings. Question 45: Few businesses are flourishing in the present economic climate. A. taking off B. setting up C. growing well D. closing down Question 46: The dog saw his reflection in the pool of water . A. imagination B. bone C. leash D. image Question 47: At times, I look at him and wonder what is going on in his mind. A. sometimes B. always C. hardly D. never Question 48: Humans depend on species diversity to provide food, clean air and water, and fertile soil for agriculture. A. destruction B. contamination C. fertilizer D. variety Question 49: I couldn’t see what she was doing. It was so dark down there. A. make out B. make up C. make for D. make from Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction..

(114) Question 50: Several (A) people have apparent (B) tried to change the man’s mind(C), but he refuses to listen (D). Question 51: Not until (A) I was on my way(B) to the airport that I realized(C) I had left my passport at home(D). Question 52: Students suppose(A) to read all the questions(B) carefully and find out(C) the answers to them(D). Question 53: The disposable(A) camera, a single- used camera(B) preloaded with print film(C) has appeared(D) in the late 1980s and has become very popular. Question 54: Public health(A) experts say that the money one spends avoiding illness(B) is less than the cost(C) of to treat sickness(D). Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer for each of the questions. MOBILE PHONES: ARE THEY ABOUT TO TRANSFORM OUR LIVES? We love them so much that some of us sleep with them under the pillow, yet we are increasingly concerned that we cannot escape their electronic reach. We use them to convey our most intimate secrets, yet we worry that they are a threat to our privacy. We rely on them more than the Internet to cope with modern life, yet many of us don’t believe advertisements saying we need more advanced services. Sweeping aside the doubts that many people feel about the benefits of new third generation phones and fears over the health effects of phone masts, a recent report claims that the long-term effects of new mobile technologies will be entirely positive so long as the public can be convinced to make use of them. Research about users of mobile phones reveals that the mobile has already moved beyond being a mere practical communications tool to become the backbone of modern social life, from love affairs to friendship to work. The close relationship between user and phone is most pronounced among teenagers, the report says, who regard their mobiles as an expression of their identity. This is partly because mobiles are seen as being beyond the control of parents. But the researchers suggest that another reason may be that mobiles, especially text messaging, were seen as a way of overcoming shyness. The impact of phones, however, has been local rather than global, supporting existing friendship and networks, rather than opening users to a new broader community. Even the language of texting in one area can be incomprehensible to anybody from another area. Among the most important benefits of using mobile phones, the report claims, will be a vastly improved mobile infrastructure, providing gains throughout the economy, and the provision of a more sophisticated location-based services for users. The report calls on government to put more effort into the delivery of services by mobile phone, with suggestion including public transport and traffic information and doctors’ text messages to remind patients of appointments. There are many possibilities. At a recent.

(115) trade fair in Sweden, a mobile navigation product was launched. When the user enters a destination, a route is automatically downloaded to their mobile and presented by voices, pictures and maps as they drive. In future, these devices will also be able to plan around congestion and road works in real time. Third generation phones will also allow for remote monitoring of patients by doctors. In Britain, scientists are developing an asthma management solution using mobiles to detect early signs of an attack. Mobile phones can be used in education. A group of teachers in Britain use third generation phones to provide fast internet service to children who live beyond the reach of terrestrial broadband services and can have no access to online information. ‘As the new generation of mobile technologies takes off, the social potential will vastly increase,’ the report argues. Question 55: What does the writer suggest in the first paragraph about our attitudes to mobile phones? A. We need them more than anything else to deal with modern life. B. We are worried about using them so much. C. We cannot live without them. D. We have contradictory feelings about them. Question 56: What does “them” in paragraph 2 refer to? A. long-term effects B. new mobile technologies C. benefits D. doubts Question 57: What is the connection between social life and mobile phones? A. Mobile phones enable people to communicate while moving around. B. Modern social life relies significantly on the use of mobile phones. C. Mobile phones encourage people to make friends. D. Mobile phones make romantic communication easier. Question 58: Why do teenagers have such a close relationship with their mobile phones? A. They feel independent when they use them. B. They tend to feel uncomfortable in many situations. C. They use text messages more than any other group. D. They are more inclined to be late than older people. Question 59: Which of the following is NOT true? A. Mobile phone is considered as a means for the youth to show their characters. B. Mobile phones are playing a wide range of roles in people’s life. C. People can overcome shyness by using texting to communicate things that make them uncomfortable. D. There is no need to suspect the harmfulness of mobile phones. Question 60: In what sense has the impact of phones been “local” in paragraph 3? A. People tend to communicate with people they already know. B. It depends on local dialects. C. Users generally phone people who live in the same neighbourhood..

(116) D. The phone networks use different systems. Question 61: How might mobile phones be used in the future? A. To show bus and train timetables B. To cure diseases C. To arrange deliveries D. To give the address of the nearest doctor’s surgery Question 62: The navigation product launched in Sweden is helpful for drivers because _____. A. it tells them which roads are congested B. it shows them how to avoid road works C. it can suggest the best way to get to a place D. it provides directions orally Question 63: What is the general attitude of the report described here? A. The government should take over the mobile phone networks. B. Mobile phones can have a variety of very useful applications. C. There are problems with mobile phones that cannot be overcome. D. Manufacturers need to produce better equipment. Question 64: The word “pronounced” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _____. A. overwhelmed B. serious C. obvious D. voiced WRITING Part 1. Rewrite the following sentences in order to keep their original meanings. Question 65: Mary is pretty but Camry is prettier. -> Camry is the …………………………………………………………………………………... Question 66: This is the best film I’ve ever seen. -.> I’ve ………………………………………………………………………………………… … Question 67: My school has over 2,000 students. -> There are …………………………………………………………………………………….. Question 68: People say that the plane of Germanwings crashed into the mountains. -> It is ………………………………………………………………………………………… … Question 69: He tries to learn English well so as to find a good job. -> He tries to learn English well with ………………………………………………………….. Part 2. Why do people learn English?Write a paragraph about 150 words. ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………….

(117) ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………… -----------THE END----------.

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(119) 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32. D A A B B D A A D D C D C C A A B C B B B A C A C A D C D D A C. ĐÁP ÁN 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64. B D B D A A D B C D B A C D A D A B C A D D A B C D C D C D C C. Part 1. Rewrite the following sentences in order to keep their original meanings. Question 65: Mary is pretty but Camry is prettier. -> Camry is the prettier of the two girls. Question 66: This is the best film I’ve ever seen. -.> I’ve never seen a better film than this (film).) or (I’ve never seen such a good film.) Question 67: My school has over 2,000 students. -> There are over 2,000 students in my school. Question 68: People say that the plane of Germanwings crashed into the mountains..

(120) -> It is said that the plane of Germanwings crashed into the mountains. Question 69: He tries to learn English well so as to find a good job. -> He tries to learn English well with a view to finding a good job. Part 2. Why do people learn English?Write a paragraph about 150 words. ĐỀ SỐ 14: SỞ GD-ĐT HÀ TĨNH TRƯỜNG THPT TRẦN PHÚ. ĐỀ THI THỬ THQG - NĂM HỌC 2014 2015 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Đề thi gồm có 05 trang Mã đề thi 16 Họ, tên thí sinh:.......................................................................... Số báo danh:............................................................................... Choose the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress. Question 1: A. decide B. apply C. Provide Question 2: A. pollution B. attractive C. separate Question 3: A. invaluable B. intimacy C. investigate. D. offer D. activity D. intensity. Choose the word whose bold part is pronounced differently.. Question 4. A. adopted Question 5. A. chemical challenge. B. appealed C. dedicated B. approach C. achieve. Choose the word phrase that best complete each sentence. Question 6: Everyone can join our club, _______age and sex. A. in place of B. regardless of C. in case of. D. wounded D.. D. on behalf of Question 7: The total cost to renovate the building was $13.75 million, ____ double the original estimate. A. mostly B. most all C. the most D. almost Question 8: He went _________ a bad cold just before Christmas. A. in for B. over C. through D. down with Question 9: ________ wait for no man. A. Tide and fire B. Time and tide C. Time and fire D. Tide and time Question 10: -"Do you have a minute, Dr Keith?" - "________" A. Sorry, I haven't got it here. B. Good, I hope so. C. Sure. What's the problem? D. Well. I'm not sure when. Question 11: I saw him hiding something in a_______ bag. A. small plastic black B. black small plastic C. small black plastic D. plastic small black Question 12: He suddenly saw Sue _____the room. He pushed his way_____ the crowd of people to get to her..

(121) A. across/through. B. over/through C. over/along D. across/across Question 13: Is it necessary that I _____ here tomorrow? A. am being B. were C. be D. would be Question 14: I walked away as calmly as I could. _______ , they would have thought I. was a thief. A. If so B. Or else C. In case D. Owing to Question 15: "Your parents must be proud of your result at school". - "_______" A. Sorry to hear that. B. I am glad you like it. C. Thanks. It's certainly encouraging. D. Of course Question 16: In most _____ developed countries, up to 50% of _____ population enters higher education at some time in their lives. A. Ø / Ø B. the / Ø C. Ø / the D. the / a Question 17: _______ after the World War II, the United Nations has been actively carrying out its convention to stop wars and bring peace to nations worldwide. A. Having been established B. Being established C. To be established D. Established. Question 18: The road ............... is shaded with trees. A. where we go to school every day B. from which we go to school every day C. at which we go to school every day D. on which we go to school every day Question 19: By this time next summer, you..........your studies. A. will have completed B. will complete C. are completing D. completes Question 20: It ____ me only five minutes to get to school A. cost B. took C. brought D. spent Question 21: This factory produced ______ motorbikes in 2008 as in the year 2006. A. twice as many B. as twice as many C. as twice many D. as many as twice Question 22: In many big cities, people have to ______ up with noise, overcrowding and bad air. A. keep B. catch C. face D. put. Question 23: When his alarm went off, he shut it off and slept for ………..15 minutes. A. other B. others C. another D. the others Question 24: He was very lucky when he fell off the ladder. He _____ himself. A. could have hurt B. must have hurt C. should have hurt D. will have hurt Choose the word that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in the following questions Question 25: Roget's Thesaurus, a collection of English words and phrases, was originally arranged by the ideas they express rather than by alphabetical order. A. restricted B. as well as C. unless D. instead of Question 26: With the dawn of space exploration, the notion that atmospheric conditions on Earth may be unique in the solar system was strengthened. A. outcome B. continuation C. beginning D. expansion Question 27: Let's wait here for her; I'm sure she'll turn up before long. A. arrive B. return C. enter D. visit. Question 28: The situation seems to be changing minute by minute. A. very rapidly B. time after time C. again and again D. from time to time Question 29: It was great to see monkeys in their natural habitat..

(122) A.sky. B. home. C. forest. D. land. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 30: Mrs. Stevens, along with her cousins from New Mexico, are planning to attend the A B C D festivities. Question 31: Families who are enough fortunate to own a historic home may be able to get restoration A B C D funds from the government. Question 32: A cure for the common cold, causing by a virus, has not been found. A B C D Question 33: The woman of whom the red car is parked in front of the bank is a famous pop star. A B C D Question 34: The better you are at English, more chance you have to get a job with international A B C D. organizations. Read the following passage and decide which option A, B, C or D best fits each space.. INFLUENCES OF TELEVISION Television has changed the lifestyle of people in every industrialized country in the world. In the United States, where sociologists have studied the effects, some interesting observations have been made. Television, although not essential, has become a(n) (35) _____ part of most people’s lives. It has become a baby-sitter, an initiator of conversations, a major transmitter of culture, and a keeper of traditions. Yet when what can be seen on TV in one day is critically analyzed, it becomes evident that television is not a teacher but a sustainer. The poor (36) ______ of programs does not elevate people into greater (37) ______. The (38) _______ reason for the lack of quality in American television is related to both the history of TV development and the economics of TV. Television in America began with the radio. Radio companies and their sponsors first experimented with television. Therefore, the close relationship, (39) _______ the advertisers had with radio programs, became the system for American TV. Sponsors not only paid money for time within programs, but many actually produced the programs. Thus, (40) _______ from the capitalistic, profit-oriented sector of American society, television is primarily (41) _______ with reflecting and attracting society (42) _______ than innovating and experimenting with new ideas. Advertisers want to attract the largest viewing audience possible; to do so requires that the programs be entertaining rather than challenging..

(123) Television in America today remains, to a large (43) _______, with the same organization and standards as it had thirty years ago. The hope for some evolution and true achievement toward improving society will require a change in the (44) _______ system. Question 35: A. integral B. mixed C. fractional D. superior Question 36: A. quantity B. quality C. effect D. product Question 37: A. preconception B. knowledge C. understanding D. feeling Question 38: A. adequate B. unknown C. inexplicable D. primary Question 39: A. which B. that C. where D. what Question 40: A. going B. leaving C. coming D. getting Question 41: A. concerned B. interested C.worried D. connected Question 42: A. more B. rather C. less D. better Question 43: A. extent B. degree C. size D. amount Question 44: A. total B. full C. entire D. complete Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. As the twentieth century began, the importance of formal education in the United States increased. The frontier had mostly disappeared and by 1910 most Americans lived in towns and cities. Industrialization and the bureaucratization of economic life combined with a new emphasis upon credentials and expertise to make schooling increasingly important for economic and social mobility. Increasingly, too, schools were viewed as the most important means of integrating immigrants into American society. The arrival of a great wave of southern and eastern European immigrants at the turn of the century coincided with and contributed to an enormous expansion of formal schooling. By 1920 schooling to age fourteen or beyond was compulsory in most states, and the school year was greatly lengthened. Kindergartens, vacation schools, extracurricular activities, and vocational education and counseling extended the influence of public schools over the lives of students, many of whom in the larger industrial cities were the children of immigrants. Classes for adult immigrants were sponsored by public schools, corporations, unions, churches, settlement houses, and other agencies. Reformers early in the twentieth century suggested that education programs should suit the needs of specific populations. Immigrant women were once such population. Schools tried to educate young women so they could occupy productive places in the urban industrial economy, and one place many educators considered appropriate for women was the home. Although looking after the house and family was familiar to immigrant women, American education gave homemaking a new definition. In preindustrial economies, homemaking had meant the production as well as the consumption of goods, and it commonly included income-producing activities both inside and outside the home, in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States, however, overproduction rather than scarcity was becoming a problem. Thus, the ideal American homemaker was viewed as a consumer rather than a producer. Schools trained women to be consumer homemakers cooking, shopping, decorating, and caring for children.

(124) "efficiently" in their own homes, or if economic necessity demanded, as employees in the homes of others. Subsequent reforms have made these notions seem quite out-of-date. Question 45: The paragraph preceding the passage probably discusses _____. A. the industrialization and the bureaucratization of economic life the United States in the nineteen century.. B. the formal schooling in the United States in the nineteen century. C. the urbanization in the United States in the nineteen century. D. the most important means of integrating immigrants into American society in the nineteen century. Question 46: It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that one important factor in the increasing importance of education in the United States was _____. A. the expanding economic problems of schools B. the growing number of schools in frontier communities C. an increase in the number of trained teachers. D. the increased urbanization of the entire country Question 47: The word "means" in line 5 is closest in meaning to _____. A. qualifications B. method C. advantages D. probability Question 48: The phrase "coincided with" in line 7 is closest in meaning to _____. A. happened at the same time as B. ensured the success of C. was influenced by D. began to grow rapidly Question 49: According to the passage, one important change in United States education by the 1920's was that _____. A. the amount of time spent on formal education was limited B. new regulations were imposed on nontraditional education C. adults and children studied in the same classes. D. most places required children to attend school Question 50: “Vacation schools and extracurricular activities” are mentioned in line 9 to illustrate _____. A. activities that competed to attract new immigrants to their programs. B. alternatives to formal education provided by public schools C. the importance of educational changes D. the increased impact of public schools on students Question 51: According to the passage, early-twentieth century education reformers believed that _____. A. special programs should be set up in frontier communities to modernize them B. corporations and other organizations damaged educational progress. C. different groups needed different kinds of education D. more women should be involved in education and industry Question 52: The word "it" in line 19 refers to _____. A. education B. consumption C. production D. homemaking Question 53: Women were trained to be consumer homemakers as a result of _____. A. scarcity in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States B. economic necessity in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States C. income-producing activities in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States. D. overproduction in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States Question 54: Which paragraph mentions the importance of abilities and experience in formal schooling? A. Paragraph 2 B. Paragraph 4 C. Paragraph 1 D. Paragraph 3.

(125) Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.. In the American colonies there was little money. England did not supply the colonies with coins and did not allow the colonies to make their own coins, except for the Massachusetts Bay Colony, which received permission for a short period in 1652 to make several kinds of silver coins. England wanted to keep money out of America as a means of controlling trade: America was forced to trade only with England if it did not have the money to buy products from other countries. The result during this pre-revolutionary period was that the colonists used various goods in place of money: beaver pelts, Indian wampum, and tobacco leaves were all commonly used substitutes for money. The colonists also made use of any foreign coins they could obtain. Dutch, Spanish, French, and English coins were all in use in the American colonies. During the Revolutionary War, funds were needed to finance the world, so each of the individual states and the Continental Congress issued paper money. So much of this paper money was printed that by the end of the war, almost no one would accept it. As a result, trade in goods and the use of foreign coins still flourished during this period. By the time the Revolutionary War had been won by the American colonists, the monetary system was in a state of total disarray. To remedy this situation, the new Constitution of the United States, approved in 1789, allowed Congress to issue money. The individual states could no longer have their own money supply. A few years later, the Coinage Act of 1792 made the dollar the official currency of the United States and put the country on a bimetallic standard. In this bimetallic system, both gold and silver were legal money, and the rate of exchange of silver to gold was fixed by the government at sixteen to one. Question 55: The passage mainly discusses A. American money from past to present. B.the English monetary policies in colonial America. C.the effect of the Revolution on American money. D.the American monetary system of the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries. Question 56: The passage indicates that during the colonial period, money was A. supplied by England. B. coined by colonists. C. scarce. D. used extensively for trade. Question 57: The Massachusetts Bay Colony was allowed to make coins A. continuously from the inception of the colonies. B. throughout the seventeenth century. C. from 1652 until the Revolutionary War. D. for a short time during one year. Question 58: The expression “a means of” in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by. A. an example of B. a method of C. a result of D. a punishment for Question 59: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as a substitute for money during the colonial period?.

(126) A. Wampum B. Tobacco C. Cotton D. Beaver furs Question 60: The pronoun “it” in paragraph 2 refers to which of the following A. the Continental Congress B. Paper money C. the War D. Trade in goods Question 61: It is implied in the passage that at the end of the Revolutionary War, a paper dollar was worth A. exactly one dollar B. just under one dollar C. just over one dollar D. almost nothing Question 62: The word “remedy” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to A. resolve B. understand C. renew D. medicate Question 63: How was the monetary system arranged in the Constitution? A. Only the US Congress could issue money. B. The US officially went on a bimetallic monetary system. C. Various state governments, including Massachusetts, could issue money. D. The dollar was made official currency of the US. Question 64: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about the bimetallic monetary system? A. Either gold or silver could be used as official money. B. Gold could be exchanged for silver at the rate of sixteen to one. C. The monetary system was based on two matters. D. It was established in 1792 WRITING Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentences printed before it. Question 65: He is very poor. He can’t buy a second hand bike. > He is so ___________________________________________________________________ Question 66: Students must hand in their assignments before the deadline. > It is essential that ___________________________________________________________ Question 67: It rained heavily, so he didn’t go to shool. > Had it not __________________________________________________________________ Question 68: He can draw his portrait in 5 minutes. > His portrait can ______________________________________________________________ Question 69: It often takes me thirty minutes to walk to school. > I often spend________________________________________________________________ Part II. In about 140 words, write a paragraph about your favourite TV programme you would like to watch most.. ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………….

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(128) ĐÁP ÁN PHẦN I: PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM ( 8 ĐIỂM) MỖI CÂU = 0.125 ĐIỂM. SỐCÂU ĐÁP SỐ ĐÁP SỐ ĐÁP SỐ ĐÁP ÁN CÂU ÁN CÂU ÁN CÂU ÁN 1 D 17 D 33 A 49 D 2 C 18 D 34 C 50 A 3 B 19 A 35 A 51 C 4 B 20 B 36 B 52 D 5 A 21 A 37 C 53 D 6 B 22 D 38 D 54 C 7 D 23 C 39 A 55 D 8 D 24 A 40 C 56 C 9 B 25 D 41 A 57 D 10 C 26 C 42 B 58 B 11 C 27 A 43 A 59 C 12 A 28 A 44 C 60 B 13 C 29 B 45 B 61 D 14 B 30 C 46 D 62 A 15 C 31 B 47 B 63 A 16 C 32 B 48 A 64 B PHẦN II: PHẦN TỰ LUẬN ( 2 ĐIỂM) PART I: 0.5 ĐIỂM ( MỖI CÂU 0.1 ĐIỂM) 1. He is so poor that he can’t buy a second hand bike. 2. It is essential that students hand in their asssignments before the deadline. 3. Had it not rained heavily, he would have gone to school. 4. His portrait can be drawn in minutes. 5. I often spend thirty minutes (on) walking to school. PART II: 1.5 ĐIỂM. Mô tả tiêu chí đánh giá 1.. 2. 3.. 4.. Điểm đa 0.40. Bố cục o Câu đề dẫn chủ đề mạch lạc o Bố cục hợp lí rõ ràng phù hợp yêu cầu của đề bài o Bố cục uyển chuyển từ mở bài đến kết luận Phát triển ý 0.25 o Phát triển ý có trình tự logic o Có dẫn chứng, ví dụ, … đủ để bảo vệ ý kiến của mình Sử dụng ngôn ngữ 0.30 o Sử dụng ngôn từ phù hợp nội dung o Sử dụng ngôn từ đúng văn phong/ thể loại o Sử dụng từ nối các ý cho bài viết uyển chuyển Nội dung 0.30 o Đủ thuyết phục người đọc o Đủ dẫn chứng, ví dụ, lập luận o Độ dài: Số từ không nhiều hơn hoặc ít hơn so với quy định 5%. tối.

(129) 5.. Ngữ pháp, dấu câu và chính tả 0.25 o Sử dụng đúng dấu câu o Chính tả: Viết đúng chính tả _ Lỗi chính tả gây hiểu nhầm/ sai lệch ý sẽ bị tính một lỗi (trừ 1% điểm của bài viết) _ Cùng một lỗi chính tả lặp lại chỉ tính là một lỗi o Sử dụng đúng thời, thể, cấu trúc câu đúng ngữ pháp. (Lỗi ngữ pháp gây hiểu nhầm/ sai lệch ý sẽ bị trừ 1% điểm bài viết.) Tổng 1.5. ĐỀ SỐ 15: SỞ GD-ĐT HÀ TĨNH TRƯỜNG THPT TRẦN PHÚ. ĐỀ THI THỬ THQG - NĂM HỌC 2014 2015 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Đề thi gồm có 05 trang Mã đề thi 13 Họ, tên thí sinh:.......................................................................... Số báo danh:............................................................................... Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others: Question 1. A. cooked B. lived C. laughed D. watched Question 2. A. complete B. sender C. penalty D. bedroom Choose the word whose stress position is different from that of the others: Question 3. A. cover B. demand C. legend D. tension Question 4. A. capacity. B. conversation C. disappearance D. sympathetic. Question 5. A.candidate B .determine adventure. C. attachment. D.. Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence below: Question 6: “You stepped on my toes” – “_______________” A. I’m sorry but I meant it. B. I’m terribly sorry. I didn’t meant it. C. Really? I’m glad. D. Are you sure? Did you take any steps? Question 7: The policeman________________my details. A. took in B. took down C. put up with D. made up Question 8: My daughter is learning to play _______ violin at _______ school. A. a/ the B. the / a C. the / Ø D. Ø / the.

(130) Question 9: I have three brother,________________are professional athletes. A. two of them B. two of that C. two of who D. two of whom Question10: If I__________________in her position, I could turn down the job. A. am B. had been C. will be D. were Question 11: I don’t like _____ when I am not there. A. criticizing B. being criticized C. to criticize D. to be criticized Question 12: The government should take _______ to reduce the current high unemployment rate. A. solutions B. changes C. steps D. measures Question 13: Let me know immediately if you hear any______________news. A. further B. farther C. furthest D. farthest Question 14: My friend often shows her ________ whenever I have troubles. A. sympathetic B. sympathize C. sympathetically D. sympathy Question 15: I _________a small fortune when my uncle died but I managed to squander most of it. I’m ashamed to say. A. came up with B. came into C. came out D. came in for Question 16: _______ appears considerably larger at the horizon than it does overhead is merely an optical illusion. A. When the Moon B. That the Moon C. The Moon D. The Moon which Question 17: We bought some _______. A. German lovely old glasses B. old lovely German glasses C. German old lovely glasses D. lovely old German glasses Question 18: A good teacher should treat all her students on the same _________ A. views B. positions C. attitudes D. terms Question 19: I thought you said she was going away the next Sunday,_______ ? A. wasn't it B. didn't you C. wasn't she D. didn't I Question 20: “ _____________” - “I’ve lost my passport”. A. What’s the matter, Linda? B. What’s the news on TV? C. What’s on your mind? D. How’s every thing? Question21: Tom painted his room black. It looks dark and dread. He _________ another color. A. must choose B. should choose C. should have chosen D. must have chosen Question22: ___________ my father sat down for lunch than there was a knock at the door. A. Hardly had B. No sooner had C. At no time had D. Never before had Question 23: The judge ___________ the murderer to a lifetime imprisonment. A. sentenced B. accused C. prosecuted D. convicted Question 24: The harder you work,___________ you’ll pass the exam..

(131) A. the best. B. the worst. C. the better. D. the worse. Mark the letter A,B,C,D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions Question 25. The removal of cataracts in the eyes by laser has become a common procedure. A. method B. belief C. improvement D. regulations Question 26. When Americans are invited to formal or informal get – togethers they usually try to make others feel comfortable and relaxed. A. meetings B. conferences C. conversations D. social reunions Question 27. The republic of South Africa occupies the southern tip of the continent. A. takes up B. takes in C. takes over D. takes on Question 28.For centuries, people made up stories about dragons. A. constructed B. created C. beautified D. prepared Question 29. He drives me to the edge because he never stops talking. A. steers me B. frightens me C. irritates me D. moves me Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 30: The peasant’s wife , who have been married for four times, has just had her third baby. A B C D Question 31: It was suggested that Tom studied the document more thoroughly before attempting to pass A B C D the exam. Question 32: After driving a car for ten miles, John suddenly realized that he has been driving in the A B C wrong direction. D Question 33: I often look into new words in the dictionary whenever I don’t know their meanings. A B C D.

(132) Question 34: When I came to the theatre, I saw a handsome American young man standing on the stage. A. B. C. D Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D)) that best fits the blank space in the following passage. Many of the things we do (35) ______ on receiving information from other people. Catching a train, making a phone call and going to the cinema all involve information (36)______ stored, processed and communicated. In the past this information had to be kept on paper (37)______ , for example, books, newspapers and timetables. Now more and more information is put (38)______ computers. Computers play a role in our everyday lives, sometimes without us even realizing it. (39)______ the use of computers in both shops and offices. Big shops have to deal with very large (40)______ of information. They have to make sure that there are enough goods on the shelves for customers to buy, they need to be able to reorder before ((41)______ run out. A lot of office work in the past involved information on paper. Once it had been dealt with by people, the paper was (42)______ for future reference. This way of working was never (43)______ easy or fast. A computer system is much more(44)______. Question 35: A. depending B. to depend C. depend D. depended Question 36: A. that has B. has C. is D. that is Question 37: A. in the case of B. in preparation for C. in the form of D. in search of Question 38: A. by B. in C. with D. on Question 39: A. Be considered B. To consider C. To be considered D. Consider Question 40: A. numbers B. number C. amount D. amounts Question 41: A. stocks B. items C. purchases D. cargoes Question 42: A. thrown away B. torn off C. put aside D. recycled Question 43: A. particularized B. particular C. particularly D. particularity Question 44: A. capable B. effective C. formal D. skillful Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the answer to each of the questions..

(133) Quite different from storm surges are the giant sea waves called tsunamis, which derive their name from the Japanese expression for “high water in a harbor.” These waves are also referred to by the general public as tidal waves, although they have relatively little to do with tides. Scientists often referred to them as seismic sea waves, far more appropriate in that they do result from undersea seismic activity. Tsunamis are caused when the sea bottom suddenly moves, during an underwater earthquake or volcano for example, and the water above the moving earth is suddenly displaced. This sudden shift of water sets off a series of waves. These waves can travel great distances at speeds close to 700 kilometers per hour. In the open ocean, tsunamis have little noticeable amplitude, often no more than one or two meters. It is when they hit the shallow waters near the coast that they increase in height, possibly up to 40 meters. Tsunamis often occur in the Pacific because the Pacific is an area of heavy seismic activity. Two areas of the Pacific well accustomed to the threat of tsunamis are Japan and Hawaii. Because the seismic activity that causes tsunamis in Japan often occurs on the ocean bottom quite close to the islands, the tsunamis that hit Japan often come with little warning and can, therefore, prove disastrous. Most of the tsunamis that hit the Hawaiian Islands, however, originate thousands of miles away near the coast of Alaska, so these tsunamis have a much greater distance to travel and the inhabitants of Hawaii generally have time for warning of their imminent arrival. Tsunamis are certainly not limited to Japan and Hawaii. In 1755, Europe experienced a calamitous tsunami, when movement along the fault lines near the Azores caused a massive tsunami to sweep onto the Portuguese coast and flood the heavily populated area around Lisbon. The greatest tsunami on record occurred on the other side of the world in 1883 when the Krakatoa volcano underwent a massive explosion, sending waves more than 30 meters high onto nearby Indonesian islands; the tsunami from this volcano actually traveled around the world and was witnessed as far away as the English Channel. Question 45: The paragraph preceding this passage most probably discusses _________ . A. tides B. storm surges C. tidal waves D. underwater earthquakes Question 46: According to the passage, all of the following are true about tidal waves EXCEPT that _____ . A. they are caused by sudden changes in high and low tides B. this terminology is not used by the scientific community C. they are the same as tsunamis D. they refer to the same phenomenon as seismic sea waves Question 47: The word “displaced” in line 6 is closest in meaning to _________ . A. not pleased B. located C. moved D. filtered Question 48: It can be inferred from the passage that tsunamis ________ . A. are often identified by ships on the ocean B. generally reach heights greater than 40 meters.

(134) C. are far more dangerous on the coast than in the open ocean D. cause severe damage in the middle of the ocean Question 49: In line 9, water that is “shallow” is NOT __________ . A. deep B. coastal C. tidal D. clear Question 50: A main difference between tsunamis in Japan and in Hawaii is that tsunamis in Japan are more likely to _________ . A. come from greater distances B. originate in Alaska C. arrive without warning D. be less of a problem Question 51: The possessive “their” in line 16 refers to _________ . A. the Hawaiian Islands B. these tsunamis C. thousands of miles D. the inhabitants of Hawaii Question 52: A “calamitous” tsunami, in line 17, is one that is _________ . A. disastrous B. expected C. extremely calm D. at fault Question 53: From the expression “on record” in line 19, it can be inferred that the tsunami that accompanied the Krakatoa volcano ___________ . A. was filmed as it was happening B. occurred before efficient records were kept C. was not as strong as the tsunami in Lisbon D. might not be the greatest tsunami ever Question 54: The passage suggests that the tsunami resulting from the Krakatoa volcano A. was unobserved outside of the Indonesian islands B. resulted in little damage C. was far more destructive close to the source than far away D. caused volcanic explosions in the English Channel Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the answer to each of the questions from. Esperanto is what is called a planned, or artificial, language. It was created more than a century ago by Polish eye doctor Ludwik Lazar Zamenhof. Zamenhof believed that a common language would help to alleviate some of the misunderstandings among cultures. In Zamenhof’s first attempt at a universal language, he tried to create a language that was as uncomplicated as possible. This first language included words such as ab, ac, ba, eb, be, and ce. This did not result in a workable language in that these monosyllabic words, though short, were not easy to understand or to retain. Next, Zamenhof tried a different way of constructing a simplified language. He made the words in his language sound like words that people already knew, but he simplified the grammar tremendously. One example of how he simplified the language can be seen in the suffixes: all nouns in this language end in o, as in the noun amiko, which means “friend”, and all adjectives end in -a, as in the adjective bela, which means “pretty”. Another example of the simplified language can be seen in the prefix.

(135) mal-, which makes a word opposite in meaning; the word malamiko therefore means “enemy”, and the word malbela therefore means “ugly” in Zamenhof’s language. In 1887, Zamenhof wrote a description of this language and published it. He used a pen name, Dr. Esperanto, when signing the book. He selected the name Esperanto because this word means “a person who hopes” in his language. Esperanto clubs began popping up throughout Europe, and by 1950, Esperanto had spread from Europe to America and Asia. In 1905, the First World Congress of Esperanto took place in France, with approximately700 attendees from 20 different countries. Congresses were held annually for nine years, and 4,000 attendees were registered for the Tenth World Esperanto Congress scheduled for 1914, when World War I erupted and forced its cancellation. Esperanto has had its ups and downs in the period since World War I. Today, years after it was introduced, it is estimated that perhaps a quarter of a million people are fluent in it. This may seem like a large number, but it is really quite small when compared with the billion English speakers and billion Mandarin Chinese speakers in today’s world. Current advocates would like to see its use grow considerably and are taking steps to try to make this happen. Question 55: The topic of this passage is A. a language developed in the last few years B. one man’s efforts to create a universal language C. using language to communicate internationally D. how language can be improve Question 56: According to the passage, Zamenhof wanted to create a universal language A. to provide a more complex language B. to create one world culture C. to resolve cultural differences D. to build a name for himself Question 57: It can be inferred from the passage that the Esperanto word malespera means A. hopelessness B. hopeless C. hope D. hopeful Question 58: The expression “popping up” in line 17 could best be replaced by A. hiding B. shouting C. leaping D. opening Question 59: It can be inferred from the passage that the Third World Congress of Esperanto took place A. in 1909 B. in 1907 C. in 1913 D. in 1905 Question 60: According to the passage, what happened to the Tenth World Esperanto Congress? A. It was scheduled for 1915 B. It had attendees from20 countries C. It never took place D. It had 4,000 attendees Question 61: The expression “ups and downs” in line 23 is closest in meaning to A. takeoffs and landings B. floors and ceilings C. highs and lows D. tops and bottoms.

(136) Question 62: Which paragraph describes the predecessor to Esperanto? A. The first paragraph B. The second paragraph C. The third paragraph D. The fourth paragraph Question 63: The passage would most likely be assigned reading in a course on A. applied linguistics B. European history C. English grammar D. world government Question 64: The paragraph following the passage most likely discusses A. another of Zamenhof’s accomplishments B. attempts to reconvene the World Congress of Esperanto in the 1920s C. the disadvantages of using an artificial language D. how current supporters of Esperanto are encouraging its growth WRITING. Part 1. Finish each of the sentences below without changing their original meanings: Question 65: Mary started learning English 3 years ago => Mary has .............................................................................. Question 66: I regret not visiting her earlier. => I wish ................................................................................................ Question 67: “It was very kind of you to help me with the housework ”. The lady said to Jane. => The lady thanked ...................................................................................................... Question 68: She failed the exam because she didn’t study hard.. => Had ........................................................................................................... Question 69: I never intended to go to the meeting => I never had....................................................... ................................................... Part 2. In about 140 words, write a paragraph about one of your hobbies. .................................................................................................................. ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................

(137) ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ................................................................. -------THE END-------ĐÁP ÁN PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM(8 điểm). 1. B 23 A 45 B 2 A 24 C 46 A 3 B 25 A 47 C 4 A 26 D 48 C 5 A 27 C 49 A 6 B 28 B 50 C 7 B 29 C 51 B 8 C 30 B 52 A 9 D 31 B 53 D 10 D 32 C 54 C 11 B 33 A 55 B 12 D 34 C 56 C 13 A 35 C 57 B 14 D 36 D 58 D 15 B 37 C 59 B 16 B 38 D 60 C 17 D 39 D 61 C 18 D 40 C 62 B 19 B 41 D 63 A 20 A 42 C 64 D 21 C 43 C 22 B 44 B PHẦN VIẾT (2 điểm) I(0,5 điểm) Câu 65: Mary has learnt / has been learning English for 3 years. Câu 66: I wish I had visited her earlier. Câu 67:The lady thanked Jane for helping / having helped her with the housework. Câu 68: Had she studied hard, she wouldn’t have failed the exam. Câu 69: I never had any intention of going t the meeting..

(138) II. (1.5 điểm) Mô tả tiêu chí đánh giá 1.. 2. 3.. 4.. 5.. Bố cục o Câu đề dẫn chủ đề mạch lạc o Bố cục hợp lí rõ ràng phù hợp yêu cầu của đề bài o Bố cục uyển chuyển từ mở bài đến kết luận Phát triển ý o Phát triển ý có trình tự logic o Có dẫn chứng, ví dụ, … đủ để bảo vệ ý kiến của mình Sử dụng ngôn ngữ o Sử dụng ngôn từ phù hợp nội dung o Sử dụng ngôn từ đúng văn phong/ thể loại o Sử dụng từ nối các ý cho bài viết uyển chuyển Nội dung o Đủ thuyết phục người đọc o Đủ dẫn chứng, ví dụ, lập luận o Độ dài: Số từ không nhiều hơn hoặc ít hơn so với quy định 5% Ngữ pháp, dấu câu và chính tả o Sử dụng đúng dấu câu o Chính tả: Viết đúng chính tả _ Lỗi chính tả gây hiểu nhầm/ sai lệch ý sẽ bị tính một lỗi (trừ 1% điểm của bài viết) _ Cùng một lỗi chính tả lặp lại chỉ tính là một lỗi o Sử dụng đúng thời, thể, cấu trúc câu đúng ngữ pháp. (Lỗi ngữ pháp gây hiểu nhầm/ sai lệch ý sẽ bị trừ 1% điểm bài viết.) Tổng. Điểm đa 0.40. tối. 0.25 0.30. 0.30. 0.25. 1.5. ĐỀ SỐ 16: SỞ GD-ĐT HÀ TĨNH TRƯỜNG THPT TRẦN PHÚ. ĐỀ THI THỬ THQG - NĂM HỌC 2014 2015 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Đề thi gồm có 05 trang Mã đề thi 18 Họ, tên thí sinh:...........................................................................

(139) Số báo danh:............................................................................... Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. interviewed B. performed C. finished D. delivered Question 2: A. chemical B. approach C. achieve D. challenge Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. polite B. entrance C. attempt D. agree Question 4: A.category B. accompany C. experience D. compulsory Question 5: A. obedient B. candidate C. attendance D. security Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 6:. The passengers had to wait because the plane ______ off one hour late. A. took B. turned C. cut D. made Question 7: A woman can never have a happy married life without _______ her husband. A. demanding B. agreeing C. trusting D.determining Question 8:Johnny sometimes visits his grandparents in the countryside. A. calls on B. keeps off C. takes in D. goes up Question 9:_____ at by everyone, he was disappointed. A. laughed B. Laugh C. Laughing D. In laugh Question 10: The brochure says that the hotel has a great ________ of the sea. A. appearance B. look C. sight D. view Question 11:He had changed so much since the last time we met that I ___________him. A. could recognize B. could hardy recognize C. wouldn't have recognized D. don't recognize Question 12: He's really shy _______ girl. A. by B. at C. for D. with Question 13:Tom: “ Sorry, I forgot to phone you last night.” -Mary: “________” A. I have nothing to tell you. B. Oh. Poor me! C. Never mind! D. You was absent – minded Question 14: Is there _____ for everyone? A. food and drink enough B. enough food and drink C. enough of food and drink D. enough food and drink enough.

(140) Question 15: . Our hotel, ______ is converted 17th century manor house, is very comfortable A. which B. that C. where D. when Question 16: - Maria: “ I’m taking my end term examination tomorrow". - Sarah : “ _______ .” A.Good luck. B.Good day. C.good time. D. Good chance. Question 17: _____ the storm, the ship couldn’t reach its destination on time. A. In case of B. But for C. Because of D. In spite of Question 18: He was the only _______ that was offered the job. A. apply B. application C. applicant D. applying Question 19: Let’s go for a long walk, ______? A. will we B. shall we C .don’t you D. do you Question 20: You should concentrate _________what the interviewer is saying and make a real effort to answer all the questions the interviewer asks. A. on B. in C. at D. for Question 21: Mary asked me whether I _________ the football match on TV the day before. A. would watch. B. had watched C. have watched D. watch Question 22: The people who______ the survey said that they had examined over 1,000 accidents. A. gave B. proceed C. set D. conducted Question 23: No sooner ________ at the bus stop _______ the bus came. A. he had arrived/when B. had he arrived / than C. had he arrived/ when D. he had arrived / than Question 24: Never before ______ in an earnest attempt to resolve their differences. A. have the leaders of these two countries met B. the leaders of these two countries have meet C. have the leaders of these two countries meet D. met the leaders of these two countries . Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question 25: My uncle, who is an accomplished guitarist, taught me how to play. A. skillful B. famous C. perfect D. modest Question 26: He is an honest man. You can rely on him to do a good job. A. take in B. base on C. count on D. put up with Question 27: I couldn’t see what she was doing. It was so dark down there. A. make up B. make out C. make for D. make from Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question 28: The Red Cross is an international humanitarian agency dedicated to reducing the.

(141) sufferings of wounded soldiers, civilians and prisoners of war. A. happiness B. worry and sadness C. pain and sorrow D. loss Question 29: She was unhappy that she lost contact with a lot of her old friends when she went abroad to study. A. made room for B. put in charge of C. lost control of D. got in touch with. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 30: Those people say that it is such polluted air that they can’t breath, don’t they? A B C D Question 31:It is noisy enough in this room, so I would rather you stop shouting like that. A B C D Question 32: Dr. Roberts, the first woman to be elected president of the university, is intelligent, capable and awareness of the problem to be solved. A B C D Question 33: The little boys mother bought him a five - speeds racing bicycle for his birthday. A B C D Question 34:There are many researches show that various species of animals have been extinct. A B C D Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase for each of the blanks from 40 to 49. Nearly 200 of the 1500 native plant species in Hawaii are at risk of going extinct in the near future because they have been (46) ____ to such low numbers. Approximately 90 percent of Hawaii's plants are found nowhere else in the world but they are (47) ____ by alien invasive species such as feral goats, pigs, rodents and (48) ____ plants. The Hawaii Rare Plant Restoration Group is striving to (49) ____ the extinction of the 182 rare Hawaiian plants with fewer than 50 individuals remaining in the (50) ____ . Since 1990, (51) ____ a result of their "Plant Extinction Prevention Program", sixteen species have been brought into (52) ____ and three species have been reintroduced. Invasive weeds have been removed in key areas and fencing put up in order to (53) ____ plants in the wild. In the future the Hawaii Rare Plant Restoration Program aims (54) ____ collecting genetic material from the remaining plants in the wild for storage as a safety net for the future. They also aim to manage wild populations and where possible reintroduce species into (55) _____. Question 35. A. disappeared B. reduced C. increased D. developed.

(142) Question 36. A. guarded threatened Question 37. A. national Question 38. A. prevent influence Question 39. A. wild Question 40. A. so but Question 41. A. contamination D. generation Question 42. A. derive Question 43. A. at on Question 44. A. shelters. B. invested. C. conserved. B. native B. encourage. C. international D. non-native C. stimulate D.. B. atmosphere B. due. C. hole C. as. B. production B. vary B. for. C. remain. B. reserves. C. gardens. D.. D. sky D.. C. cultivation D. protect C. with. D.. D. halls. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.. Until recently, most American entrepreneurs were men. Discrimination against women in business, the demands of caring for families, and lack of business training had kept the number of women entrepreneurs small. Now, however, businesses owned by women account for more than $40 billion in annual revenues, and this figure is likely to continue rising throughout the 1990s. As Carolyn Doppelt Gray, an official of the Small Business Administration, has noted, "The 1970s was the decade of women entering management, and the 1980s turned out to be the decade of the woman entrepreneur". What are some of the factors behind this trend? For one thing, as more women earn advanced degrees in business and enter the corporateworld, they are finding obstacles. Women are still excluded from most executive suites. Charlotte Taylor, a management consultant, had noted, "In the 1970s women believed if they got an MBA and worked hard they could become chairman of the board. Now they've found out that isn't going to happen, so they go out on their own". In the past, most women entrepreneurs worked in "women's" fields: cosmetics and clothing, for example. But this is changing. Consider ASK Computer Systems, a $22-million-a-year computer software business. It was founded in 1973 by Sandra Kurtzig, who was then a housewife with degrees in math and engineering. When Kurtzig founded the business, her first product was software that let weekly newspapers keep tabs on their newspaper carriers-and her office was a bedroom at home, with a shoebox under the bed to hold the company's cash. After she succeeded with the newspaper software system, she hired several bright computer-science graduates to develop additional programs. When these were marketed and sold, ASK began to grow. It now has 200 employees, and Sandra Kurtzig owns $66.9 million of stock. Of course, many women who start their own businesses fail, just as men often do. They still face hurdles in the business world, especially problems in raising money; the banking and finance world is still dominated by men, and old attitudes die.

(143) hard. Most businesses owned by women are still quite small. But the situation is changing; there are likely to be many more Sandra Kurtzigs in the years ahead. Question 45:What is the main idea of this passage? A.Women today are better educated than in the past, making them more attractive to the business world. B.The computer is especially lucrative for women today. C. Women are better at small business than men are. D. Women today are opening more business of their own. Question 46:The word “excluded “ in line 8 is closest meaning to_____. A. not permitted in B. often invited to C. decorators of D. charged admission to Question 47: All of the following were mentioned in the passage as detriments to women in the business world EXCEPT___. A.Women were required to stay at home with their families. B. Women lacked ability to work in business. C.Women faced discrimination in business. D.Women were not trained in business. Question 48: in line 10, “that” refers to____. A. a woman becomes chairman of the board. B. Women working hard C. Women achieving advanced degrees D. Women believing that business is a place for them. Question 49: According to the passage, Charlotte Taylor believes that women in 1970s ____. A. Were unrealistic about their opportunities in business management. B.Were still more interested in education than business opportunities C.had fewer obstacles in business than they do today. D. were unable to work hard enough to success in business. Question 50: The author mentions the “ shoesbox under the bed” in the third paragraph in order to ____. A. Show the frugality of women in business B. show the resourcefulness of Sandra Kurtzig C. Point out that initially the financial resources of Sandra Kurtzig’s business were limited D. suggest that the company needed to expand Question 51: The expression “ keep tabs on “ in line 16 is closest meaning to ____. A. recognize the appearance of B. keep records of C. provide transportation for D. pay the salaries of Question 52: The word “hurdles” in line 21 can be best replaced by ____. A. fences B .obstacles C. questions D. small groups Question 53: It can be inferred from the passage that the author believes that business operated by women are small because____. A. Women prefer a small intimate setting. B. Women can’t deal with money..

(144) C. Women are not able to borrow money easily. D. Many women fail at large businesses. Question 54:The author’s attitude about the future of women in business is____. A. skeptical B. optimistic C. frustrated D. negative Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.. The growth of cities, the construction of hundreds of new factories, and the spread of railroads in the United Stases before 1850 had increased the need for better illumination. But the lighting in American homes had improved very little over that of ancient times. Through the colonial period, homes were lit with tallow candles or with a lamp of the kind used in ancient Rome- a dish of fish oil or other animal or vegetable oil in which a twisted rag served as a wick. Some people used lard, but they had to heat charcoal underneath to keep it soft and burnable. The sperm whale provided superior burning oil, but this was expensive. In 1830 a new substance called “camphene” was patented, and it proved to be an remained expensive, had an unpleasant odor, and also was dangerously explosive. Between 1830 and 1850 it seemed that the only hope for cheaper illumination in the United States was the wider use of gas. In the 1840s American gas manufacturers adopted improved British techniques for producing illuminating gas from coal. But the expense of piping gas to the consumer remained so high that until mid- century gas lighting was feasible only in urban areas, and only for public buildings for the wealthy. In 1854 a Canadian doctor, Abraham Gesner, patented a process for distilling a pitch like mineral found in New Brunswick and Nova Scotia that produced illuminating gas and an oil that he called “kerosene” (from “keros”, the Greek word for wax, and “ene” because it resembled camphene). Kerosene, though cheaper than camphene, had an unpleasant odor, and Gesner never made his fortune from it. But Gesner had aroused a new hope for making illuminating oil from a product coming out of North American mines. Question 55. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a reason why better lighting had become necessary by the mind- nineteenth century? A. development of railroads B. demand for better medical facilities C. increases in the number of new factories D. growth of cities Question 56. The phrase “served as” inline 5 is closest meaning to __________. A. differed from B. functioned as C. rested upon D. reacted to Question 57. The word “this” in line 6 refers to __________. A. lard B. charcoal C. wick D. oil Question 58. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a disadvantage of camphene? A. high cost B. bad smell C. potential to explode D. greasy texture.

(145) Question 59. What can be inferred about the illuminating gas described in the paragraph? A. It was first developed in the United States. B. It was not allowed to be used in public buildings. C. It was not widely available until mid- century. D. It had an unpleasant smell. Question 60. The word “resembled” in line 15 is closest in meaning to__________. A. was similar to B. cost the same asC. was made from D. sounded like Question 61. According to the passage, what advantage did the kerosene patented by Gesner have over camphene? A. Kerosene had a more pleasant smell. B. Kerosene was less expensive. C. Kerosene burned more brightly. D. Kerosene was safer to use. Question 62. The word “it” in line 16 refers to__________. A. fortune B. odor C. camphene D. kerosene Question 63. Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage? A. a description of events in chronological order B. a comparison of two events C. an analysis of scientific findings D. the statement of a theory and possible explanations Question 64. Where in the passage does the author mention the origin of a word? A. Lines 4-6 B. Lines 7-8 C. Lines 12-13 D. Lines 13-16 WRITING Part 1. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. Write your answers on the spaces provided. (0,5 điểm) Question 65: Mr. Smith knew little about the Internet, so he didn’t invest into any computer companies. Had …………………………………………………………………….................. Question 66: I haven’t eaten this kind of food before.  This is the first……………………………………………………………………....................... Question 67: No one has used that door for 20 years.  That door .................................................................................................................................. ....... Question 68: The school I studied at last year was better than this one.  This school isn’t........................................................................................................................... Question 69: The film star wore dark glasses so that no one would recognise him. The film star avoided ……………………………………………………………..........................

(146) Part 2. In about140 words, write a paragraph about the measures of protecting endangered animals. ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... .... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................... --------THE END--------.

(147) ĐÁP ÁN PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM (8 điểm) Câu số Đáp án Câu số 1 C 33 2 A 34 3 A 35 4 A 36 5 B 37 6 B 38 7 C 39 8 A 40 9 A 41 10 D 42 11 B 43 12 D 44 13 C 45 14 B 46 15 A 47 16 A 48 17 C 49 18 C 50 19 B 51 20 A 52 21 B 53 22 D 54 23 B 55 24 A 56 25 A 57 26 C 58 27 B 59 28 A 60 29 D 61 30 C 62 31 D 63 32 C 64. Đáp án C B B D D A A C C D A B D A B A A C B B C B B B D D C A B D A D. II. PHẦN VIẾT: (2 điểm) Part 1.( 5 câu x 0,1 = 0,5 điểm) Question 65: Had Mr. Smith known something / more / a little more / some more about the Internet, he would have invested into some computer companies Question 66: This is the first time I have ever eaten this kind of food. Question 67: That door hasn't been used for 20 years..

(148) Question 68: The film star avoided beeing recognised by wearing dark classes. Part 2.(1,5 điểm):. ĐỀ SỐ 17: SỞ GD-ĐT HÀ TĨNH TRƯỜNG THPT TRẦN PHÚ. ĐỀ THI THỬ THQG - NĂM HỌC 2014 2015 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Đề thi gồm có 05 trang Mã đề thi 20 Họ, tên thí sinh:.......................................................................... Số báo danh:............................................................................... Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronuciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. candy B. sandy C. many D. handy Question 2: A. chin B. chaos C. child D. charge Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. rescue B. matter C. delete D. journey Question 4: A. sensitive B. compliment C. vertical D. assurance Question 5: A. visible B. solution C. surrounding D. arrival Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 6: Don't touch the cat. It may _____ you. A. kick B. tear C. scream D. scratch Question 7: He said, "You ought _____ that library book back to the library" A. take B. taking C. to take D. to be taken Question 8: Don’t worry! He’ll do the job as ___________ as possible. A. economical B. economically C. uneconomically D. beautifully Question 9: My house is _____ from my office..

(149) A. near B. nearly C. further D. far Question 10: During our stay in Venice, we bought a ________ bottle. A. glass lovely perfume B. lovely glass perfume C. lovely perfume glass D. glass perfume lovely Question 11: They have demanded that all copies of the book ____. A. being destroyed B. be destroyed C. to be destroyed D. would be destroyed. Question 12: If the doorbell rings, ____. A. the dog barks. B. The dog is barking C. the dog would bark. D. the dog barked. Question 13: Daisy’s marriage has been arranged by her family. She is marrying a man _____.. A. she hardly knows him B. whom she hardly know C. she hardly knows D. that she hardly know Question 14: _____, the people who come to this club are in their twenties and thirties. A. By and large B. Altogether C. To a degree D. Virtually Question 15: – “We’ll have to hurry if we want to finish this project on time.” “________”. A. OK. But I’ll call you later. B. I’ll say we will! C. I’m tired. I’ll go home early. D. What a wonderful idea! Question 16: The police are _____ an incident which took place this afternoon. A. inspecting B. searching C. looking out D. investigating Question 17: “________.” – “Thank you. We are proud of him.” A. Your kid is naughty. B. Can we ask your child to take a photo? C. Your child is just adorable! D. I can give your kid a lift to school. Question 18: Janet is very modest, always __________ her success. A. keeping down B. turning around C. playing down D. pushing back Question 19: ____my personal qualities, I have experience of working in a multi-national company for three years. A. Beside B. In addition C. Instead of D. Apart from Question 20: Many educationalists feel that continue_____ is fairer than formal examinations A. assessment B. cramming C. judgement D. assignment Question 21: When he retires at sixty, he’ll get a very good_____. A. pay B. salary C. wage D. pension Question 22: It has been conclusively_____ that smoking causes many diseases. A. admitted B. established C. declared D. approved.. Question 23: You thought I did wrong, but the results ____ my action. A. agree B. correct C. justify D. approve Question 24: He’ll be very upset if you ……………..his offer of help. A. turn away B. turn from C. turn down D. turn against.

(150) Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 25: The lost hikers stayed alive by eating wild berries and frinking spring water. A. revived B. surprised C. connived D. survived Question 26: At every faculty meeting, Ms.Volatie always manages to put her foot in her mouth. A. trip over her big feet B. say the wrong thingC. move rapidly D. fall asleep. Question 27: A television ad shows a busy baker with a new computer that the advertiser claims will help him “make dough”.. A. a baking mixture D. bread. B. more customers. C. money. Question 28: He didn’t bat a eye when he realized he failed the exam again. A. didn’t want to see B. didn’t show surpriseC. wasn’t happy Question 29: The situation seems to be changing minute by minute A. very rapidly B. from time to tme C. again and again. D. didn’t care D. time after time.. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 30: The children were playing last night outdoors when it began to rain very hard. A B C D Question 31: She asked why did Mathew look so embarrassed when he saw Carole. A B C D Question 32: I’d prefer to do it on myself, because other people make me nervous. A B C D Question 33: Could you mind telling me the way to the nearest restaurant? A B C D Question 34: There was a very interesting news on the radio this morning about the earthquake in Italy. A B C D Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. The tourist industry is (35)_____ to be the largest industry. Before 1950 one million people traveled abroad each year but by the 1900s the figure (36) _____ to 400 million every year. (37) _____ large numbers of tourists, however, are beginning to cause problems. For example, in the Alps the skiers are destroying the mountains they came to enjoy. Even parts of Mount Everest in the Himalayas are reported to be covered (38) _____ old tins, tents, and food that have been (39) _____ But at a time when we have (40) _____ freedom to travel than ever before, more and more people are asking how they can enjoy their holidays (41) _____causing problems by spoiling the countryside. Now there is a new holiday (42) _____called "Holidays That Don't.

(151) Cost The Earth". It tells you (43) _____you can help the tourist industry by asking your travel agent the right questions (44) _____you go on holiday. Question 35: A. regarded B. considered C. seen D. figured Question 36: A. had risen B. rose C. has risen D. were rising Question 37: A. The B. Those C. These D. Such Question 38: A. by B. with C. under D. beneath Question 39: A. disposed B. littered C. thrown away D. launched Question 40: A. greater B. bigger C. larger D. better Question 41: A. apart from B. instead of C. without D. hardly Question 42: A. guidance B. guide C. direction D. instruction Question 43: A. where B. what C. when D. how Question 44: A. before B. when C. as soon as D. after Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Although they are an inexpensive supplier of vitamins, minerals, and high-quality protein, eggs also contain a high level of blood cholesterol, one of the major causes of heart diseases. One egg yolk, in fact, contains a little more than two-thirds of the suggested daily cholesterol limit. This knowledge has caused egg sales to plummet in recent years, which in turn has brought about the development of several alternatives to eating regular eggs. One alternative is to eat substitute eggs. These egg substitutes are not really eggs, but they look somewhat like eggs when they are cooked. They have the advantage of having low cholesterol rates, and they can be scrambled or used in baking. One disadvantage, however, is that they are not good for frying, poaching, or boiling. A second alternative to regular eggs is a new type of egg, sometimes called 'designer' eggs. These eggs are produced by hens that are fed low-fat diets consisting of ingredients such as canola oil, flax, and rice bran. In spite of their diets, however, these hens produce eggs that contain the same amount of cholesterol as regular eggs. Yet, the producers of these eggs claim that eating their eggs will not raise the blood cholesterol in humans. Egg producers claim that their product has been portrayed unfairly. They cite scientific studies to back up their claim. And, in fact, studies on the relationship between eggs and human cholesterol levels have brought mixed results. It may be that it is not the type of egg that is the main determinant of cholesterol but the person who is eating the eggs. Some people may be more sensitive to cholesterol derived from food than other people. In fact, there is evidence that certain dietary fats stimulate the body's production of blood cholesterol. Consequently, while it still makes sense to.

(152) limit one's intake of eggs, even designer eggs, it seems that doing this without regulating dietary fat will probably not help reduce the blood cholesterol level. Question 45: What is the main purpose of the passage?. A. To introduce the idea that dietary fat increases the blood cholesterol level. B. To inform people about the relationship between eggs and cholesterol.. C. To persuade people that eggs are unhealthy and should not be eaten D. To convince people to eat 'designer' eggs and egg substitutes. Question 46: According to the passage, which of the following is a cause of heart. diseases? A. minerals. B. cholesterol. C. canola oil. D. vitamins. Question 47: Which of the following could best replace the word 'somewhat'? A. in fact B. a little C. indefinitely D. a lot Question 48: What has been the cause for changes in the sale of eggs? A. increasing price B. decreased production C. dietary changes in hens D. concerns about cholesterol Question 49: According to the passage, one yolk contains approximately what. fraction of the suggested daily limit for human consumption of cholesterol? A. 3/4 B. 1/3 C. 1/2 D. 2/3 Question 50: The word 'portrayed' could best be replaced by which of the following? A. described B. destroyed C. tested D. studied Question 51: What is the meaning of 'back up'? A. reverse B. advance C. block D. support Question 52: What is meant by the phrase 'mixed results'? A. The results are blended. C. The results are a composite of things. B. The results are inconclusive. D. The results are mingled together. Question 53: According to the passage, egg substitutes cannot be used to make any of. following types of eggs EXCEPT? A. boiled B. poached C. scrambled D. fried Question 54: According to the author, which of the following may reduce blood. cholesterol? A. decreasing egg intake and fat intake B. increasing egg intake and fat intake C. reducing egg intake but not fat intake D. increasing egg intake but not fat intake Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. The goal of Internet-based encyclopedia Wikipedia (www.wikipedia.org) is to give everyone on the planet access to information. Like other encyclopedias, Wikipedia contains lots of information: more than 2.5 million articles in 200 different languages covering just about every subject. Unlike other encyclopedias, however, Wikepedia is not written by experts, but by ordinary people. These writers are not paid and their names are not published. They contribute to Wikipedia simply because they want to share their knowledge. Encyclopedias began in ancient times as collections of writings about all aspects of human knowledge. The word itself comes from ancient Greek, and means “a complete general education”. Real popularity for encyclopedias came in the nineteenth century in Europe and the United States, with the publication of.

(153) encyclopedias written for ordinary readers. With the invention of the CD-ROM, the same amount of information could be put on a few computer discs. Then with the Internet, it became possible to create an online encyclopedia that could be constantly updated, like Microsoft’s Encarta. However, even Internet-based encyclopedias like Encarta were written by paid experts. At first, Wikipedia, the brainchild of Jimmy Wales, a businessman in Chicago, was not so different from these. In 2001, he had the idea for an Internet-based encyclopedia that would provide information quickly and easily to everyone. Furthermore, that information would be available free, unlike other Internet encyclopedias at that time. But Wales, like everyone else, believed that people with special knowledge were needed to write the articles, and so he began by hiring experts. He soon changed his approach, however, as it took them a long time to finish their work. He decided to open up the encyclopedia in a radical new way, so that everyone would have access not only to the information, but also to the process of putting this information online. To do this, he used what is known as “Wiki” software (from the Hawaiian word for “fast”), which allows users to create or alter content on web page. The system is very simple: When you open the web site, you can simply search for information or you can log on to become a writer or editor of articles. If you find an article that interests you – about your hometown, for example – you can correct it or expand it. This process goes on until no one is interested in making any more changes. Question 55: Wikipedia is a(n) ____. A. book B. journal C. article D. dictionary Question 56: Wikipedia is written by____. A. paid written B. millionaires C. normal people D. world experts Question 57: The phrase “these writers” in the first paragraph refers to ____. A. ordinary readers B. ordinary people C. encyclopedia experts D. every subject Question 58: The phrase “the word” in the second paragraph refers to____. A. knowledge B. encyclopedia C. writing D. collection Question 59: Microsoft’s Encarta is cited in the passage as an example of ____. A. CD-ROM dictionary B. printed encyclopedia C. online encyclopedia D. updateable online encyclopedia Question 60: The word “brainchild” in the second paragraph of the passage can be best replaced by____. A. born B. child C. product D. father Question 61: The word “approach” in the third paragraph of the passage means____. A. idea B. time C. method D. writing Question 62: The user of Wikipedia can do all of the following EXCEPT____. A. have access to information B. determinate the website C. modify information D. edit information.

(154) Question 63: We can say that Jimmy Wales____. A. became very famous after the formation of Wikipedia B. is the father of Wikipedia C. made a great profit from Wikipedia D. decides who can use Wikipedia Question 64: Wiki software enables ____. A. exchanging articles B. a purchase of information C. limited access D. editing WRITING Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. Question 65: I last had my hair cut when I left her. >I haven’t………………………………………………………………………………… Question 66: The tea was too hot for Peter to drink. > The tea was so………………………………………………………………………….. Question 67: It was the goalkeeper that saved the match for us. > Had ……. ……………………………………………………………………………… Question 68: “I’m sorry, I didn’t call you this morning” Tom said to Mary. > Tom apologised…………………………………………………………………………. Question 69: Immediately after his arrival, things went wrong. > No sooner ………………………………………………………………………………. Part II: In about 140 words, write a paragraph about the value of music in the happiness of man. ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………….

(155) ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………… -----------THE END----------.

(156) CÂU SỐ 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22. ĐÁP ÁN C B C D A D C B C B A A C A B D C D D A D B. ĐÁP ÁN PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM (8Đ) CÂU SỐ ĐÁP ÁN CÂU SỐ 23 C 45 24 C 46 25 D 47 26 B 48 27 C 49 28 B 50 29 A 51 30 B 52 31 B 53 32 B 54 33 A 55 34 B 56 35 B 57 36 A 58 37 D 59 38 B 60 39 C 61 40 A 62 41 C 63 42 B 64 43 D 44 A. ĐÁP ÁN B B B D D A D B C A B C B B C C A B B D. PHẦN TỰ LUẬN Part 1: (0,5 điểm) Question 65: I haven’t had my hair cut since I left her Question 66: The tea was so hot that Peter couldn’t drink it Question 67: Had it not been for the goalkeeper, we would have lost the match. Question 68: Tom apologised for not calling/having called Mary that morning Question 69: No sooner had he arrived than things went wrong Part 2: (1,5 điểm) 1. Bố cục: ( Điểm tối đa 0,4) - Câu đề dẫn chủ đề mạch lạc - Bố cục hợp lý rõ ràng phù hợp yêu cầu đề bài - Bố cục uyển chuyển từ mở bài đến kết luận 2. Phát triển ý (Điểm tối đa 0,25) - Phát triển ý có trình tự logic - Có dẫn chứng, ví dụ…đủ để bảo vệ ý kiếm của mình.

(157) 3. Sử dụng ngôn từ (Điểm tối đa 0,30) - Sử dụng ngôn từ phù hợp nội dung - Sử dụng ngôn từ phù hợp văn phong/ thể loại - Sử dụng từ nối các ý cho bài viết uyển chuyển 4. Nội dung (Điểm tối đa 0,30) - Đủ thuyết phục người đọc - Đủ dẫn chứng, ví dụ, lập luận - Độ dài: Số từ không ít hơn hoặc nhiều hơn so với quy định 5% 5. Ngữ pháp, dấu câu và chính tả: (Điểm tối đa 0,25) - Sử dụng đúng dấu câu - Chính tả: viết đúng chính tả +Lỗi chính tả gây hiểu nhầm/ sai lệch ý sẽ bị tính một lỗi (trừ 1% điểm của bài viết) +Cùng một lỗi chính tả lặp lại chỉ tính là một lỗi. - Sử dụng đúng thời, thể, cấu trúc câu đúng ngữ pháp.. ĐỀ SỐ 18: SỞ GD-ĐT HÀ TĨNH TRƯỜNG THPT TRẦN PHÚ. ĐỀ THI THỬ THQG - NĂM HỌC 2014 2015 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Đề thi gồm có 05 trang Mã đề thi 19 Họ, tên thí sinh:.......................................................................... Số báo danh:............................................................................... Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underline is pronounced differently from the rest. Question 1: A. opened B. believed C. received D. hoped. Question 2: A. garage D. luggage. B. shortage. C. courage. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress. Question 3 : A. interview B. difficulty C. simplicity D. beautiful Question 4: A. arrive B. doctor C. teacher D. offer Question 5: A. biologist B. generally C. responsible D. security.

(158) Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 6: _______ in the atmosphere is the temperature falling below freezing. A. Frost is produced B. Frost produces C. What produces frost D. What is frost produced Question 7: : He graduated with doctorates of _______ and surgery from Florence, gaining the highest honors that year. A. medicine B. medical C. medicate D . medication Question 8: ________ the time passes, ________ I feel ! The deadline of my thesis is coming, but I have just finished half of it. A. The faster / the nervous B. The more fast / the nervous C. The fast / the more nervous D. The faster / the more nervous Question 9: It is advisable that _________ a career objective at the start of his/her resume. A. every applicants write B. an applicant writes C. every applicant write D. an applicant must be writing Question 10: Only when he started working with her __________ that she was intelligent. A. he had realized B. did he realize C. he did realized D. he realized Question 9: We had our house ___________ when we were away on holiday. A. broken into B. broke into C. breaking into D. to break into Question 12: John: “I’ve passed my final exam.” Tom: “____________” A. Good luck. B. It’s nice of you to say so. C. That’s a good idea. D. Congratulation!. Question 13: Jane. “Do you think it's going to rain”. Mary. “_______”. A. I don't hope so B. I don't hope either C. I hope not D. I hope not so Question 14: . ___________all our careful plans, a lot of things went wrong. A. Although B. Because C. Because of. D. In spite of. Question 15: One's fingerprints are _______ other person. A. different from those of any B. different from C. differ from any D. different from any Question 16: Jane wasn’t in when I arrived. I suppose she ________ I was coming. A. may forget B. must have forgotten C. must forget D. can’t have forgotten Question 17: I’d rather you ________too much time surfing the Internet. A. don’t spend B. not spend C. not to spend D. didn’t spend Question 18: She_____$ 20 out of the bank every Monday. A. pulls B. extracts C.draws D. takes Question 19: The last student ____ was John. A. for interviewed B. who is interviewed C. to be interviewed D. whom was interviewed Question 20 : I thought about the problem but I couldn’t ________ a solution. A. come up with B. come across C. come out D. come in for Question 21: “I can’t remember us ever _______, “ replied the stranger..

(159) A. having met B. to have met C. to meet D. being met Question 22: Which sentence is correct? A. We bought some old lovely German glasses. B. We bought some lovely old German glasses. C. We bought some German old lovely glasses. D. We bought some German lovely old glasses. Question 23: I know his name, but I can’t recall it at the moment. It’s on the tip of ______. A. tongue B. brain C. mind D. memory Question 24: The judge ____________the murderer to a lifetime imprisonment. A. convicted B. accused C. prosecuted D. sentenced Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 25: My cousin tends to look on the bright side in any circumstance. A. be optimistic B. be confident C. be smart D. be pessimistic Question 26: I take my hat off to all those people who worked hard to get the contract. A. respect B. discourage C. detest D. dislike Question 27: He drove so fast that I really felt my life was in danger. A. at the target B. in accident C. at stake D. in comfort Question 28: .They decided to postpone their journey till the end of the month because of the epidemic. A. take up B. turn round C. put off D. do with Question 29: The whole village was wiped out in the bombing raids. A. changed completely B. cleaned well C. destroyed completely D. removed quickly Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks. Health is something we tend to (30) ___ when we have it. When our body is doing well, we are hardly (31) ____ of it. But illness can come, even (32) _____ we are young. In fact, childhood has been a very susceptible time. Many diseases attack children in particular, and people know very little (33) ______ to cure them once they struck. The result was that many children died. About a century ago, (34) _________, scientists found out about germs, and then everything changed. The (35) _____ of many diseases was found, and cures were developed. As this medical discovery spread, the world became (36) ______ safer for children. The result is that (37) _________ a hundred years ago, the average man lived for 35 years, nowadays, in.

(160) many areas of the world, people can (38) ______ to live for 75 years. And what do we expect by the year 2020 ? Undoubtedly, medical science will continue to (39) ______. Some people will be able to avoid medical problems that are unavoidable today. Question 30: A. forget B. ignore C. give up D. throw away Question 31: A. awake B. keen C. aware D. concerned Question 32: A. if B. so C. when D. while Question 33: A. how B. what C. which D. when Question 34: A. therefore B. however C. although D. moreover Question 35: A. reason B. origin C. source D. cause Question 36: A. more B. much C. very D. quite Question 37: A. where B. when C. why D. whereas Question 38: A. desire B. hope C. want D. expect Question 39: A. speed up B. advance C. accelerate D. run Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 40: Each of the nurses report to the operating room when his or her name is called. A B C D Question 41: My father used to give me a good advice whenever I had a problem. A B C D Question 42: Students suppose to read all the questions carefully and find out the answers to them. A B C D Question 43: Neither of the men arresting as terrorists would reveal information about his group. A. B. C. D Question 44: Last week Mark told me that he got very bored with his present job and is looking for a new one. A B C D. Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Although they are an inexpensive supplier of vitamins, minerals, and high-quality protein, eggs also contain a high level of blood cholesterol, one of the major causes of heart diseases. One egg yolk, in fact, contains a little more than two-thirds of the suggested daily cholesterol limit. This knowledge has caused egg sales to plummet in.

(161) recent years, which in turn has brought about the development of several alternatives to eating regular eggs. One alternative is to eat substitute eggs. These egg substitutes are not really eggs, but they look somewhat like eggs when they are cooked. They have the advantage of having low cholesterol rates, and they can be scrambled or used in baking. One disadvantage, however, is that they are not good for frying, poaching, or boiling. A second alternative to regular eggs is a new type of egg, sometimes called 'designer' eggs. These eggs are produced by hens that are fed low-fat diets consisting of ingredients such as canola oil, flax, and rice bran. In spite of their diets, however, these hens produce eggs that contain the same amount of cholesterol as regular eggs. Yet, the producers of these eggs claim that eating their eggs will not raise the blood cholesterol in humans. Egg producers claim that their product has been portrayed unfairly. They cite scientific studies to back up their claim. And, in fact, studies on the relationship between eggs and human cholesterol levels have brought mixed results. It may be that it is not the type of egg that is the main determinant of cholesterol but the person who is eating the eggs. Some people may be more sensitive to cholesterol derived from food than other people. In fact, there is evidence that certain dietary fats stimulate the body's production of blood cholesterol. Consequently, while it still makes sense to limit one's intake of eggs, even designer eggs, it seems that doing this without regulating dietary fat will probably not help reduce the blood cholesterol level. Question 45: What is the main purpose of the passage?. A. To introduce the idea that dietary fat increases the blood cholesterol level. B. To inform people about the relationship between eggs and cholesterol.. C. To persuade people that eggs are unhealthy and should not be eaten D. To convince people to eat 'designer' eggs and egg substitutes. Question 46: According to the passage, which of the following is a cause of heart. diseases? A. minerals. B. cholesterol. C. canola oil. D. vitamins. Question 47: Which of the following could best replace the word 'somewhat'? A. in fact B. a little C. indefinitely D. a lot Question 48: What has been the cause for changes in the sale of eggs? A. increasing price B. decreased production C. dietary changes in hens D. concerns about cholesterol Question 49: According to the passage, one yolk contains approximately what fraction. of the suggested daily limit for human consumption of cholesterol? A. 3/4 B. 2/3 C. 1/2 D. 1/3 Question 50: The word 'portrayed' could best be replaced by which of the following? A. studied B. destroyed C. tested D. described Question 51: What is the meaning of 'back up'? A. reverse. B. advance. C. block. D. support. Question 52: What is meant by the phrase 'mixed results'? A. The results are blended. B. The results are a composite of things. C. The results are inconclusive. D. The results are mingled together..

(162) Question 53: According to the passage, egg substitutes cannot be used to make any of. following types of eggs EXCEPT? A. boiled Question 54:. B. poached. C. scrambled. D. fried. According to the author, which of the following may reduce blood. cholesterol? A. reducing egg intake but not fat intake. C. decreasing egg intake and fat intake. B. increasing egg intake and fat intake D. increasing egg intake but not fat intake. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Today we take electricity for granted and perhaps we do not realize just how useful this discovery has been. Steam was the first invention that replaced wind power. It was used to drive engines and was passed through pipes and radiators to warm rooms. Petrol mixed with air was the next invention that provided power. Exploded in a cylinder, it drove a motor engine. Beyond these simple and direct uses, those forms have not much adaptability. On the other hand, we make use of electricity in thousands of ways. From the powerful voltages that drive our electric trains to the tiny current needed to work a simple calculator, and from the huge electric magnet in steel works that can lift 10 tons to the tiny electric magnet in a doorbell, all are powered by electricity. An electric current can be made with equal ease to heat a huge mass of molten metal in a furnace, or to boil a jug for a cup of coffee. Other than atomic energy, which has not as yet been harnessed to the full, electricity is the greatest power in the world. It is flexible, and so adaptable for any task for which it is wanted. It travels so easily and with incredible speed along wires or conductors that it can be supplied instantly over vast distances. To generate electricity, huge turbines or generators must be turned. In Australia they use coal or water to drive this machinery. When dams are built, falling water is used to drive the turbines without polluting the atmosphere with smoke from coal. Atomic power is used in several countries but there is always the fear of an accident. A tragedy once occurred at Chernobyl, in Ukraine, at an atomic power plant used to make electricity. The reactor leaked, which caused many deaths through radiation. Now scientists are examining new ways of creating electricity without harmful effects to the environment. They may harness the tides as they flow in and out of bays. Most importantly, they hope to trap sunlight more efficiently. We do use solar heaters for swimming pools but as yet improvement in the capacity of the solar cells to create more current is necessary. When this happens, electric cars will be viable and the world will rid itself of the toxic gases given off by trucks and cars that burn fossil fuels. Question 55: The author mentions the sources of energy such as wind, steam, petrol in the first paragraph to ______. A. suggest that electricity should be alternated with safer sources of energy B. emphasize the usefulness and adaptability of electricity C. imply that electricity is not the only useful source of energy D. discuss which source of energy can be a suitable alternative to electricity Question 56: Before electricity, what was sometimes passed through pipes to heat rooms? A. Gas. B. Petrol. C. Steam. D. Hot wind. Question 57: What does the author mean by saying that electricity is flexible? A. It is cheap and easy to use. B. It is used to drive motor engines. C. It can be adapted to various uses. D. It can be made with ease. Question 58: What do we call machines that make electricity? A. Voltages. B. Electric magnets. C. Generators or turbines. D. Pipes and radiators. Question 59: The main forms of power used to generate electricity in Australia are ______. A. atomic power and water B. water and coal C. sunlight and wind power D. wind and gas Question 60: The word "they" in the last paragraph refers to ______. A. harmful effects B. the tides C. scientists D. new ways Question 61: Electric magnets are used in steel works to ______. A. lift heavy weights up to ten tons B. test the steel for strength C. heat the molten steel D. boil a jug of water Question 62: The advantage of harnessing the power of the tides and of sunlight to generate electricity is that they ______. A. do not pollute the environment B. are more reliable C. are more adaptable D. do not require attention Question 63: Which of the following power sources causes pollution by emitting harmful gases? A. Sunlight. B. Petrol. C. Water. D. Wind. Question 64: The best title for this passage could be ______. A. “Types of Power Plants” B. “Electricity: Harmful Effects on Our Life” C. “How to Produce Electricity” D. “Why Electricity Is So Remarkable”.

(163) WRITING Part 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it has the same meaning as the original sentence. Question 65: We finished the work in two hours. ( We spent ______________________________________________________ Question 66 : I have tried hard but I cannot earn enough money. ( Hard ________________________________________________________ Question 67. Tom finds it difficult to meet people. ( Tom has _______________________________________________________ Question 68. I regret speaking to him so severely yesterday. ( I wish _________________________________________________________ Question 69. The sky was so clear that I could see millions of stars. ( It was_________________________________________________________ Part 2: In about 140 words, write a paragraph about a leisure activity that you like to do after school. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………….

(164) ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………… ----------THE END-----------.

(165) Câu 1. 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22. Đáp án D A C A B C A D A B C D C D A B D C C A A D. ĐÁP ÁN PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM (8 điểm) Câu Đáp án 23 A 24 D 25 A 26 A 27 C 28 C 29 C 30 B 31 C 32 C 33 A 34 B 35 D 36 B 37 D 38 D 39 B 40 B 41 B 42 A 43 B 44 C. Câu 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64. Đáp án B B B D B D D C C C B C C C B B A A B D. PHẦN VIẾT (2 điểm) Part 1: (0,5 điểm) 65. We spent two hours finishing the work. 66. Hard as I have tried, I cannot earn enough money. 67. Tom has difficulty (in ) meeting people. 68. I wish I hadn’t spoken to him so severely yesterday. 69. It was such clear sky that I could see millions of stars. Part 2:(1,5 điểm). Mô tả tiêu chí đánh giá 1.. 2. 3.. 4.. Bố cục o Câu đề dẫn chủ đề mạch lạc o Bố cục hợp lí rõ ràng phù hợp yêu cầu của đề bài ý Phát triển o Phát triển ý có trình tự logic o Có dẫn chứng, ví dụ, … đủ để bảo vệ ý kiến Sử dụng ngôn từ o Sử dụng ngôn từ phù hợp nội dung o Sử dụng ngôn từ đúng văn phong/ thể loại o Sử dụng từ nối các ý cho bài viết uyển Nội dung. Điểm tối 0,4. 0,2 5 0,3. 0,3.

(166) 5.. o Đủ thuyết phục người đọc o Đủ dẫn chứng, ví dụ, lập luận o Độ dài: Số từ không nhiều hơn hoặc ít hơn Ngữ pháp, dấu câu, và chính tả: o Sử dụng đúng dấu câu o Chính tả: Viết đúng chính tả Lỗi chính tả gây hiểu nhầm/ sai lệch ý sẽ bị tính một lỗi (trừ 1% điểm của bài viết) Cùng một lỗi chính tả lặp lại chỉ tính là Tổng. 0,2. 1,5. ĐỀ SỐ 19: SỞ GD-ĐT HÀ TĨNH TRƯỜNG THPT TRẦN PHÚ. ĐỀ THI THỬ THQG - NĂM HỌC 2014 2015 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Đề thi gồm có 05 trang Mã đề thi 21 Họ, tên thí sinh:.......................................................................... Số báo danh:............................................................................... Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 1: There’s nothing we can do to help the boys, _________? A. is there B. isn’t there C. can we D. wasn’t there Question 2: The more I tried my best to help her, ________ she became. A. less lazy B. the more lazy C. the lazier D. lazier Question 3: Each of us must take ______ for our own actions. A. probability B. ability C. possibility D. responsibility Question 4: I have lost one of my gloves. I _________it somewhere. A. should have dropped B. may have dropped C. had dropped D. must have dropped Question 5: When Carol _______ last night, I ______ my favorite show on television. A. was calling / watched B. called / have watched C. called / was watching D. had called / watched Question 6: -"Let's have a pizza." -"__________" A. Not again B. It doesn't matter. C. It’s a good idea. Question 7: The foundation of all other branches of mathematics is arithmetic,_____science of calculating with numbers.. D. Not really.

(167) A. is the B. the C. which the D. because the Question 8: Phil: You really have a beautiful dress, Maggie! Maggie: Thanks Phil. That’s a nice ______. A. complexion B. comfortable C. compliment D. completion Question 9: “I hear Tom’s always been a bit of a problem” “Yes, he’s the _______ of the family.” A. lone wolf B. black sheep C. lame duck D. red bull Question 10: At first sight I met her. I was impressed with her _______ A. big beautiful round black eyes B. beautiful black big round eyes C. beautiful big round black eyes D. beautiful round big black eyes Question 11: The exercise was ___________ for the pupils to do. A. very difficult B. so difficult that C. too difficult D. such a difficult Question 12: Would you mind __________ me a hand ? A. give B. gave C. to give D. giving Question 13: Our visit to Japan was delayed _______ my wife's illness. A. because B. because of C. thanks to D. though Question 14: Never before _______ such a wonderful child. A. I have seen B. I had seen C. have I seen D. I saw Question 15: Before Alexander Fleming discovered penicillin, many people died ___ A. infected with simple bacteria B. from simple bacterial infections C. infections were simple bacteria D. infecting of simple bacteria Question 16: _______ , the results couldn’t be better. A. No matter what he tried hard B. No matter how hard he tried C. Although very hard he tried D. Despite how hard he tried Question 17: _________ I ask Martha for a date and she laughs at me? A. What should B. What if C. What would D. As if Question 18: I believe that judges should be independent _________ the government. A. to B. from C. with D. on Question 19: He had spent ____ time writing an essay on his childhood. A. a few B. a large number of C. a great deal of D. many Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 20: The pupils haven’t done their homework, what is too bad. A B C D Question 21: George hasn’t completed the assignment yet, and Maria hasn’t too. A B C D.

(168) Question 22: There are many frequently mentioned reasons why one out of four arrests involve a juvenile. A B C D Question 23: The foreign student advisor recommended that she studied more English before A B enrolling at the university.. C D Question 24: Physical therapists help patients relearn how to use their bodies after disease or A. B. C. injure. D. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from others. Question 25: A. loves B. cooks C. joins D. spends Question 26: A. weighed B. laughed C. helped D. missed Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 27: A. tendency B. difference C. importance D. incidence Question 28: A. police B. between C. student D. discuss Question 29: A. experience B. certificate C. enthusiasm D.interviewer Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks THE LATE, LATE FLIGHT TO LONDON Passengers travelling on a flight from Washington to London were in (30)_____ a very long wait. They had already been waiting eight uncomfortable hours to take off, only to be told that the flight was (31)_____ even further. The cabin crew advised passengers to take pillows and blankets from the overhead lockers in (32)_____ to sleep inside the airport terminal. Many passengers (33)_____ their tempers and fights broke out. People shouted and (34)_____ information. A number of the staff panicked and called airport security guards. A (35)_____ lucky passengers were put on alternative flights, (36)_____ about 100 others spent the next day in the airport. Many people missed connecting flights and would be delayed for several days. First- class passengers were (37)_____ fortunate. They were put (38)_____ in luxury hotels and provided with food and drink. Other passengers had to be content with vouchers for a meal, as the airline staff were not able to find hotels with (39)_____ free rooms to accommodate them. One woman carried a silver horseshoe for luck. As she said, “I didn’t work this time!”.

(169) Question 30: Question 31: Question 32: Question 33: Question 34: Question 35: Question 36: Question 37: Question 38: Question 39:. A. for B. at C. on D. with A. late B. retarded C. delayed D. behind A. case B. order C. so D. turn A. mislaid B. lost C. missed D. wasted A. asked B. applied C. demanded D. took A. few B. number C. couple D. little A. even B. despite C. in spite D. although A. still B. many C. much D. more A. up B. off C. out D. about A. much B. enough C. too D. a lot. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following the questions. In the world today, particularly in the two most industrialized areas, North America and Europe, recycling is big news. People are talking about it, practicing it, and discovering new ways to be sensitive to the environment. Recycling means finding was to use products a second time. The motto of the recycling movement is "Reduce, Reuse, Recycle". The first step is to reduce garbage. In stores, a shopper has to buy products in blister packs, boxes and expensive plastic wrappings. A hamburger from a fast food restaurant comes in lots of packaging: usually paper, a box, and a bag. All that packaging is wasted resources. People should try to buy things that are wrapped simply, and to reuse cups and utensils. Another way to reduce waste is to buy highquality products. When low quality appliances break, many customers throw them away and buy new ones - a loss of more resources and more energy. For example, if a customer buys a high-quality appliance that can be easily repaired, the manufacturer receives an important message. In the same way, if a customer chooses a product with less packaging, that customer sends an important message to the manufacturers. To reduce garbage, the throwaway must stop. The second step is to reuse. It is better to buy juices and soft drinks in returnable bottles. After customers, empty the bottles, they return them to the store. The manufacturers of the drinks collect the bottles, wash them, and then fill them again. The energy that is necessary to make new bottles is saved. In some parts of the world, returning bottles for money is a common practice. In those places, the garbage dumps have relatively little glass and plastic from throwaway bottles. The third step is being environmentally sensitive is to recycle. Spent motor oil can be cleaned and used again. Aluminum cans are expensive to make. It takes the same amount of energy to make one aluminum can as it does to run a color TV set for three hours. When people collect and recycle aluminum (for new cans), they help save one of the world's precious resources. Question 40: What is the main topic of the passage? A. how to reduce garbage disposal B. what people often understand about the term 'recycle' C. what is involved in the recycling movement.

(170) D. how to live sensitively to the environment. Question 41: What does the word 'sensitive' in the phrase 'sensitive to the environment' mean? A. cautious B. logical C. friendly D. responding Question 42: People can do the following to reduce waste EXCEPT____. A. buy high-quality product B. buy simply-wrapped things C. reuse cups D. buy fewer hamburgers Question 43: Why is it a waste when customers buy low-quality products? A. Because people will soon throw them away. B. Because they have to be repaired many times. C. Because customers change their ideas all the time. D. Because they produce less energy. Question 44: The word 'motto' is closest in meaning to_________ A. meaning B. value C. belief D. reference Question 45: What best describes the process of reuse? A. The bottles are collected, washed, returned and filled again. B. The bottles are filled again after being returned, collected and washed. C. The bottles are washed, retuned, filled again and collected. D. The bottles are collected, returned filled again and washed. Question 46: The garbage dumps in some areas have relatively little glass and plastic because_____. A. people are ordered to return bottles. B. returned bottles are few. C. not many bottles are made of glass or plastic. D. each returned bottles is paid. Question 47: The word 'practice' is closest in meaning to_________ ` A. drill B. deed C. exercise D. belief Question 48: What are the two things mentioned as examples of recycling? A. Aluminum cans and plastic wrappings. B. Hamburger wrappings and spent motor oil. C. Aluminum cans and spent motor oil. D. TV sets and aluminum cans. Question 49: The energy used to make a can is________ the energy used to run a color TV set for 3 hours. A. as much as B. less than C. not worth being compared to D. more than Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following the questions. You can usually tell when your friends are happy or angry by the looks on their faces or by their actions. This is useful because reading their emotional expressions helps you to know how to respond to them. Emotions have evolved to help us respond to important situations and to convey our intentions to others. But does raising the eyebrows and rounding the mouth say the same thing in Minneapolis as it does in Madagascar? Much research on emotional expressions has centered on such questions..

(171) According to Paul Ekman, the leading researcher in this area, people speak and understand substantially the same “facial language”. Studies by Ekman’s group have demonstrated that humans share a set of universal emotional expressions that testify to the common biological heritage of the human species. Smiles, for example, signal happiness and frowns indicate sadness on the faces of people in such far- flung places as Argentina, Japan, Spain, Hungary, Poland , Sumatra ,the United States, Vietnam, the jungles of New Guinea , and the Eskimo villages north of Artic Circle. Ekman and his colleagues claim that people everywhere can recognize at least seven basic emotions: sadness, fear, anger, disgust, contempt, happiness, and surprise. There are, however, huge differences across cultures in both the context and intensity of emotional displays – the so called display rules. In many Asian cultures, for example, children are taught to control emotional responses – especially negative ones- while many American children are encouraged to express their feelings more openly. Regardless of culture, however, emotions usually show themselves, to some degree , in people’s behavior. From their first days of life, babies produce facial expressions that communicate their feelings. The ability to read facial expressions develops early, too. Very young children pay close attention to facial expressions, and by age five, they nearly equal adults in their skill at reading emotions on people’s faces. This evidence all points to a biological underpinning for our abilities to express and interpret a basic set of human emotions. Moreover, as Charles Darwin pointed out over a century ago, some emotional expressions seem to appear across species boundaries. Cross - cultural psychologists tell us that certain emotional responses carry different meanings in different cultures. For example, what emotion do you suppose might be conveyed by sticking out your tongue? For Americans, this might indicate disgust, while in China it can signify surprise. Likewise, a grin on an American face may indicate joy, while on a Japanese face it may just as easily mean embarrassment. Clearly, culture influences emotional expressions. Question 50: According to the passage, we respond to others by _________. A. observing their looks B. watching their actions C. observing their emotional expressions D. looking at their faces Question 51: Many studies on emotional expressions try to answer the question whether ______. A. different cultures have similar emotional expressions. B. eyebrow raising means the same in Minneapolis and Madagascar. C. raising the eyebrows has similar meaning to rounding the mouth. D. rounding the mouth has the same meaning in Minneapolis and Madagascar. Question 52: The word “ evolved” in line 3 is closest in meaning to __________. A. reduced B. increased C. simplified D. developed Question 53: Paul Ekman is mentioned in the passage as an example of ____________. A. lacked many main ingredients.

(172) B. researchers on universal language C.researchers who can speak and understand many languages D.investigators on universal emotional expressions Question 54: Smiles and frowns __________. A. are universal expressions across cultures B. do not convey the same emotions in various cultures C. are not popular everywhere D. have different meanings in different cultures Question 55: The biggest difference lies in __________. A. how long negative emotions are displayed B. how intensive emotions are expressed C. how emotional responses are controlled D. how often positive emotions are shown Question 56: Unlike American children, Asian children are encouraged to _______. A. control their emotions B. display their emotions openly C. conceal their positive emotions D. change their behaviour Question 57: Young children _______. A. spend a long time learning to read others’ emotions B. are sensitive towards others’ emotions C. make amazing progress in controlling their emotions D. take time to control their facial expressions Question 58: The phrase “ this evidence” in line 24 refers to _________. A. the fact that children are good at recognizing others’ emotions B. human facial expressions C. a biological underpinning for humans to express emotions D. the fact that children can control their feelings Question 59: The best title for the passage is ________________. A. cultural universals in emotional expressions B. ways to control emotional expressions C. review of research on emotional expressions D. Human habit of displaying emotions Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.. Question 60: Roget's Thesaurus, a collection of English words and phrases, was originally arranged by the ideas they express rather than by alphabetical order. A. restricted B. as well as C. unless D. instead of Question 61: In English, the subject precedes the verb..

(173) A. comes first B. comes before C. be in front D. comes after Question 62: Please, Uncle Jack, give me a piggyback! A. a ride on someone back or shoulder B. a small bag C. people who arrived to settle in Bangkok 2000 D. a black big Question 63: To prepare for a job interview, you should jot down your qualifications, work experience as well as some important information about yourself. A. what you have experienced B. your bio data and special qualities C. your own qualities in real life D. what you have earned through study Question 64: The medical community continues to make progress in the fight against cancer. A. speed B. expect more C. do better D. treat better WRITING Part 1.Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the sameas the sentence printed before it. Question 65: I last saw Bob when I was in Ho Chi Minh City. gI haven’t.......................................................................................................................... Question 66: If I won a big prize in a lottery, I’d give up my job. gWere I ............................................................................................................................ Question 67: Working so much will make you tired. gIt is ................................................................................................................................. Question 68: “I haven’t finished the assignment yet. I’m really sorry”. gThe boy apologized ........................................................................................................ Question 69: Even though the team played well, they lost g Despite ………………………………………………………………………………… Part2. In about 140 words, write a paragraph about a famous person that you admire most. …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… … ----------THE END---------Key for writing: 65.I haven’t seen Bob since I was in Ho Chi Minh City. 66.Were I to win the lottery, I’d give up my job. 67.It is working so much that will make you tired..

(174) 68.The boy apologized for not finishing the assignment 69.Despite of the fact that the team played well, they lost / Despite the team ‘s good performance, they lost. ĐỀ SỐ 20: SỞ GD-ĐT HÀ TĨNH TRƯỜNG THPT TRẦN PHÚ. ĐỀ THI THỬ THQG - NĂM HỌC 2014 2015 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Đề thi gồm có 05 trang Mã đề thi 17 Họ, tên thí sinh:.......................................................................... Số báo danh:............................................................................... Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. fare B. black C. match D. calcium Question 2: A. scissors B. sugar C. sense D. soft Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the main strees in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. ashamed B. patient C. trouble D. alter Question 4: A. candidateB. adventurous C. relevant D. applicant Question 5: A. appreciate B. contraction C. suicide D. abnormal Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 6: I gave the waiter a $50 note and waited for my _________. A. change B. supply C. cash D. cost Question 7: I'm going to stay at university and try to ________ off getting a job for a few years! A. stay B. put C. move D. set Question 8: People can become very __________ when they are stuck in traffic for a long time..

(175) A. nervous B. stressful C. pressed D. bad-tempered Question 9: I believe that judges should be independent _________ the government. A. to B. from C. with D. of Question 10: A: “Are you coming on Saturday?” – B: “____________.” A. I’m afraid not B. I’m afraid not to C. I’m afraid to D. I’m afraid I don’t Question 11: He apologized …………..able to finish the project on time A. his colleagues not being B. his colleagues not to be C. his colleagues for not being D. to his colleagues for not being Question 12: I know we had an argument, but now I'd quite like to _________. A. look down B. make up C. fall out D. bring up Question 13: I'm going to set up the equipment in a minute. ___________ give you a hand? A. Shall we B. Will I C. Would I D. Do I Question 14: ______, the workers will stop working. A. Unless the working conditions are improved B. Unless the working conditions aren't improved C. If not working conditions are improved D. If the working conditions are improved Question 15: A: “Good morning. My name is Turner. I have a reservation.” – B: “____________.” A. What do you want? B. Yes, a single room for two nights. C. I haven’t decided yet. What about you? D. What do you like? Question 16: John ____ this task yesterday morning, but I did it for him. He owes me a thank-you. A. must have completed B. should have completed C. could have completed D. may have completed Question 17: ____ had my teacher arrived than he gave us exercises. A. Hardly B. Not until C. When D. No sooner Question 18: They are not ______ to take part in this program of the World Health Organization. A. enough old B. so old C. old enough D. as old Question 19: The room needs ______ for the wedding. A. decorating B. to decorate C. decorate D. be decorated Question 20: In the ______of proof, the police could not take action against the man. A. lack B. shortage C. absence D. want Question 21: Actually, I not only read the stories about princes or princesses in the great castles in the school library_______ in the public library. A. or B. whether C. but also D. either Question 22: ____ furniture needs supplying for the schools in the whole country will slow down the process of the reform of education. A. Few B. A few C. Little D. That little.

(176) Question 23: I wish you ______ to the theatre last night, but you didn't. A. would come B. came C. was coming D. had come Question 24: It was not ____ Micheal Jackson’s death people around the world understood his contribution in music. A. since B. when C. until D. result Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 25: The new cow boy-film catches the fancy of the children. A. attracts B. satisfies C. surprises D. amuses Question 26: Now I understand why you moved out of that house. A. I am surprised B. it frustrates me C. I am intrigued D. it makes sense to me Question 27: It was inevitable that the smaller company should merge with the larger. A. urgent B. unavoidable C. important D. necessary Question 28: Around 150 B.C. the Greek astronomer Hipparchus developed a system to classify stars according to brightness. A. shine B. record C. categorize D. diversify Question 29: Mayo Hospital in New Orleans was so named in recognition of Dr. Mayo’s outstanding humanitarianism. A. exhaustive B. charitable C. remarkable D. widespread Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions Question 30: He was too exhausted that he couldn’t even stand on his feet. A B C D Question 31: There are few areas of human experience that have not been writing about. A B C D Question 32: If one doesn’t have respect for himself, you can’t expect others to respect him. A B C D Question 33: The governor, with his wife and children, are at home watching the election returns on TV. A B C D Question 34: She was used to do shopping on Sunday but now she doesn’t have time. A B C D.

(177) Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. In this week’s issue, our resident film critic discusses the etiquette of cinema going, and the(35) ____ who prefer chewing hot-dogs, slurping drinks, gossiping and rustling crisp papers to actually watching the film. Fair complaint, or just cinema snobbery ? It’s the munchers and talkers, not those who complain about them, who are(36) _____ other people’s(37) ______ pleasures and the (38)_______ seem to me to be selfevident. Junk(39) _______ and even popcorns and choc ices, when eaten in a(40) _______ and possibly crowded space, are inclined to demand living space. They spread themselves about – usually onto other people’s(41) _______ Crisps, peanuts, and boiled sweets make a lot of noise, first when being (42) ______ then when being crushed or sucked. These are definite(43) _______ , especially if you yourself – having merely come to see and hear the film – are not eating and therefore generously(44) ________ your friend onions, mustard and ketchup with the trousers of the stranger in the next seat. Question 35: A. spectators B. observers C. witnesses D. audiences Question 36: A. damaging B. spoiling C. hurting D. injuring Question 37: A. Simple B. natural C. Primary D. elementary Question 38: A.excuses B. accusations C. reasons D. complaints Question 39: A. diets B. meals C. dishes D. foods Question 40: A. confined B.closed C. reduced D. narrow Question 41: A. dress B. costume C. outfit D. clothing Question 42: A. unpacked B. untied C. unwrapped D. unfolded Question 43: A. irritations B. amusements C. anxieties D. inconveniences Question 44: A. exchanging B. dividing C. splitting D. sharing Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following question Although they are an inexpensive supplier of vitamins, minerals, and high-quality protein, eggs also contain a high level of blood cholesterol, one of the major causes of heart diseases. One egg yolk, in fact, contains a little more than two-thirds of the suggested daily cholesterol limit. This knowledge has driven egg sales to plummet in recent years, which in turn has brought about the development of several alternatives to eating regular eggs. One alternative is to eat substitute eggs. These egg substitutes are not really eggs, but they look somewhat like eggs when they are cooked. They have the advantage of having low cholesterol rates, and they can be scrambled or used.

(178) in baking. One disadvantage, however, is that they are not good for frying, poaching, or boiling. A second alternative to regular eggs is a new type of egg, sometimes called ‘designer’ eggs. These eggs are produced by hens that are fed low-flat diets consisting of ingredients such as canola oil, flax, and rice bran. In spite of their diet, however, these hens produce eggs that contain the same amount of cholesterol as regular eggs. Yet, the producers of these eggs claim that eating their eggs will not raise the blood cholesterol in humans. Egg producers claim that their product has been portrayed unfairly. They cite scientific studies to back up their claim. And, in fact, studies on the relationship between eggs and human cholesterol levels have brought mixed result. It may be that it is not the type of eggs that is the main determinant of cholesterol but the person who is eating the eggs. Some people may be more sensitive to cholesterol derived from food than other people. In fact, there is evidence that certain dietary fats stimulate the body’s production of blood cholesterol. Consequently, while it still makes sense to limit one’s intake of eggs, even designer eggs, it seems that doing this without regulating dietary fat will probably not help reduce the blood cholesterol level. Question 45: What is the main purpose of the passage? A. To introduce the idea that dietary at increases the blood cholesterol level B. To make people know about the relationship between eggs and cholesterol C. To persuade people that eggs are unhealthy and should not be eaten D. To convince people to eat ‘designer’ eggs and egg substitutes. Question 46: According to the passage, which of the following is a cause of heart diseases? A. minerals B. cholesterol C. canola oil D. vitamins Question 47: What has been the cause for changes in the sale of eggs? A. increasing price B. decreased production C. dietary changes in hens D. concerns about cholesterol Question 48: What is meant by the phrase ‘mixed result’? A. The result are blended B. The result are a composite of things C. The result are inconclusive D. The result are mingled together Question 49: According to the author, which of the following may reduce blood cholesterol? A. reducing egg intake but not fat intake B. increasing egg intake and fat intake C. decreasing egg intake and fat intake D. increasing egg intake but not fat intake Question 50: Which of the following could best replace the word ‘somewhat’? A. in fact B. a little C. indefinitely D. a lot.

(179) Question 51: According to the passage, one yolk contains approximately what fraction of the suggested daily limit for human consumption of cholesterol? A. 3/4 B. 2/3 C. 1/2 D. 1/3 Question 52: The word ‘portrayed’ could best be replaced by which of the following? A. studied B. destroyed C. tested D. described Question 53: What is the meaning of ‘back up’? A. reverse B. advance C. block D. support Question 54:According to the passage, egg substitutes cannot be used to make any of the following types of eggs EXCEPT____.? A. boiled B. poached C. scrambled D. fried Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Diamond value is based on four characteristics: carat, color, clarity, and cut. A diamond’s size is measured by carat weight. There are 100 points in a carat and 142 carats in an ounce. Each point above 1 carat is more valuable than each point below 1 carat. Thus, a stone that weighs more than 1 carat is more valuable per point than a stone that is smaller than 1 carat. The scale used for rating a diamond’s color begins with “D,” which means the stone is absolutely colorless and therefore most valuable. “E” and “F’ are almost colorless. All three are good for investments. A stone rated between “G” and “J” is good for jewelry. After that the stones take on a slightly yellowish color, which gets deeper as the grade declines. The clarity of a stone is determined by its lack of carbon spots, inner flaws, and surface blemishes. While most of these are invisible to the unaided eye, they do affect the diamond’s brilliance. For jewelry, a diamond rated VVS1 (very very slight imperfections) is as close to flawless as one will find. After that the scale goes to VVS2, VS1, VS2, SI1, SI2, I1, I2, and so on. The final characteristic is cut. When shaped (round, oval, emerald, marquise, pear, or heart), the diamond should be faceted so that light is directed into the depths of the prism and then reflected outward again. A well-cut diamond will separate the light into different colors when the light is reflected. Only stones of similar shape should have their reflective qualities compared, as some shapes are more reflective than others. For example, the round shape is the most reflective. Question 55: The passage is mainly about _________ . A. the cost of diamond B. quanlities affecting diamond values C. how to judge an expensive diamond D. buying diamonds for jewelry Question 56: What can be said about a l- carat diamond?.

(180) A. It has 100 points B. It weighs an ounce C. It cost twice as much as a small one D. It has the same quality as a halfcarat diamond Question 57 : A stone that has no color at all is rated _________ . A. A B. Z C. D D. J Question 58: It can be inferred from the passage that a stone rated ‘H’ is _________ . A. Good for jewelry B. Good for investment C. Very colorful D. Deep yellow Question 59: clarity of a stone A. is invisible to the unaided eye B. affects the diamond’s brilliance C. has spots, flaws, and blemishes D. is determined by imperfections Question 60: All of the following ratings refer to the clarity of a stone EXCEPT _________ . A. perfection B. very slight imperfection C. slight slight imperfection D. imperfection Question 61: It can be inferred from the passage that a diamond which perfec is ________ . A. not used for jewelry B. rated VVSI C. very large D. invisible to the unaided eye Question 62: Diamonds reflect A. the brism B. the depths C. facets D. light Question 63: Two diamonds of the shape ________ . A. have the same value B. can be compared for reflective qualiy C. are usually the same weight D. are equally brillian. Question 64: . Even though they affect a diamond’s brilliance, slight carbon spots, inner flaws, and surface blemishes _________ . A. lack imperfections B. are rated VVS1 C. cannot be seen with the naked eye D. can make a diamond more valuable WRITING Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it.. Question 65: The last time I went swimming was when I was in France > I haven’t …………………………………………………………………… Question 66: I didn’t spend as much money as my friend did. > My friend………………………………………………………………… Question 67: I would prefer you to deliver the package on Monday. > I’d rather……………………………………………………………………… Question 68: This button mustn’t be touched under any circumstances. > Under no......................................................................................................... Question 69: She said” John, I’ll show you round my city when you’re here.” > She promised…………………………………………………………………. Part II. In about 140 words, write a paragraph to describe your head teacher..

(181) ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………… -----------THE END-------------.

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(183) ĐÁP ÁN PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM (8 điểm) Câu số Đáp án Câu số Đáp án 1 A 33 B 2 B 34 B 3 A 35 D 4 B 36 B 5 C 37 A 6 A 38 C 7 B 39 D 8 D 40 A 9 B 41 D 10 C 42 C 11 D 43 A 12 B 44 D 13 A 45 B 14 A 46 B 15 B 47 D 16 B 48 C 17 D 49 C 18 C 50 B 19 A 51 B 20 C 52 D 21 C 53 D 22 D 54 C 23 D 55 B 24 C 56 A 25 A 57 C 26 D 58 A 27 B 59 D 28 C 60 A 29 C 61 A 30 A 62 D 31 D 63 B 32 B 64 C PHẦN VIẾT (2 điểm) I .(0,5 điểm) 65. I haven’t been swimming since I was in France/gone swimming since I was in France 66. My friend spent more money than I did. 67. I’d rather you delivered the package on Monday..

(184) 68. Under no circumstances should this button be touched. 69. She promised to show John round her city. II. (1,5 điểm) Mô tả tiêu chí đánh giá Điểm tối 1. Bố cục 0,4 o Câu đề dẫn chủ đề mạch lạc o Bố cục hợp lí rõ ràng phù hợp yêu cầu của đề bài ý 2. Phát triển 0,2 5 o Phát triển ý có trình tự logic o Có dẫn chứng, ví dụ, … đủ để bảo vệ ý kiến 3. Sử dụng ngôn từ 0,3 o Sử dụng ngôn từ phù hợp nội dung o Sử dụng ngôn từ đúng văn phong/ thể loại o Sử dụng từ nối các ý cho bài viết uyển 4. Nội dung 0,3 o Đủ thuyết phục người đọc o Đủ dẫn chứng, ví dụ, lập luận o Độ dài: Số từ không nhiều hơn hoặc ít hơn 5. Ngữ pháp, dấu câu, và chính tả: 0,2 o Sử dụng đúng dấu câu o Chính tả: Viết đúng chính tả Lỗi chính tả gây hiểu nhầm/ sai lệch ý sẽ bị tính một lỗi (trừ 1% điểm của bài viết) Cùng một lỗi chính tả lặp lại chỉ tính là Tổng 1,5 ĐỀ SỐ 21: SỞ GD-ĐT HÀ TĨNH TRƯỜNG THPT TRẦN PHÚ. ĐỀ THI THỬ THQG - NĂM HỌC 2014 2015 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Đề thi gồm có 05 trang Mã đề thi 15 Họ, tên thí sinh:.......................................................................... Số báo danh:............................................................................... Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others in the group.. Question 1: A. honest heiress. B. home. C. vehicles. D..

(185) Question 2: A. books. B. carrots. C. floors. D. slopes. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following word. Question 3: A. blackboard B. listen C. between D. student Question 4: A. company B. atmosphere C. customer D. employment Question 5: A. institution B. university C. preferential D. indicative Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 6: When friends insist on ______ expensive gifts, it makes most people uncomfortable. A. them to accept B. they accepting C. their accepting D. they accept Question 7: John lost the _______ bicycle he bought last week and his parents were very angry with him because of his carelessness. A. beautiful Japanese blue new B. beautiful new blue Japanese C. new beautiful blue Japanese D. Japanese beautiful new blue. Question 8: Dr. Evans has _________ a valuable contribution to the life of the school. A. done. B. created. C. caused. D. made. Question 9: Look! The yard is wet. It______ last night. A. must have rained B. couldn't have rained C. must rain D. should have rained Question 10: Shy people often find difficult to__________ group discussion. A. take part in B. get on with C. take place in D. get in touch with Question 11: They asked me a lot of questions, __________I couldn't answer. A. much of which B. both of them C. neither of which D. most of which Question 12: I walked away as calmly as I could. __________, they would have thought I was a thief. A. In case B. If so C. Or else D. Owing to Question 13: Not until the end of the 19th century ______ become a scientific discipline. A. plant breeding has B. did plant breeding C. plant breeding had D. has plant breeding. Question 14: Last year she earned _______ her brother. A. twice as much as B. twice more than C. twice as many as more as. D. twice as. Question 15: - Linda: “I've passed my driving test.". -Peter: “__________” A. Congratulations! B. That's a good idea C. It's nice of you to say so. D. Do you? Question 16: __________the storm, the ship couldn't reach its destination on time. A. Because of B. In case of C. In spite of D. But for Question 17: -Lan: "Happy birthday! This is a small present for you." - Nga: “__________”.

(186) A. What a pity! B. How terrible! C. Have a good time! D. How beautiful it is! Thanks. Question 18: Just keep________ on the baby while I cook the supper, will you? A. a look B. a glance C. an eye D. a care Question 19: Remember to appreciate what your friends do for you. You shouldn’t take them_______. A. as a rule B. as usual C. out of habit D. for granted Question 20: The twins look so much alike that almost no one can____ them____ A. take/apart B. tell/away C. tell/apart D. take/on Question 21: The players’ protests_____ no difference to the referee’s decision at all A. did B. made C. caused D. created Question 22: Books are a wonderful__________of knowledge and pleasure. A. way B. information C. source D. type Question 23: Western women are more ________ than Asian women A. depend B. independent C. independently D. dependent Question 24: Unfortunately, the company closed down because it couldn’t keep___ with rapidly changing technology A. speed B. time C. fast D. pace Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is closest in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question 25: The famous racehorse Secretariat had to be destroyed because of a painful, incurable hoof disease. A. irreparable B. vexatious C. dangerous D. disabling Question 26: In most countries, compulsory military service does not apply to women. A. superior B. mandatory C. beneficial D. constructive Question 27: Scientists warn of the impending extinction of many species of plants and animals. A. irrefutable B. imminent C. formidable D. absolute Question 28: The aircraft carrier is indispensable in naval operations against sea or shore based enemies. A. unique B. novel C. vital D. exotic.

(187) Question 29 : The use of lasers in surgery has become relatively commonplace in recent years. A. absolutely B. relevantly C. comparatively D. almost Each of the following sentences has four underlined words or phrases marked A, B, C, and D. Choose the word or phrase which be changed in order for the sentence to be correct. Question 30: Paulo has learnt English for five years ago. A. B. C. D. Question 31: Although they always argue with each other, but they are good friends. A B C D Question 32: Thanks to the timely laws, some elephant populations, especially that in southern Africa, A B C have recovered over the last decade. D Question 33: He stopped to smoke because cigarettes are harmful to his health. B. A. C. D Question 34: The professor together with his three students have been called to court. A. B. C. D. Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase to fill in the blank in the following passage.. NEIGHBORS INFLUENCE BUYING DECISIONS However objective we believe ourselves to be, most of us do not judge a product solely on its merits, considering quality, value and style before making a decision. (35)________, we are easily influenced by the people around us. There is nothing (36)___________ with this. It is probably a smarter way to make decisions than (37)________ on only our own opinions. But it does make life hard for companies. They have long understood that groups of friends and relatives tend to buy the same products, but understanding the reasons has been tricky. It is because they are so similar with (38)_______ to how much money they make and what television ads they watch that they independently (39)________ at the same decision? Or do they copy one another, perhaps (40)______ envy or perhaps because they have shared information about the products? Research in Finland recently found overwhelming evidence that neighbours have a big influence on buying decisions. When one of a person’s ten nearest neighbours bought a car, the chances that that person would buy a car of the same brand during the next week and a half (41)__________ by 86 per cent. The researchers argued that it was not just a (42)_________ of envy. Used cars seemed to attract neighbours even more than new cars. This suggested that people were not trying to.

(188) (43)_______ up with their neighbours, they were keen to learn from them. Since used cars are less reliable, a recommendation of one can (44)________influence a buying decision. Question 35: A. What’s more B. Instead C. Unlike D. In place Question 36: A. wrong B. silly C. bad D. daft Question 37: A. basing B. trusting C. supposing D. relying Question 38: A. connection B. regard C. relation D. concern Question 39: A. reach B. come C. arrive D. get Question 40: A. for B. as to C. out of D. about Question 41: A. boosted B. rose C. enlarged D. lifted Question 42: A. thing B. point C. matter D. fact Question 43: A. keep B. stay C. hold D. follow Question 44: A. fiercely B. strongly C. firmly D. intensely Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.. The principle of use and disuse states that those parts of organisms' bodies that are used grown larger. Those parts that are not tend to wither away. It is an observed fact that when you exercise particular muscles, they grow. Those that are never used dimish. By examining a man's body, we can tell which muscles he uses and which he doesn't. we may even be able to guess his profession or his reaction. Enthusiasts of the "body- building" cult make use of the principle of use and disuse to "build" their bodies, almost like a piece of sculpture, into whatever unnatural shape is demanded by fashion in this peculiar minority culture. Muscles are not the only parts of the body that respond to use in this kind of way. Walk barefoot and you acquire harder skin on your soles. It is easy to tell a farmer from a bank teller by looking at their hands alone. The farmer's hands are horny, hardened by long exposure to rough work. The teller's hands are relatively soft. The principle of use and disuse enables animals to become better at the job of surviving in their world, progressively better during their lifetime as a result of living in that world. Humans, through direct exposure to sunlight, or lack of it, develop a skin color which equips them better to survive in the particular local conditions..

(189) Too much sunlight is dangerous. Enthusiastic sunbathers with very fair skins are susceptible to skin cancer. Too little sunlight, on the other hand, leads to vitamin-D deficiency and rickets. The brown pigment melanin which is synthesized under the influence of sunlight, makes a screen to protect the underlying tissues from the harmful effects of further sunlight. If a suntanned person moves to a less sunny climate, the melanin disappears, and the body is able to benefit from what little sun there is. This can be represented as an instance of the principle of use and disuse: skin goes brown when it is "used", and fades to white when it is not. Question 45: What does the passage mainly discuss? A. How the principles of use and disuse change people's concepts of themselves. B. The changes that occur according to the principle of use and disuse. C. The way in which people change themselves to conform to fashion. D. The effects of the sun on the principle of use and disuse. Question 46: The phrase "wither away" in line 2 is closest in meaning to____. A. split B. rot C. perish D. shrink Question 47: The word "Those" in line 3 refers to___. A. organisms B. bodies C. parts D. muscles Question 48 : According to the passage, men who body build____. A. appear like sculptures B. change their appearance C. belong to strange cults D. are very fashionable Question 49: From the passage, it can be inferred that author views body building____. A. with enthusiasm B. as an artistic from C. with scientific interest D. of doubtful benefic Question 50: The word "horny" in line 9 is closest in meaning to____. A. firm B. strong C. tough D. dense Question 51: It can be inferred from the passage that the principle of use and disuse enables organisms to____. A. survive in any condition B. automatically benefit C. change their existence D. improve their lifetime Question 52: The author suggests that melanin_____. A. helps protect fair-skinned people.

(190) B. is beneficial in sunless climates C. is necessary for the production of vitamin-D D. is a synthetic product Question 53: In the second paragraph, the author mentions sun tanning as an example of____. A. humans improving their local condition B. humans surviving in adverse conditions C. humans using the principle of use and disuse D. humans running the risk of skin cancer Question 54: The word " susceptible" could be best replaced by____. A. condemned B. vulnerable C. allergic D. suggestible Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.. Choosing a career may be one of the hardest jobs you ever have, and it must be done with care. View a career as an opportunity to do something you love, not simply as a way to earn a living. Investing the time and effort to thoroughly explore your options can mean the difference between finding a stimulating and rewarding career and move from job to unsatisfying job in an attempt to find the right one. Work influences virtually every aspect of your life, from your choice of friends to where you live. Here are just a few of the factors to consider. Deciding what matters most to you is essential to making the right decision. You may want to begin by assessing your likes, dislikes, strengths, and weaknesses. Think about the classes, hobbies, and surroundings that you find most appealing. Ask yourself questions, such as “Would you like to travel ? Do you want to work with children ? Are you more suited to solitary or cooperative work ?” There are no right or wrong answers ; only you know what is important to you. Determine which job features you require, which ones you would prefer, and which ones you cannot accept. Then rank them in order of importance to you. The setting of the job is one factor to take into account. You may not want to sit at a desk all day. If not, there are diversity occupation – building inspector, supervisor,.

(191) real estate agent – that involve a great deal of time away from the office. Geographical location may be a concern, and employment in some fields is concentrated in certain regions. Advertising job can generally be found only in large cities. On the other hand, many industries such as hospitality, law education, and retail sales are found in all regions of the country.If a high salary is important to you, do not judge a career by its starting wages. Many jobs, such as insurance sales, offers relatively low starting salaries; however, pay substantially increases along with your experience, additional training, promotions and commission. Don’t rule out any occupation without learning more about it. Some industries evoke positive or negative associations. The traveling life of a flight attendant appears glamorous, while that of a plumber does not. Remember that many jobs are not what they appear to be at first, and may have merits or demerits that are less obvious. Flight attendants must work long, grueling hours without sleeps, whereas plumbers can be as highly paid as some doctors. Another point to consider is that as you get mature, you will likely to develop new interests and skills that may point the way to new opportunities. The choice you make today need not be your final one. Question 55. The author states that “There are no right or wrong answers” in order to _______. A. emphasize that each person’s answers will be different. B. show that answering the questions is a long and difficult process. C. indicate that the answers are not really important. D. indicate that each person’s answers may change over time. Question 56: The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to _________. A. questions. B. answers. C. features. D. jobs. Question 57: The word “assessing” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by ________. A. discovering. B. considering C. measuring. D. disposing. Question 58: According to paragraph 3, which of the following fields is NOT suitable for a person who does not want to live in a big city ?.

(192) A. plumbing. B. law. C. retail sales. D. advertising. Question 59: Those are all the factors you should take into account when choosing a job except__________. A.Your likes and your dislikes C. Geographical location. B. The atmosphere at work D. Your strengths and weaknesses. Question 60: The word “that” in paragraph 4 refers to A. occupation. B. the traveling life. C. a flight attendant. D.. commission Question 61: It can be inferred from the paragraph 3 that ________. A. jobs in insurance sales are generally not well-paid. B. insurance sales people can earn high salary later in their career. C. people should constantly work toward the next promotion. D. a starting salary should be an important consideration in choosing a career. Question 62: In paragraph 5, the author suggests that ________. A. you may want to change careers at some time in the future. B. as you get older, your career will probably less fulfilling. C. you will be at your job for a lifetime, so choose carefully. D. you will probably jobless at some time in the future. Question 63: Why does the author mention “long, grueling hours without sleeps” in paragraph 4 ? A. To emphasize the difficulty of working as a plumber. B. To contrast the reality of a flight attendant’s job with most people’s perception. C. To show that people must work hard for the career they have chosen. D. To discourage readers from choosing a career as a flight attendant. Question 64: According to the passage, which of the following is true ? A. To make a lot of money, you should not take a job with a low starting salary. B. To make lots of money, you should rule out all factory jobs. C. If you want an easy and glamorous lifestyle, you should consider becoming flight attendant.

(193) D. Your initial view of certain careers may not be accurate. WRITING Part I: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. Question 65: I spend half an hour travelling to work by motorbike everyday. > It takes…………………………………………………………………………………… ……………… Question 66: “ Can you give me a ride to school ?” > He asked his friend……………………………………………………………………………………. .. Question 67: We can’t have breakfast in the garden because it is very cold. > It is so……………………………………………………………………………………… ………….. Question 68: I’ve never met a more intelligent man than him. > He……………………………………………………………………………………… ……………….. Question 69: Without skilful surgery he would not have survived the operation. > But for ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………. Part II: In about 140 words, write a paragraph about one of your idols. ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………… ----------THE END----------.

(194) ĐÁP ÁN PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM (8 điểm) Câu số Đáp án Câu số Đáp án Câu số Đáp án 1 B 23 B 45 B 2 C 24 D 46 D 3 C 25 A 47 D 4 D 26 B 48 B 5 C 27 B 49 D 6 C 28 C 50 C 7 B 29 C 51 A 8 D 30 D 52 A 9 A 31 D 53 C 10 A 32 C 54 B 11 D 33 A 55 B 12 C 34 C 56 A 13 B 35 B 57 A 14 A 36 A 58 D 15 A 37 D 59 C 16 B 38 B 60 C 17 D 39 C 61 A 18 C 40 C 62 C 19 D 41 B 63 B 20 C 42 C 64 D 21 B 43 A 22 C 44 B PHẦN VIẾT(2 điểm) I (0,5 điểm) Câu 65: It takes me half an hour to travell to work by motorbike everyday. Câu 66: He asked his friend to give him a ride to school/He asked his friend if (whether) he (she) could give him a ride to school. Câu 67: It is so cold that we can’t have breakfast in the garden. Câu 68: He is the most intelligent man I have ever met Câu 69: But for skilful surgery he would not have survived the operation. II. (1.5 điểm) Mô tả tiêu chí đánh giá Điểm tối đa 1. Bố cục 0.40 o Câu đề dẫn chủ đề mạch lạc o Bố cục hợp lí rõ ràng phù hợp yêu cầu của đề bài o Bố cục uyển chuyển từ mở bài đến kết luận 2. Phát triển ý 0.25 o Phát triển ý có trình tự logic o Có dẫn chứng, ví dụ, … đủ để bảo vệ ý kiến của mình.

(195) 3.. 4.. 5.. Sử dụng ngôn ngữ o Sử dụng ngôn từ phù hợp nội dung o Sử dụng ngôn từ đúng văn phong/ thể loại o Sử dụng từ nối các ý cho bài viết uyển chuyển Nội dung o Đủ thuyết phục người đọc o Đủ dẫn chứng, ví dụ, lập luận o Độ dài: Số từ không nhiều hơn hoặc ít hơn so với quy định 5% Ngữ pháp, dấu câu và chính tả o Sử dụng đúng dấu câu o Chính tả: Viết đúng chính tả _ Lỗi chính tả gây hiểu nhầm/ sai lệch ý sẽ bị tính một lỗi (trừ 1% điểm của bài viết) _ Cùng một lỗi chính tả lặp lại chỉ tính là một lỗi o Sử dụng đúng thời, thể, cấu trúc câu đúng ngữ pháp. (Lỗi ngữ pháp gây hiểu nhầm/ sai lệch ý sẽ bị trừ 1% điểm bài viết.) Tổng. 0.30. 0.30. 0.25. 1.5. ĐỀ SỐ 22: SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO THANH HÓA ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC. Số báo danh. ……………….. KỲ THI KHẢO SÁT CHẤT LƯỢNG LỚP 12 TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM HỌC 2014 - 2015 Môn: TIẾNG ANH ─ Chương trình chuẩn Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút. (Không kể thời gian giao đề) (Đề thi có 05 trang) Mã đề thi 263. Họ, tên thí sinh: ……………………………………………… I. MULTIPLE CHOICES (64 Questions; 8.0 points) Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks. One of the most urgent environmental problems in the world today is the shortage of clean water. Having clean drinking water is a basic human right. But acid rain, (1) ________ pollution and garbage have made many sources of water undrinkable. Lakes, reservoirs and even entire seas have become vast pools (2) ________ poison. Lake Baikal in Russia is one of the largest lakes in the world. It (3) ________ a rich variety of animals and plants, including 1,300 rare species that do not exist (4) ________ else in the world. But they are being destroyed by the massive volumes of toxic.

(196) effluent which (5) _______ into the lake every day. Even where law existed, the government did not have the power to enforce them. Most industries simply ignore the regulations. The Mediterranean Sea (6) ________ 1% of the world's water surface. But it is the dumping (7) ________ for 50% of all marine pollution. Almost 16 countries regularly throw industrial wastes a few miles (8) ________ shore. Water is free to everyone. A few years ago, people thought that the supply of clean water in the world was limitless. Today, many water supplies have been (9) ________ by pollution and sewage. Clean water is now scarce, and we are at last beginning to respect this precious (10) ________. We should do something now. (Source: v14ilovetranslation.com) Question 1: A. industrious B. industry C. industrial D. industrialized Question 2: A. on B. in C. of D. to Question 3: A. composes B. contains C. encloses D. consists Question 4: A. where B. somewhere C. everywhere D. anywhere Question 5: A. stay B. pour C. boil D. burn Question 6: A. makes B. occupies C. comprises D. holds Question 7: A. shore B. land C. ground D. soil Question 8: A. away B. of C. on D. off Question 9: A. ruined B. kept C. made D. conserved Question 10:A. well B. outlet C. nature D. source Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Ever since humans inhabited the earth, they have made use of various forms of communication. Generally, this expression of thoughts and feelings has been in the form of oral speech. When there is a language barrier, communication is accomplished through sign language in which motions stand for letters, words, and ideas. Tourists, the deaf, and the mute have had to resort to this form of expression. Many of these symbols of whole words are very picturesque and exact and can be used internationally; spelling, however, cannot. Body language transmits ideas or thoughts by certain actions, either intentionally or unintentionally. A wink can be a way of flirting or indicating that the party is only joking. A nod signifies approval, while shaking the head indicates a negative reaction. Other forms of nonlinguistic language can be found in Braille (a system of raised dots read with the fingertips), signal flags, Morse code, and smoke signals. Road maps and picture signs also guide, warn, and instruct people. While verbalization is the most common form of language, other systems and techniques also express human thoughts and feelings. (Source: TOEFL Reading) Question 11: Which of the following best summarizes this passage? A. When language is a barrier, people will find other forms of communication. B. Everybody uses only one form of communication. C. Nonlinguistic language is invaluable to foreigners. D. Although other forms of communication exist, verbalization is the fastest. Question 12: The word "these" in paragraph1 refers to A. tourists B. the deaf and the mute C. thoughts and feelings D. sign language motions Question 13: All of the following statements are true EXCEPT A. there are many forms of communication in existence today B. verbalization is the most common form of communication C. the deaf and mute use an oral form of communication D. ideas and thoughts can be transmitted by body language.

(197) Question 14: Which form other than oral speech would be most commonly used among blind people? A. Picture signs B. Braille C. Body language D. Signal flags Question 15: How many different forms of communication are mentioned here? A. 5 B. 7 C. 9 D. 11 Question 16: The word "wink" in paragraph 2 means most nearly the same as A. close one eye briefly B. close two eyes briefly C. bob the head up and down D. shake the head from side to side Question 17: Sign language is said to be very picturesque and exact and can be used internationally EXCEPT for A. spelling B. ideas C. whole words D. expressions Question 18: People need to communicate in order to A. create language barriers B. keep from reading with their fingertips C. be picturesque and exact D. express thoughts and feelings Question 19: What is the best title for the passage? A. The Important of Sign Language B. The Many Forms of Communication C. Ways of Expressing Feelings D. Picturesque Symbols of Communication Question 20: Who would be MOST likely to use Morse code? A. A scientist B. An airline pilot C. A spy D. A telegrapher. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions. Question 21: A. players B. always C. rejects D. confides Question 22: A. walked B. involved C. missed D. jumped Question 23: A. deal B. clear C. heat D. appeal Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question 24: We spent the entire day looking for a new hotel. A. the long day B. day after day C. all day long D. all long day Question 25: Thanh Hoa is well-known for its beautiful beaches and seafood. A. rich B. successful C. honest D. famous Question 26: What do you like doing in your spare time? A. enjoyable B. free C. quiet D. busy Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 27: My brothers love ________ my father in mending things around the house at weekends. A. being joined B. joining C. join D. joined Question 28: Last month I went to visit the college ________ I studied from 1985 to 1990. A. where B. that C. who D. when Question 29: Diana: ‘I didn't know you could play the guitar so well, Toan. Your tune was lovely!’ Toan: ‘________.’ A. You are welcome B. I bought it near my house last week C. You've got to be kidding! I thought it was terrible D. Never mind Question 30: Bob has a bad lung cancer and his doctor has advised him to ________ smoking. A. turn up B. give up C. take up D. put up Question 31: Jack: ‘Can I use your computer?’ Jill: ‘________.’.

(198) A. No, thanks B. Of course C. Well done D. Yes, I can Question 32: The majority of Asian students reject the American ________ that marriage is a partnership of equals. A. thought B. view C. look D. attitude Question 33: A number of wildlife reserves have been established ________ endangered species can have a chance to survive and develop. A. therefore B. in order to C. so that D. so as to Question 34: We will leave for the airport ________ he is ready. A. as soon as B. during C. until D. while Question 35: Did you read ________ book I lent you last week? A. a B. an C. the D. Ø Question 36: If she ________ a car, she would go out in the evening. A. has B. have C. had D. has had Question 37: Traditionally, Americans and Asians have very different ideas ________ love and marriage. A. to B. at C. about D. in Question 38: Olek: ‘Your kitchen is fantastic! Did you do it all by yourself?’ Shaival: ‘No, I ________ by a professional.’ A. had it designed B. have it designed C. had designed it D. designed it Question 39: During the week of national tourism festival, we had visitors ________ from all over the country. A. to come B. coming C. come D. to have come Question 40: The more you practise your English, ________ . A. you will learn faster B. the faster you will learn C. faster you will learn D. the faster will you learn Question 41: I will not be here next week. I am going to be ________ business in Mexico. A. about B. in C. on D. at Question 42: You won't know what to do ________ you listen carefully. A. and B. if C. or D. unless Question 43: If you had taken your dad's advice, you ________ such a silly mistake. A. would have avoided B. would have avoid C. avoid D. have avoided Question 44: Rosemary Dare is a wildlife photographer. She ________ in Uganda for many years. A. has been living B. is living C. will live D. lives Question 45: In some countries, many old-aged parents like to live in a nursing home. They want to ________ independent lives. A. give B. lead C. take D. see Question 46: Mrs. Brown was the first owner ________ dog won three prizes in the same show. A. who B. her C. whom D. whose Question 47: I'm so hungry. Let’s go and get ________ to eat. A. everywhere B. nothing C. something D. anyone Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Rachel Carson was born in 1907 in Springsdale, Pennsylvania. She studied biology at college and zoology at Johns Hopkins University, where she received her master’s degree in 1933. In 1936, she was hired by the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, where she worked most of her life. Carson’s first book, Under the Sea Wind, was published in 1941. It received excellent reviews, but sales were poor until it was reissued in 1952. In that year she published The Sea Around Us, which provided a fascinating look beneath the ocean’s surface, emphasizing human history as well as geology and marine biology. Her imagery and language had a poetic quality. Carson consulted no less.

(199) than 1,000 printed sources. She had voluminous correspondence and frequent discussions with experts in the field. However, she always realized the limitations of her nontechnical readers. In 1962, Carson published Silent Spring, a book that sparked considerable controversy. It proved how much harm was done by the uncontrolled, reckless use of insecticides. She detailed how they poison the food supply of animals, kill birds and fish, and contaminate human food. At the time, spokesmen for the chemical industry mounted personal attacks against Carson and issued propaganda to indicate that her findings were flawed. However, her work was proved by a 1963 report of the President’s Science Advisory Committee. (Source: TOEFL Reading) Question 48. The passage mainly discusses Rachel Carson’s work A. as a researcher B. at college C. at the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service D. as a writer Question 49. According to the passage, what did Carson primarily study at Johns Hopkins University? A. oceanography B. zoology C. literature D. history Question 50. When she published her first book, Carson was closest to the age of A. 26 B. 29 C. 34 D. 45 Question 51. It can be inferred from the passage that in 1952, Carson’s book Under the Sea Wind A. was outdated B. became more popular than her other books C. was praised by critics D. sold many copies Question 52. Which of the following was NOT mentioned in the passage as a source of information for The Sea Around Us? A. printed matter B. talks with experts C. a research expedition D. letters from scientists Question 53. Which of the following words or phrases is LEAST accurate in describing The Sea Around Us? A. highly technical B. poetic C. fascinating D. well-researched Question 54. The word “reckless” in line 11 is closest in meaning to A. unnecessary B. limited C. continuous D. irresponsible Question 55. According to the passage, Silent Spring is primarily A. an attack on the use of chemical preservatives in food B. a discussion of the hazards insects pose to the food supply C. a warning about the dangers of misusing insecticides D. an illustration of the benefits of the chemical industry Question 56. The word “flawed” in line 14 is closest in meaning to A. faulty B. deceptive C. logical D. offensive Question 57. Why does the author of the passage mention the report of the President’s Science Advisory Committee ( lines 14-15)? A. To provide an example of government propaganda. B. To support Carson’s ideas. C. To indicate a growing government concern with the environment. D. To validate the chemical industry’s claims. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 58: Vietnam exports a lot of rice is grown mainly in the south of the country. A. B. C. D. Question 59: Hardly he had entered the office when he realized that he had forgotten his wallet. A. B. C. D. Question 60:Today was such beautiful day that I couldn't bring myself to complete all my chores. A. B. C D Question 61: To attract someone's attention we can use either verbal and non- verbal forms of communication. A B C.

(200) D Question 62: My sister told me that she had met my teacher at the supermarket yesterday A B C D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the rest in each of the following questions. Question 63: A. water B. bamboo C. eject D. defend Question 64: A. opponent B. habitat C. vacancy D. sociable II. WRITING (2.0 points) Part 1. Transformation (0.5 point): Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. Question 65: They are going to build a new school in this area. à A new school __________________________________________________________ Question 66: He can’t give you a lift because he doesn’t have a car. à If he had_________________________________________________________________ Question 67: “I’ll come to see you next weekend,” Nam said to Lan. à Nam promised ______________________________________________________________ Question 68: My book is not as expensive as yours. à Your book is _______________________________________________________________ Question 69: He didn’t know how to swim until he was 30. à It was not until _________________________________________________________ Part 2. Paragraph writing (1.5 point) Suppose you were offered a job with one of the following international organizations: WWF (World Wildlife Fund), WHO (World Health Organization), and the UN (United Nations). Which one would you like to choose? Write a paragraph of 100-120 words expressing the reasons why you choose the organization.. Question 1 Question 2 Question 3 Question 4 Question 5 Question 6 Question 7 Question 8 Question 9 Question 10 Question 11 Question 12. Mã đề 263 1. C 2. C 3. B 4. D 5. B 6. B 7. C 8. D 9. A 10. D 11. A 12. D.

(201) Question 13 Question 14 Question 15 Question 16 Question 17 Question 18 Question 19 Question 20 Question 21 Question 22 Question 23 Question 24 Question 25 Question 26 Question 27 Question 28 Question 29 Question 30 Question 31 Question 32 Question 33 Question 34 Question 35 Question 36 Question 37 Question 38 Question 39 Question 40 Question 41 Question 42 Question 43 Question 44 Question 45 Question 46 Question 47 Question 48 Question 49 Question 50 Question 51 Question 52 Question 53 Question 54. 13. C 14. B 15. C 16. A 17. A 18. D 19. B 20. D 21. C 22. B 23. B 24. C 25. D 26. B 27. B 28. A 29. C 30. B 31. B 32. B 33. C 34. A 35. C 36. C 37. C 38. A 39. B 40. B 41. C 42. D 43. A 44. A 45. B 46. D 47. C 48. D 49. B 50. C 51. D 52. C 53. A 54. D.

(202) 55. C 56. A 57. B 58. B 59. A 60. A 61. C 62. D 63. A 64. A. Question 55 Question 56 Question 57 Question 58 Question 59 Question 60 Question 61 Question 62 Question 63 Question 64. ĐỀ SỐ 23: SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO THANH HÓA ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC. Số báo danh ……………….. KỲ THI KHẢO SÁT CHẤT LƯỢNG LỚP 12 TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM HỌC 2014 - 2015 Môn: TIẾNG ANH ─ Chương trình chuẩn Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút. (Không kể thời gian giao đề) (Đề thi có 05 trang) Mã đề thi 385. Họ, tên thí sinh: ……………………………………………… I. MULTIPLE CHOICES (64 Questions; 8.0 points) Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Ever since humans inhabited the earth, they have made use of various forms of communication. Generally, this expression of thoughts and feelings has been in the form of oral speech. When there is a language barrier, communication is accomplished through sign language in which motions stand for letters, words, and ideas. Tourists, the deaf, and the mute have had to resort to this form of expression. Many of these symbols of whole words are very picturesque and exact and can be used internationally; spelling, however, cannot. Body language transmits ideas or thoughts by certain actions, either intentionally or unintentionally. A wink can be a way of flirting or indicating that the party is only joking. A nod signifies approval, while shaking the head indicates a negative reaction. Other forms of nonlinguistic language can be found in Braille (a system of raised dots read with the fingertips), signal flags, Morse code, and smoke signals. Road maps and picture signs also guide, warn, and instruct people. While verbalization is the most common form of language, other systems and techniques also express human thoughts and feelings. Question 1: Which of the following best summarizes this passage? A. When language is a barrier, people will find other forms of communication. B. Everybody uses only one form of communication. C. Nonlinguistic language is invaluable to foreigners. D. Although other forms of communication exist, verbalization is the fastest. Question 2: The word "these" in paragraph1 refers to.

(203) A. tourists B. the deaf and the mute C. thoughts and feelings D. sign language motions Question 3: All of the following statements are true EXCEPT A. there are many forms of communication in existence today B. verbalization is the most common form of communication C. the deaf and mute use an oral form of communication D. ideas and thoughts can be transmitted by body language Question 4: Which form other than oral speech would be most commonly used among blind people? A. Picture signs B. Braille C. Body language D. Signal flags Question 5: How many different forms of communication are mentioned here? A. 5 B. 7 C. 9 D. 11 Question 6: The word "wink" in paragraph 2 means most nearly the same as A. close one eye briefly B. close two eyes briefly C. bob the head up and down D. shake the head from side to side Question 7: Sign language is said to be very picturesque and exact and can be used internationally EXCEPT for A. spelling B. ideas C. whole words D. expressions Question 8: People need to communicate in order to A. create language barriers B. keep from reading with their fingertips C. be picturesque and exact D. express thoughts and feelings Question 9: What is the best title for the passage? A. The Important of Sign Language B. The Many Forms of Communication C. Ways of Expressing Feelings D. Picturesque Symbols of Communication Question 10: Who would be MOST likely to use Morse code? A. A scientist B. An airline pilot C. A spy D. A telegrapher Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions. Question 11: A. appeal B. clear C. heat D. deal Question 12: A. missed B. walked C. involved D. jumped Question 13: A. players B. rejects C. always D. confides Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 14: I will not be here next week. I am going to be ________ business in Mexico. A. about B. in C. at D. on Question 15: A number of wildlife reserves have been established ________ endangered species can have a chance to survive and develop. A. so that B. in order to C. therefore D. so as to Question 16: Last month I went to visit the college ________ I studied from 1985 to 1990. A. where B. when C. that D. who Question 17: Bob has a bad lung cancer and his doctor has advised him to ________ smoking. A. give up B. put up C. turn up D. take up Question 18: If you had taken your dad's advice, you ________ such a silly mistake. A. would have avoid B. avoid C. would have avoided D. have avoided Question 19: Rosemary Dare is a wildlife photographer. She ________ in Uganda for many years. A. has been living B. lives C. is living D. will live Question 20: Mrs. Brown was the first owner ________ dog won three prizes in the same show. A. her B. whom C. who D. whose Question 21: The more you practise your English, ________ . A. the faster will you learn B. the faster you will learn.

(204) C. you will learn faster D. faster you will learn Question 22: In some countries, many old-aged parents like to live in a nursing home. They want to ________ independent lives. A. see B. take C. give D. lead Question 23: Traditionally, Americans and Asians have very different ideas ________ love and marriage. A. to B. in C. about D. at Question 24: Did you read ________ book I lent you last week? A. an B. a C. the D. Ø Question 25: I'm so hungry. Let’s go and get ________ to eat. A. everywhere B. anyone C. something D. nothing Question 26: Diana: ‘I didn't know you could play the guitar so well, Toan. Your tune was lovely!’ Toan: ‘________.’ A. You are welcome B. Never mind C. I bought it near my house last week D. You've got to be kidding! I thought it was terrible Question 27: During the week of national tourism festival, we had visitors ________ from all over the country. A. come B. to have come C. to come D. coming Question 28: You won't know what to do ________ you listen carefully. A. or B. if C. and D. unless Question 29: Jack: ‘Can I use your computer?’ Jill: ‘________.’ A. Yes, I can B. No, thanks C. Of course D. Well done Question 30: Olek: ‘Your kitchen is fantastic! Did you do it all by yourself?’ Shaival: ‘No, I ________ by a professional.’ A. had designed it B. have it designed C. designed it D. had it designed Question 31: My brothers love ________ my father in mending things around the house at weekends. A. joining B. joined C. being joined D. join Question 32: The majority of Asian students reject the American ________ that marriage is a partnership of equals. A. attitude B. look C. view D. thought Question 33: We will leave for the airport ________ he is ready. A. while B. until C. as soon as D. during Question 34: If she ________ a car, she would go out in the evening. A. had B. has had C. has D. have Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Rachel Carson was born in 1907 in Springsdale, Pennsylvania. She studied biology at college and zoology at Johns Hopkins University, where she received her master’s degree in 1933. In 1936, she was hired by the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, where she worked most of her life. Carson’s first book, Under the Sea Wind, was published in 1941. It received excellent reviews, but sales were poor until it was reissued in 1952. In that year she published The Sea Around Us, which provided a fascinating look beneath the ocean’s surface, emphasizing human history as well as geology and marine biology. Her imagery and language had a poetic quality. Carson consulted no less than 1,000 printed sources. She had voluminous correspondence and frequent discussions with experts in the field. However, she always realized the limitations of her nontechnical readers. In 1962, Carson published Silent Spring, a book that sparked considerable controversy. It proved how much harm was done by the uncontrolled, reckless use of insecticides. She detailed how they poison the food supply of animals, kill birds and fish, and contaminate human food. At the time, spokesmen for the chemical industry mounted personal attacks against Carson and issued propaganda.

(205) to indicate that her findings were flawed. However, her work was proved by a 1963 report of the President’s Science Advisory Committee. (Source: TOEFL Reading) Question 35. The passage mainly discusses Rachel Carson’s work A. as a researcher B. at college C. at the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service D. as a writer Question 36. According to the passage, what did Carson primarily study at Johns Hopkins University? A. oceanography B. zoology C. literature D. history Question 37. When she published her first book, Carson was closest to the age of A. 26 B. 29 C. 34 D. 45 Question 38. It can be inferred from the passage that in 1952, Carson’s book Under the Sea Wind A. was outdated B. became more popular than her other books C. was praised by critics D. sold many copies Question 39. Which of the following was NOT mentioned in the passage as a source of information for The Sea Around Us? A. printed matter B. talks with experts C. a research expedition D. letters from scientists Question 40. Which of the following words or phrases is LEAST accurate in describing The Sea Around Us? A. highly technical B. poetic C. fascinating D. well-researched Question 41. The word “reckless” in line 11 is closest in meaning to A. unnecessary B. limited C. continuous D. irresponsible Question 42. According to the passage, Silent Spring is primarily A. an attack on the use of chemical preservatives in food B. a discussion of the hazards insects pose to the food supply C. a warning about the dangers of misusing insecticides D. an illustration of the benefits of the chemical industry Question 43. The word “flawed” in line 14 is closest in meaning to A. faulty B. deceptive C. logical D. offensive Question 44. Why does the author of the passage mention the report of the President’s Science Advisory Committee ( lines 14-15)? A. To provide an example of government propaganda. B. To support Carson’s ideas. C. To indicate a growing government concern with the environment. D. To validate the chemical industry’s claims. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 45: My sister told me that she had met my teacher at the supermarket yesterday A B C D Question 46: To attract someone's attention we can use either verbal and non- verbal forms of A B C Communication. D Question 47: Today was such beautiful day that I couldn't bring myself to complete all my chores. A B C D Question 48: Vietnam exports a lot of rice is grown mainly in the south of the country. A B C D Question 49: Hardly he had entered the office when he realized that he had forgotten his wallet. A B C D.

(206) Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the rest in each of the following questions. Question 50: A. eject B. bamboo C. defend D. water Question 51: A. sociable B. vacancy C. opponent D. habitat Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question 52: Thanh Hoa is well-known for its beautiful beaches and seafood. A. honest B. rich C. famous D. successful Question 53: What do you like doing in your spare time? A. free B. enjoyable C. busy D. quiet Question 54: We spent the entire day looking for a new hotel. A. all long day B. day after day C. the long day D. all day long Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks. One of the most urgent environmental problems in the world today is the shortage of clean water. Having clean drinking water is a basic human right. But acid rain, (55) ________ pollution and garbage have made many sources of water undrinkable. Lakes, reservoirs and even entire seas have become vast pools (56) ________ poison. Lake Baikal in Russia is one of the largest lakes in the world. It (57) ________ a rich variety of animals and plants, including 1,300 rare species that do not exist (58) ________ else in the world. But they are being destroyed by the massive volumes of toxic effluent which (59) _______ into the lake every day. Even where law existed, the government did not have the power to enforce them. Most industries simply ignore the regulations. The Mediterranean Sea (60) ________ 1% of the world's water surface. But it is the dumping (61) ________ for 50% of all marine pollution. Almost 16 countries regularly throw industrial wastes a few miles (62) ________ shore. Water is free to everyone. A few years ago, people thought that the supply of clean water in the world was limitless. Today, many water supplies have been (63) ________ by pollution and sewage. Clean water is now scarce, and we are at last beginning to respect this precious (64) ________. We should do something now. (Source: v14ilovetranslation.com) Question 55: A. industry B. industrial C. industrialized D. industrious Question 56: A. on B. of C. to D. in Question 57: A. encloses B. contains C. composes D. consists Question 58: A. anywhere B. where C. somewhere D. everywhere Question 59: A. pour B. burn C. boil D. stay Question 60: A. makes B. occupies C. holds D. comprises Question 61: A. ground B. land C. soil D. shore Question 62: A. on B. off C. away D. of Question 63: A. ruined B. made C. conserved D. kept Question 64: A. source B. nature C. outlet D. well II. WRITING (2.0 points) Part 1. Transformation (0.5 point): Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. Question 65: They are going to build a new school in this area. à A new school __________________________________________________________ Question 66: He can’t give you a lift because he doesn’t have a car. à If he had_________________________________________________________________ Question 67: “I’ll come to see you next weekend,” Nam said to Lan..

(207) à Nam promised ______________________________________________________________ Question 68: My book is not as expensive as yours. à Your book is _______________________________________________________________ Question 69: He didn’t know how to swim until he was 30. à It was not until _________________________________________________________ Part 2. Paragraph writing (1.5 point) Suppose you were offered a job with one of the following international organizations: WWF (World Wildlife Fund), WHO (World Health Organization), and the UN (United Nations). Which one would you like to choose? Write a paragraph of 100-120 words expressing the reasons why you choose the organization. A.. Question 65 Question 66 Question 67 Question 68 Question 69 Question 70 Question 71 Question 72 Question 73 Question 74 Question 75 Question 76 Question 77 Question 78 Question 79 Question 80 Question 81 Question 82 Question 83 Question 84 Question 85 Question 86 Question 87 Question 88 Question 89 Question 90. Mã đề 385 1. A 2. D 3. C 4. B 5. C 6. A 7. A 8. D 9. B 10. D 11. B 12. C 13. B 14. D 15. A 16. A 17. A 18. C 19. A 20. D 21. B 22. D 23. C 24. C 25. C 26. D.

(208) Question 91 Question 92 Question 93 Question 94 Question 95 Question 96 Question 97 Question 98 Question 99 Question 100 Question 101 Question 102 Question 103 Question 104 Question 105 Question 106 Question 107 Question 108 Question 109 Question 110 Question 111 Question 112 Question 113 Question 114 Question 115 Question 116 Question 117 Question 118 Question 119 Question 120 Question 121 Question 122 Question 123 Question 124 Question 125 Question 126 Question 127 Question 128. 27. D 28. D 29. C 30. D 31. A 32. C 33. C 34. A 35. D 36. B 37. C 38. D 39. C 40. A 41. D 42. C 43. A 44. B 45. D 46. C 47.A 48. B 49. A 50. D 51. C 52. C 53. A 54. D 55. B 56. B 57. B 58. A 59. A 60. B 61. A 62. B 63. A 64. A. B. Writing: (2.0 points) Part 1. Transformation: (0.1x5=0.5 point) Question 65: A new school is going to be built in this area..

(209) Question 66: If he had a car, he could give you a lift. Question 67: Nam promised to come to see Lan the following week Question 68: Your book is more expensive than mine (my book) Question 69: It was not until he was 30 that he knew how to swim. Part 2. (1.5 points) Mô tả tiêu chí đánh giá 1.. Bố cục -. 2.. Câu đề dẫn chủ đề mạch lạc (Câu chủ đề (Topic sentence) nêu ý chính của đoạn văn Bố cục hợp lí rõ ràng phù hợp yêu cầu của đề bài Có thể có câu kết luận (Concluding sentence) tóm tắt ý chính của đoạn văn, hoặc đưa ra một gợi ý, một quan điểm hay một dự đoán.. Phát triển ý -. 3.. 0.25. Phát triển ý có trình tự logic Có dẫn chứng, ví dụ, … đủ để bảo vệ ý kiến của mình . (Nêu được những lý do về lương, điều kiện làm việc, khả năng của bàn thân, cơ hội cống hiến, đóng góp hoặc những thuận lợi khác mà công việc mang lại cho mình.). Sử dụng ngôn từ -. 4.. 0.30. Sử dụng ngôn từ phù hợp nội dung Sử dụng ngôn từ đúng văn phong/thể loại Sử dụng từ nối các ý cho bài viết uyển chuyển. Nội dung -. 5.. 0.30. Đủ thuyết phục người đọc Đủ dẫn chứng, ví dụ, lập luận Độ dài: số từ không được nhiều hơn hoặc ít hơn so với quy định 5%. Ngữ pháp, đấu câu, và chính tả -. -. Điểm tối đa 0.40. 0.25. Sử dụng đúng dấu câu Chính tả: viết đúng chính tả + Lỗi chính tả gây hiểu nhầm/sai lệch ý sẽ bị tính một lỗi (trừ 1% điểm của bài viết) + Cùng một lỗi chính tả lặp lại chỉ tính là một lỗi Sử dụng đúng thời, thể, cấu trúc câu đúng ngữ pháp.. Tổng. 1.50. ĐỀ SỐ 24: SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO THANH HÓA. KỲ THI KHẢO SÁT CHẤT LƯỢNG LỚP 12 TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG.

(210) ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC. Số báo danh. ……………….. NĂM HỌC 2014 - 2015 Môn: TIẾNG ANH ─ Chương trình chuẩn Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút. (Không kể thời gian giao đề) (Đề thi có 05 trang) Mã đề thi 646. Họ, tên thí sinh: ……………………………………………… I. MULTIPLE CHOICES (64 Questions; 8.0 points) Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Rachel Carson was born in 1907 in Springsdale, Pennsylvania. She studied biology at college and zoology at Johns Hopkins University, where she received her master’s degree in 1933. In 1936, she was hired by the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, where she worked most of her life. Carson’s first book, Under the Sea Wind, was published in 1941. It received excellent reviews, but sales were poor until it was reissued in 1952. In that year she published The Sea Around Us, which provided a fascinating look beneath the ocean’s surface, emphasizing human history as well as geology and marine biology. Her imagery and language had a poetic quality. Carson consulted no less than 1,000 printed sources. She had voluminous correspondence and frequent discussions with experts in the field. However, she always realized the limitations of her nontechnical readers. In 1962, Carson published Silent Spring, a book that sparked considerable controversy. It proved how much harm was done by the uncontrolled, reckless use of insecticides. She detailed how they poison the food supply of animals, kill birds and fish, and contaminate human food. At the time, spokesmen for the chemical industry mounted personal attacks against Carson and issued propaganda to indicate that her findings were flawed. However, her work was proved by a 1963 report of the President’s Science Advisory Committee. (Source: TOEFL Reading) Question 1. The passage mainly discusses Rachel Carson’s work A. as a researcher B. at college C. at the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service D. as a writer Question 2. According to the passage, what did Carson primarily study at Johns Hopkins University? A. oceanography B. zoology C. literature D. history Question 3. When she published her first book, Carson was closest to the age of A. 26 B. 29 C. 34 D. 45 Question 4. It can be inferred from the passage that in 1952, Carson’s book Under the Sea Wind A. was outdated B. became more popular than her other books C. was praised by critics D. sold many copies Question 5. Which of the following was NOT mentioned in the passage as a source of information for The Sea Around Us? A. printed matter B. talks with experts C. a research expedition D. letters from scientists Question 6. Which of the following words or phrases is LEAST accurate in describing The Sea Around Us? A. highly technical B. poetic C. fascinating D. well-researched Question 7. The word “reckless” in line 11 is closest in meaning to A. unnecessary B. limited C. continuous D. irresponsible Question 8. According to the passage, Silent Spring is primarily A. an attack on the use of chemical preservatives in food.

(211) B. a discussion of the hazards insects pose to the food supply C. a warning about the dangers of misusing insecticides D. an illustration of the benefits of the chemical industry Question 9. The word “flawed” in line 14 is closest in meaning to A. faulty B. deceptive C. logical D. offensive Question 10. Why does the author of the passage mention the report of the President’s Science Advisory Committee ( lines 14-15)? A. To provide an example of government propaganda. B. To support Carson’s ideas. C. To indicate a growing government concern with the environment. D. To validate the chemical industry’s claims. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions. Question 11: A. involved B. walked C. missed D. jumped Question 12: A. clear B. appeal C. deal D. heat Question 13: A. players B. confides C. rejects D. always Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 14: To attract someone's attention we can use either verbal and non- verbal forms of A B C communication. D Question 15: Vietnam exports a lot of rice is grown mainly in the south of the country. A B C D Question 16: Today was such beautiful day that I couldn't bring myself to complete all my chores. A B C D Question 17: Hardly he had entered the office when he realized that he had forgotten his wallet. A B C D Question 18: My sister told me that she had met my teacher at the supermarket yesterday A B C D Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question 19: We spent the entire day looking for a new hotel. A. the long day B. all day long C. all long day D. day after day Question 20: Thanh Hoa is well-known for its beautiful beaches and seafood. A. successful B. famous C. honest D. rich Question 21: What do you like doing in your spare time? A. busy B. free C. enjoyable D. quiet Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Ever since humans inhabited the earth, they have made use of various forms of communication. Generally, this expression of thoughts and feelings has been in the form of oral speech. When there is a language barrier, communication is accomplished through sign language in which motions stand for letters, words, and ideas. Tourists, the deaf, and the mute have had to resort to this form of expression. Many of these symbols of whole words are very picturesque and exact and can be used internationally; spelling, however, cannot..

(212) Body language transmits ideas or thoughts by certain actions, either intentionally or unintentionally. A wink can be a way of flirting or indicating that the party is only joking. A nod signifies approval, while shaking the head indicates a negative reaction. Other forms of nonlinguistic language can be found in Braille (a system of raised dots read with the fingertips), signal flags, Morse code, and smoke signals. Road maps and picture signs also guide, warn, and instruct people. While verbalization is the most common form of language, other systems and techniques also express human thoughts and feelings. (Source: TOEFL Reading) Question 22: Which of the following best summarizes this passage? A. When language is a barrier, people will find other forms of communication. B. Everybody uses only one form of communication. C. Nonlinguistic language is invaluable to foreigners. D. Although other forms of communication exist, verbalization is the fastest. Question 23: The word "these" in paragraph1 refers to A. tourists B. the deaf and the mute C. thoughts and feelings D. sign language motions Question 24: All of the following statements are true EXCEPT A. there are many forms of communication in existence today B. verbalization is the most common form of communication C. the deaf and mute use an oral form of communication D. ideas and thoughts can be transmitted by body language Question 25: Which form other than oral speech would be most commonly used among blind people? A. Picture signs B. Braille C. Body language D. Signal flags Question 26: How many different forms of communication are mentioned here? A. 5 B. 7 C. 9 D. 11 Question 27: The word "wink" in paragraph 2 means most nearly the same as A. close one eye briefly B. close two eyes briefly C. bob the head up and down D. shake the head from side to side Question 28: Sign language is said to be very picturesque and exact and can be used internationally EXCEPT for A. spelling B. ideas C. whole words D. expressions Question 29: People need to communicate in order to A. create language barriers B. keep from reading with their fingertips C. be picturesque and exact D. express thoughts and feelings Question 30: What is the best title for the passage? A. The Important of Sign Language B. The Many Forms of Communication C. Ways of Expressing Feelings D. Picturesque Symbols of Communication Question 31: Who would be MOST likely to use Morse code? A. A scientist B. An airline pilot C. A spy D. A telegrapher Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks. One of the most urgent environmental problems in the world today is the shortage of clean water. Having clean drinking water is a basic human right. But acid rain, (32) ________ pollution and garbage have made many sources of water undrinkable. Lakes, reservoirs and even entire seas have become vast pools (33) ________ poison. Lake Baikal in Russia is one of the largest lakes in.

(213) the world. It (34) ________ a rich variety of animals and plants, including 1,300 rare species that do not exist (35) ________ else in the world. But they are being destroyed by the massive volumes of toxic effluent which (36) _______ into the lake every day. Even where law existed, the government did not have the power to enforce them. Most industries simply ignore the regulations. The Mediterranean Sea (37) ________ 1% of the world's water surface. But it is the dumping (38) ________ for 50% of all marine pollution. Almost 16 countries regularly throw industrial wastes a few miles (39) ________ shore. Water is free to everyone. A few years ago, people thought that the supply of clean water in the world was limitless. Today, many water supplies have been (40) ________ by pollution and sewage. Clean water is now scarce, and we are at last beginning to respect this precious (41) ________. We should do something now. (Source: v14ilovetranslation.com) Question 32: A. industrialized B. industrial C. industrious D. industry Question 33: A. in B. to C. of D. on Question 34: A. encloses B. composes C. contains D. consists Question 35: A. everywhere B. somewhere C. where D. anywhere Question 36: A. burn B. pour C. boil D. stay Question 37: A. makes B. holds C. occupies D. compries Question 38: A. ground B. shore C. soil D. land Question 39: A. of B. on C. away D. off Question 40: A. kept B. made C. conserved D. ruined Question 41: A. well B. source C. nature D. outlet Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 42: We will leave for the airport ________ he is ready. A. during B. until C. as soon as D. while Question 43: The majority of Asian students reject the American ________ that marriage is a partnership of equals. A. view B. attitude C. thought D. look Question 44: Bob has a bad lung cancer and his doctor has advised him to ________ smoking. A. turn up B. put up C. give up D. take up Question 45: If she ________ a car, she would go out in the evening. A. had B. has had C. have D. has Question 46: I'm so hungry. Let’s go and get ________ to eat. A. nothing B. anyone C. everywhere D. something Question 47: Rosemary Dare is a wildlife photographer. She ________ in Uganda for many years. A. has been living B. is living C. will live D. lives Question 48: Did you read ________ book I lent you last week? A. a B. an C. Ø D. the Question 49: Traditionally, Americans and Asians have very different ideas ________ love and marriage. A. to B. about C. in D. at Question 50: Last month I went to visit the college ________ I studied from 1985 to 1990. A. that B. where C. when D. who Question 51: I will not be here next week. I am going to be ________ business in Mexico. A. at B. about C. in D. on Question 52: You won't know what to do ________ you listen carefully. A. or B. unless C. and D. if Question 53: My brothers love ________ my father in mending things around the house at weekends. A. being joined B. joining C. joined D. join.

(214) Question 54: During the week of national tourism festival, we had visitors ________ from all over the country. A. coming B. come C. to come D. to have come Question 55: In some countries, many old-aged parents like to live in a nursing home. They want to ________ independent lives. A. take B. give C. lead D. see Question 56: Jack: ‘Can I use your computer?’ Jill: ‘________.’ A. Of course B. No, thanks C. Well done D. Yes, I can Question 57: The more you practise your English, ________ . A. the faster you will learn B. the faster will you learn C. you will learn faster D. faster you will learn Question 58: If you had taken your dad's advice, you ________ such a silly mistake. A. have avoided B. would have avoid C. avoid D. would have avoided Question 59: Mrs. Brown was the first owner ________ dog won three prizes in the same show. A. her B. who C. whose D. whom Question 60: Olek: ‘Your kitchen is fantastic! Did you do it all by yourself?’ Shaival: ‘No, I ________ by a professional.’ A. had designed it B. have it designed C. had it designed D. designed it Question 61: A number of wildlife reserves have been established ________ endangered species can have a chance to survive and develop. A. therefore B. so as to C. in order to D. so that Question 62: Diana: ‘I didn't know you could play the guitar so well, Toan. Your tune was lovely!’ Toan: ‘________.’ A. You've got to be kidding! I thought it was terrible B. Never mind C. You are welcome D. I bought it near my house last week Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the rest in each of the following questions. Question 63: A. habitat B. vacancy C. sociable D. opponent Question 64: A. bamboo B. eject C. water D. defend II. WRITING (2.0 points) Part 1. Transformation (0.5 point): Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. Question 65: They are going to build a new school in this area. à A new school __________________________________________________________ Question 66: He can’t give you a lift because he doesn’t have a car. à If he had_________________________________________________________________ Question 67: “I’ll come to see you next weekend,” Nam said to Lan. à Nam promised ______________________________________________________________ Question 68: My book is not as expensive as yours. à Your book is _______________________________________________________________ Question 69: He didn’t know how to swim until he was 30. à It was not until _________________________________________________________ Part 2. Paragraph writing (1.5 point) Suppose you were offered a job with one of the following international organizations: WWF (World Wildlife Fund), WHO (World Health Organization), and the UN (United Nations). Which.

(215) one would you like to choose? Write a paragraph of 100-120 words expressing the reasons why you choose the organization.. SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO THANH HÓA. ĐÁP ÁN VÀ THANG ĐIỂM KỲ THI KHẢO SÁT CHẤT LƯỢNG LỚP 12 TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG. NĂM HỌC 2014 - 2015 Môn: TIẾNG ANH ─ Chương trình chuẩn. (Đáp án gồm 03 trang) B. Multiple choices (0.125x64=8.0 points). Question 129 Question 130 Question 131 Question 132 Question 133 Question 134 Question 135 Question 136 Question 137 Question 138 Question 139 Question 140 Question 141 Question 142 Question 143 Question 144 Question 145 Question 146 Question 147 Question 148 Question 149 Question 150 Question 151 Question 152 Question 153 Question 154 Question 155 Question 156 Question 157 Question 158 Question 159. Mã đề 646 1. D 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. C 6. A 7. D 8. C 9. A 10. B 11. A 12. A 13. C 14. C 15. B 16. A 17. A 18. D 19. B 20. B 21. B 22. A 23. D 24. C 25. B 26. C 27. A 28. A 29. D 30. B 31. D.

(216) Question 160 Question 161 Question 162 Question 163 Question 164 Question 165 Question 166 Question 167 Question 168 Question 169 Question 170 Question 171 Question 172 Question 173 Question 174 Question 175 Question 176 Question 177 Question 178 Question 179 Question 180 Question 181 Question 182 Question 183 Question 184 Question 185 Question 186 Question 187 Question 188 Question 189 Question 190 Question 191 Question 192. 32. B 33. C 34. C 35. D 36. B 37. C 38. A 39. D 40. D 41. B 42. C 43. A 44. C 45. A 46. D 47. A 48. D 49. B 50. B 51. D 52. B 53. B 54. A 55. C 56. A 57. A 58. D 59. C 60. C 61. D 62. A 63. D 64. C. B. Writing: (2.0 points) Part 1. Transformation: (0.1x5=0.5 point) Question 65: A new school is going to be built in this area. Question 66: If he had a car, he could give you a lift. Question 67: Nam promised to come to see Lan the following week Question 68: Your book is more expensive than mine (my book) Question 69: It was not until he was 30 that he knew how to swim. Part 2. (1.5 points).

(217) Mô tả tiêu chí đánh giá 1.. Bố cục -. 2.. Câu đề dẫn chủ đề mạch lạc (Câu chủ đề (Topic sentence) nêu ý chính của đoạn văn Bố cục hợp lí rõ ràng phù hợp yêu cầu của đề bài Có thể có câu kết luận (Concluding sentence) tóm tắt ý chính của đoạn văn, hoặc đưa ra một gợi ý, một quan điểm hay một dự đoán.. Phát triển ý -. 3.. 0.25. Phát triển ý có trình tự logic Có dẫn chứng, ví dụ, … đủ để bảo vệ ý kiến của mình . (Nêu được những lý do về lương, điều kiện làm việc, khả năng của bàn thân, cơ hội cống hiến, đóng góp hoặc những thuận lợi khác mà công việc mang lại cho mình.). Sử dụng ngôn từ -. 4.. 0.30. Sử dụng ngôn từ phù hợp nội dung Sử dụng ngôn từ đúng văn phong/thể loại Sử dụng từ nối các ý cho bài viết uyển chuyển. Nội dung -. 5.. 0.30. Đủ thuyết phục người đọc Đủ dẫn chứng, ví dụ, lập luận Độ dài: số từ không được nhiều hơn hoặc ít hơn so với quy định 5%. Ngữ pháp, đấu câu, và chính tả -. -. Điểm tối đa 0.40. 0.25. Sử dụng đúng dấu câu Chính tả: viết đúng chính tả + Lỗi chính tả gây hiểu nhầm/sai lệch ý sẽ bị tính một lỗi (trừ 1% điểm của bài viết) + Cùng một lỗi chính tả lặp lại chỉ tính là một lỗi Sử dụng đúng thời, thể, cấu trúc câu đúng ngữ pháp.. Tổng. 1.50. ĐỀ SỐ 25: SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO THANH HÓA ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC. Số báo danh. ……………….. KỲ THI KHẢO SÁT CHẤT LƯỢNG LỚP 12 TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM HỌC 2014 - 2015 Môn: TIẾNG ANH ─ Chương trình chuẩn Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút. (Không kể thời gian giao đề) (Đề thi có 05 trang) Mã đề thi 940. Họ, tên thí sinh: ……………………………………………… I. MULTIPLE CHOICES (64 Questions; 8.0 points).

(218) Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. appeal B. heat C. deal D. clear Question 2: A. walked B. involved C. jumped D. missed Question 3: A. always B. players C. rejects D. confides Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 4: We will leave for the airport ________ he is ready. A. until B. during C. as soon as D. while Question 5: The majority of Asian students reject the American ________ that marriage is a partnership of equals. A. attitude B. thought C. view D. look Question 6: If she ________ a car, she would go out in the evening. A. have B. has C. has had D. had Question 7: Olek: ‘Your kitchen is fantastic! Did you do it all by yourself?’ Shaival: ‘No, I ________ by a professional.’ A. have it designed B. designed it C. had it designed D. had designed it Question 8: Bob has a bad lung cancer and his doctor has advised him to ________ smoking. A. put up B. give up C. take up D. turn up Question 9: I'm so hungry. Let’s go and get ________ to eat. A. anyone B. nothing C. something D. everywhere Question 10: In some countries, many old-aged parents like to live in a nursing home. They want to ________ independent lives. A. lead B. take C. give D. see Question 11: Rosemary Dare is a wildlife photographer. She ________ in Uganda for many years. A. will live B. lives C. has been living D. is living Question 12: A number of wildlife reserves have been established ________ endangered species can have a chance to survive and develop. A. so that B. therefore C. in order to D. so as to Question 13: Mrs. Brown was the first owner ________ dog won three prizes in the same show. A. whose B. her C. who D. whom Question 14: Jack: ‘Can I use your computer?’ Jill: ‘________.’ A. No, thanks B. Yes, I can C. Of course D. Well done Question 15: Last month I went to visit the college ________ I studied from 1985 to 1990. A. where B. who C. that D. when Question 16: During the week of national tourism festival, we had visitors ________ from all over the country. A. to come B. coming C. come D. to have come Question 17: Traditionally, Americans and Asians have very different ideas ________ love and marriage. A. about B. to C. at D. in Question 18: Diana: ‘I didn't know you could play the guitar so well, Toan. Your tune was lovely!’ Toan: ‘________.’ A. You've got to be kidding! I thought it was terrible B. Never mind C. You are welcome D. I bought it near my house last week Question 19: My brothers love ________ my father in mending things around the house at weekends. A. being joined B. join C. joining D. joined.

(219) Question 20: The more you practise your English, ________ . A. faster you will learn B. you will learn faster C. the faster will you learn D. the faster you will learn Question 21: If you had taken your dad's advice, you ________ such a silly mistake. A. have avoided B. would have avoid C. would have avoided D. avoid Question 22: I will not be here next week. I am going to be ________ business in Mexico. A. on B. at C. in D. about Question 23: You won't know what to do ________ you listen carefully. A. and B. unless C. or D. if Question 24: Did you read ________ book I lent you last week? A. the B. an C. Ø D. a Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question 25: What do you like doing in your spare time? A. quiet B. free C. enjoyable D. busy Question 26: We spent the entire day looking for a new hotel. A. the long day B. all day long C. all long day D. day after day Question 27: Thanh Hoa is well-known for its beautiful beaches and seafood. A. honest B. rich C. famous D. successful Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Rachel Carson was born in 1907 in Springsdale, Pennsylvania. She studied biology at college and zoology at Johns Hopkins University, where she received her master’s degree in 1933. In 1936, she was hired by the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, where she worked most of her life. Carson’s first book, Under the Sea Wind, was published in 1941. It received excellent reviews, but sales were poor until it was reissued in 1952. In that year she published The Sea Around Us, which provided a fascinating look beneath the ocean’s surface, emphasizing human history as well as geology and marine biology. Her imagery and language had a poetic quality. Carson consulted no less than 1,000 printed sources. She had voluminous correspondence and frequent discussions with experts in the field. However, she always realized the limitations of her nontechnical readers. In 1962, Carson published Silent Spring, a book that sparked considerable controversy. It proved how much harm was done by the uncontrolled, reckless use of insecticides. She detailed how they poison the food supply of animals, kill birds and fish, and contaminate human food. At the time, spokesmen for the chemical industry mounted personal attacks against Carson and issued propaganda to indicate that her findings were flawed. However, her work was proved by a 1963 report of the President’s Science Advisory Committee. (Source: TOEFL Reading) Question 28. The passage mainly discusses Rachel Carson’s work A. as a researcher B. at college C. at the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service D. as a writer Question 29. According to the passage, what did Carson primarily study at Johns Hopkins University? A. oceanography B. zoology C. literature D. history Question 30. When she published her first book, Carson was closest to the age of A. 26 B. 29 C. 34 D. 45 Question 31. It can be inferred from the passage that in 1952, Carson’s book Under the Sea Wind A. was outdated B. became more popular than her other books C. was praised by critics D. sold many copies Question 32. Which of the following was NOT mentioned in the passage as a source of information for The Sea Around Us?.

(220) A. printed matter B. talks with experts C. a research expedition D. letters from scientists Question 33. Which of the following words or phrases is LEAST accurate in describing The Sea Around Us? A. highly technical B. poetic C. fascinating D. well-researched Question 34. The word “reckless” in line 11 is closest in meaning to A. unnecessary B. limited C. continuous D. irresponsible Question 35. According to the passage, Silent Spring is primarily A. an attack on the use of chemical preservatives in food B. a discussion of the hazards insects pose to the food supply C. a warning about the dangers of misusing insecticides D. an illustration of the benefits of the chemical industry Question 36. The word “flawed” in line 14 is closest in meaning to A. faulty B. deceptive C. logical D. offensive Question 37. Why does the author of the passage mention the report of the President’s Science Advisory Committee ( lines 14-15)? A. To provide an example of government propaganda. B. To support Carson’s ideas. C. To indicate a growing government concern with the environment. D. To validate the chemical industry’s claims. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Ever since humans inhabited the earth, they have made use of various forms of communication. Generally, this expression of thoughts and feelings has been in the form of oral speech. When there is a language barrier, communication is accomplished through sign language in which motions stand for letters, words, and ideas. Tourists, the deaf, and the mute have had to resort to this form of expression. Many of these symbols of whole words are very picturesque and exact and can be used internationally; spelling, however, cannot. Body language transmits ideas or thoughts by certain actions, either intentionally or unintentionally. A wink can be a way of flirting or indicating that the party is only joking. A nod signifies approval, while shaking the head indicates a negative reaction. Other forms of nonlinguistic language can be found in Braille (a system of raised dots read with the fingertips), signal flags, Morse code, and smoke signals. Road maps and picture signs also guide, warn, and instruct people. While verbalization is the most common form of language, other systems and techniques also express human thoughts and feelings. (Source: TOEFL Reading) Question 38: Which of the following best summarizes this passage? A. When language is a barrier, people will find other forms of communication. B. Everybody uses only one form of communication. C. Nonlinguistic language is invaluable to foreigners. D. Although other forms of communication exist, verbalization is the fastest. Question 39: The word "these" in paragraph1 refers to A. tourists B. the deaf and the mute C. thoughts and feelings D. sign language motions Question 40: All of the following statements are true EXCEPT A. there are many forms of communication in existence today B. verbalization is the most common form of communication C. the deaf and mute use an oral form of communication D. ideas and thoughts can be transmitted by body language.

(221) Question 41: Which form other than oral speech would be most commonly used among blind people? A. Picture signs B. Braille C. Body language D. Signal flags Question 42: How many different forms of communication are mentioned here? A. 5 B. 7 C. 9 D. 11 Question 43: The word "wink" in paragraph 2 means most nearly the same as A. close one eye briefly B. close two eyes briefly C. bob the head up and down D. shake the head from side to side Question 44: Sign language is said to be very picturesque and exact and can be used internationally EXCEPT for A. spelling B. ideas C. whole words D. expressions Question 45: People need to communicate in order to A. create language barriers B. keep from reading with their fingertips C. be picturesque and exact D. express thoughts and feelings Question 46: What is the best title for the passage? A. The Important of Sign Language B. The Many Forms of Communication C. Ways of Expressing Feelings D. Picturesque Symbols of Communication Question 47: Who would be MOST likely to use Morse code? A. A scientist B. An airline pilot C. A spy D. A telegrapher Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the rest in each of the following questions. Question 48: A. eject B. water C. defend D. bamboo Question 49: A. habitat B. opponent C. sociable D. vacancy Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 50: Today was such beautiful day that I couldn't bring myself to complete all my chores. A B C D Question 51: Vietnam exports a lot of rice is grown mainly in the south of the country. A B C D Question 52: To attract someone's attention we can use either verbal and non- verbal forms of A B C communication. D Question 53: Hardly he had entered the office when he realized that he had forgotten his wallet. A B C D Question 54: My sister told me that she had met my teacher at the supermarket yesterday A B C D Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks. One of the most urgent environmental problems in the world today is the shortage of clean water. Having clean drinking water is a basic human right. But acid rain, (55) ________ pollution and garbage have made many sources of water undrinkable. Lakes, reservoirs and even entire seas have become vast pools (56) ________ poison. Lake Baikal in Russia is one of the largest lakes in the world. It (57) ________ a rich variety of animals and plants, including 1,300 rare species that do not exist (58) ________ else in the world. But they are being destroyed by the massive volumes of.

(222) toxic effluent which (59) _______ into the lake every day. Even where law existed, the government did not have the power to enforce them. Most industries simply ignore the regulations. The Mediterranean Sea (60) ________ 1% of the world's water surface. But it is the dumping (61) ________ for 50% of all marine pollution. Almost 16 countries regularly throw industrial wastes a few miles (62) ________ shore. Water is free to everyone. A few years ago, people thought that the supply of clean water in the world was limitless. Today, many water supplies have been (63) ________ by pollution and sewage. Clean water is now scarce, and we are at last beginning to respect this precious (64) ________. We should do something now. (Source: v14ilovetranslation.com) Question 55: A. industrialized B. industrious C. industrial D. industry Question 56: A. in B. to C. on D. of Question 57: A. consists B. composes C. encloses D. contains Question 58: A. anywhere B. somewhere C. everywhere D. where Question 59: A. boil B. burn C. stay D. pour Question 60: A. comprises B. holds C. occupies D. makes Question 61: A. ground B. soil C. shore D. land Question 62: A. on B. away C. of D. off Question 63: A. kept B. ruined C. made D. conserved Question 64: A. outlet B. nature C. well D. source II. WRITING (2.0 points) Part 1. Transformation (0.5 point): Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. Question 65: They are going to build a new school in this area. à A new school __________________________________________________________ Question 66: He can’t give you a lift because he doesn’t have a car. à If he had_________________________________________________________________ Question 67: “I’ll come to see you next weekend,” Nam said to Lan. à Nam promised ______________________________________________________________ Question 68: My book is not as expensive as yours. à Your book is _______________________________________________________________ Question 69: He didn’t know how to swim until he was 30. à It was not until _________________________________________________________ Part 2 . Paragraph writing (1.5 point) Suppose you were offered a job with one of the following international organizations: WWF (World Wildlife Fund), WHO (World Health Organization), and the UN (United Nations). Which one would you like to choose? Write a paragraph of 100-120 words expressing the reasons why you choose the organization.. SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO. ĐÁP ÁN VÀ THANG ĐIỂM.

(223) TẠO THANH HÓA. KỲ THI KHẢO SÁT CHẤT LƯỢNG LỚP 12 TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG. NĂM HỌC 2014 - 2015 Môn: TIẾNG ANH ─ Chương trình chuẩn. (Đáp án gồm 03 trang) C. Multiple choices (0.125x64=8.0 points). Question 193 Question 194 Question 195 Question 196 Question 197 Question 198 Question 199 Question 200 Question 201 Question 202 Question 203 Question 204 Question 205 Question 206 Question 207 Question 208 Question 209 Question 210 Question 211 Question 212 Question 213 Question 214 Question 215 Question 216 Question 217 Question 218 Question 219 Question 220 Question 221 Question 222 Question 223 Question 224 Question 225 Question 226 Question 227 Question 228. Mã đề 940 1. D 2. B 3. C 4. C 5. C 6. D 7. C 8. B 9. C 10. A 11. C 12. A 13. A 14. C 15. A 16. B 17. A 18. A 19. C 20. D 21. C 22. A 23. B 24. A 25. B 26. B 27. C 28. D 29. B 30. C 31. D 32. C 33. A 34. D 35. C 36. A.

(224) Question 229 Question 230 Question 231 Question 232 Question 233 Question 234 Question 235 Question 236 Question 237 Question 238 Question 239 Question 240 Question 241 Question 242 Question 243 Question 244 Question 245 Question 246 Question 247 Question 248 Question 249 Question 250 Question 251 Question 252 Question 253 Question 254 Question 255 Question 256. 37. B 38. A 39. D 40. C 41. B 42. C 43. A 44. A 45. D 46. B 47. D 48. B 49. B 50. A 51. B 52. C 53. A 54. D 55. C 56. D 57. D 58. A 59. D 60. C 61. A 62. D 63. B 64. D. B. Writing: (2.0 points) Part 1. Transformation: (0.1x5=0.5 point) Question 65: A new school is going to be built in this area. Question 66: If he had a car, he could give you a lift. Question 67: Nam promised to come to see Lan the following week Question 68: Your book is more expensive than mine (my book) Question 69: It was not until he was 30 that he knew how to swim. Part 2. (1.5 points) Mô tả tiêu chí đánh giá 1.. Bố cục -. Câu đề dẫn chủ đề mạch lạc (Câu chủ đề (Topic sentence) nêu ý chính của đoạn văn Bố cục hợp lí rõ ràng phù hợp yêu cầu của đề bài. Điểm tối đa 0.40.

(225) -. 2.. Có thể có câu kết luận (Concluding sentence) tóm tắt ý chính của đoạn văn, hoặc đưa ra một gợi ý, một quan điểm hay một dự đoán.. Phát triển ý -. 3.. 0.25. Phát triển ý có trình tự logic Có dẫn chứng, ví dụ, … đủ để bảo vệ ý kiến của mình . (Nêu được những lý do về lương, điều kiện làm việc, khả năng của bàn thân, cơ hội cống hiến, đóng góp hoặc những thuận lợi khác mà công việc mang lại cho mình.). Sử dụng ngôn từ -. 4.. 0.30. Sử dụng ngôn từ phù hợp nội dung Sử dụng ngôn từ đúng văn phong/thể loại Sử dụng từ nối các ý cho bài viết uyển chuyển. Nội dung -. 5.. 0.30. Đủ thuyết phục người đọc Đủ dẫn chứng, ví dụ, lập luận Độ dài: số từ không được nhiều hơn hoặc ít hơn so với quy định 5%. Ngữ pháp, đấu câu, và chính tả -. -. 0.25. Sử dụng đúng dấu câu Chính tả: viết đúng chính tả + Lỗi chính tả gây hiểu nhầm/sai lệch ý sẽ bị tính một lỗi (trừ 1% điểm của bài viết) + Cùng một lỗi chính tả lặp lại chỉ tính là một lỗi Sử dụng đúng thời, thể, cấu trúc câu đúng ngữ pháp.. Tổng. 1.50. ĐỀ SỐ 26: SỞ GIÁO DỤC ĐÀO TẠO HỘI ĐỒNG BỘ MÔN TIẾNG ANH THPT. ĐỀ THI MẪU – KỲ THI THPT QUỐC GIA 2015 Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút. Đơn vị: THPT Chuyên Nguyễn Quang Diêu Đề thi cấu trúc 3 SECTION A: MULTIPLE CHOICES Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is PRONOUNCED differently from the other three in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. advisedly B. demanded C. prevented D. cured Question 2: A. collect B. operate C. hobby D. volunteer.

(226) Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the PRIMARY STRESS in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. technique B. advance C. challenge D. attempt Question 4: A. catastrophe B. emergency C. fundamental D. solidify Question 5: A. compulsory B. engineering C. ridiculous D. industrial Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer for each of the questions from 6 to 15. A fold culture is small, isolated, cohesive, conservative, nearly self-sufficient group that is homogeneous in custom and race, with a strong family or clan structure and highly developed rituals. Order is maintained through sanctions based in the religion or family, and interpersonal relationships are strong. Tradition is paramount, and change comes infrequently and slowly. There is relatively little division of labor into specialized duties. Rather, each person is expected to perform a great variety of tasks, though duties may differ between the sexes. Most goods are handmade, and a subsistence economy prevails. Individualism is weakly developed in folk cultures, as are social classes. Unaltered folk cultures no longer exist in industrialized countries such as the United States and Canada. Perhaps the nearest modern equivalent in AngloAmerica is the Amish, a German American farming sect that largely renounces the products and labor saving devices of the industrial age. In Amish areas, horsedrawn buggies till serve as a local transportation device, and the faithful are not permitted to own automobiles. The Amish’s central religious concept of Demut, “humility”, clearly reflects the weakness of individualism and social class so typical of folk cultures, and there is a corresponding strength of Amish group identity. Rarely do the Amish marry outside their sect. The religion, a variety of the Mennonite faith, provides the principal mechanism for maintaining order. By contrast, a popular culture is a large heterogeneous group, often highly individualistic and constantly changing. Relationships tend to be impersonal, and a pronounced division of labor exists, leading to the establishment of many specialized professions. Secular institutions, of control such as the police and army take the place of religion and family in maintaining order, and a money-based economy prevails. Because of these contrasts, “popular” may be viewed as clearly different from “folk”. The popular is replacing the folk in industrialized countries and in many developing nations, Folk-made objects give way to their popular equivalent, usually because the popular item is more quickly or cheaply produced, is easier or time saving to use, or lends more prestige to the owner. Question 6: What does the passage mainly discuss? A. Two decades in modern society B. The influence of industrial technology.

(227) C. The characteristics of “folk” and “popular” societies D. The specialization of labor in Canada and the United States Question 7: The word “homogeneous” is closest in meaning to _________. A. uniform B. general C. primitive D. traditional Question 8: Which of the following is typical of folk cultures? A. There is a money-based economy. B. Social change occurs slowly. C. Contact with other cultures is encouraged. D. Each person develops one specialized skill. Question 9: What does the author imply about the United States and Canada? A. They value folk cultures. B. They have no social classes. C. They have popular cultures. D. They do not value individualism. Question 10: The phrase “largely renounces” is closest in meaning to _________. A. generally rejects B. greatly modifies C. loudly declares D. often criticizes Question 11: What is the main source of order in Amish society? A. The government B. The economy C. The clan structure D. The religion Question 12: Which of the following statements about Amish beliefs does the passage support? A. A variety of religious practices is tolerated. B. Individualism and competition are important. C. Pre-modern technology is preferred. D. People are defined according to their class. Question 13: Which of the following would probably NOT be found in a folk culture? A. A carpenter B. A farmer C. A weaver D. A banker Question 14: The word “prevails” is closest in meaning to _________. A. dominates B. provides C. develops D. invests Question 15: Which of following is NOT given as a reason why folk-made objects are replaced by mass-produced objects? A. cost B. prestige C. quality D. convenience Choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 16: It’s getting too hot and stuffy in here. Would you mind my _______ the windows? A. open B. to open C. being opened D. opening Question 17: Another satellite, Vina-sat2, ________ up into space by Viet Nam recently. A. has been sent B. has sent C. sent D. was sent Question 18: Little Jimmy is very much keen ________ manga and story books..

(228) A. for B. on C. at D. in Question 19: Because of his reaction, the problem became ________ than we had thought. A. a lot more complicated B. so much complicated C. much less far complicated D. more a bit complicated Question 20: As humans keep cutting down forests, more and more wild animals are _______ threat _______ n extinction. A. at - of B. on - with C. under - of D. in - with Question 21: If there _______ some restaurants near the hotel, the tourists would not have to take taxis. A. were B. was C. will be D. would be Question 22: He always did well at school _______ having his early education disrupted by illness. A. on account of B. in spite of C. in addition to D. even though Question 23: The fire caused _______ damage that the factory building had to be demolished. A. so much B. too much C. such much D. very much Question 24: ________ the fifth largest among the nine planets that make up our solar system is not surprising to me. A. The Earth being B. The Earth is C. That the Earth is D. Being the Earth Question 25: ________, women are responsible for the chores in the house and taking care of the children. A. With tradition B. On tradition C. Traditional D. Traditionally Question 26: What chemical is this? It is ______ a horrible smell. A. giving down B. giving off C. giving up D. giving out Question 27: Judy: “Don’t fail to send your parents my regards.” -Jenny: “___________” A. You’re welcome B. Good idea, thanks C. Thanks, I will D. It’s my pleasure Question 28: Would you mind ________ me a favour and posting this letter for me? A. making B. doing C. getting D. giving Question 29: He found______ to answer all the questions within the time given. A. that impossible B. that impossibly C. it impossibly D. it impossible Question 30: Only when he arrived at the airport ________ that he had left his passport home..

(229) A. did he realize B. he realized C. had he realized D. he was realized Question 31: We are up to our ________ in paperwork and don’t have a bit of free time for entertainment these days. A. neck B. forehead C. chest D. shoulders Question 32: The lecturer explained the problem very clearly and is always _______ in response to questions. A. attention B. attentively C. attentive D. attentiveness Question 33: The girl _____ is my new neighbor. A. talks to the lady over there. B. is talking to the lady over there C. talking to the lady over there D. was talking to the lady over there Question 34: Steven: “I’m sorry. I left my guitar home.” _Jefferson: “_________.” A. Well. You do? I’m sorry. B. Oh. What a pity for that. C. Never mind. I’ve got another one. D. No way. It’s up to you. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 44. In the West, cartoons are used chiefly to make people laugh. The important feature of all these cartoons is the joke and the element of surprise which is contained. Even though it is very funny, a good cartoon is always based on close observation of a particular feature of life and usually has a serious purpose. Cartoons in the West have been associated with political and social matters for many years. In wartime, for example, they proved to be an excellent way of spreading propaganda. Nowadays cartoons are often used to make short, sharp comments on politics and governments as well as on a variety of social matters. In this way, the modern cartoon has become a very powerful force in influencing people in Europe and the United States. Unlike most American and European cartoons, however, many Chinese cartoon drawings in the past have also attempted to educate people, especially those who could not read and write. Such cartoons about the lives and sayings of great men in China have proved extremely useful in bringing education to illiterate and semiliterate people throughout China. Confucius, Mencius and Laozi have all appeared in very interesting stories presented in the form of cartoons. The cartoons themselves have thus served to illustrate the teachings of the Chinese sages in a very attractive way. In this sense, many Chinese cartoons are different from Western cartoons in so far as they do not depend chiefly on telling jokes. Often, there is nothing to laugh at when you see Chinese cartoons. This is not their primary aim. In addition to commenting on serious political and social matters, Chinese cartoons have aimed at spreading the traditional Chinese thoughts and culture as widely as possible among the people..

(230) Today, however, Chinese cartoons have an added part to play in spreading knowledge. They offer a very attractive and useful way of reaching people throughout the world, regardless of the particular country in which they live. Thus, through cartoons, the thoughts and teachings of the old Chinese philosophers and sages can now reach people who live in such countries as Britain, France, America, Japan, Malaysia or Australia and who are unfamiliar with the Chinese culture. Until recently, the transfer of knowledge and culture has been overwhelmingly from the West to the East and not vice versa. By means of cartoons, however, publishing companies in Taiwan, Hong Kong and Singapore are now having success in correcting this imbalance between the East and the West. Cartoons can overcome language barriers in all foreign countries. The vast increase in the popularity of these cartoons serves to illustrate the truth of Confucius’s famous saying “One picture is worth a thousand words.” Question 35: Which of the following clearly characterizes Western cartoons? A. Enjoyment, liveliness, and carefulness. B. Seriousness, propaganda, and attractiveness. C. Humour, unexpectedness, and criticism. D. Originality, freshness, and astonishment. Question 36: Chinese cartoons have been useful as an important means of _________. A. educating ordinary people B. spreading Western ideas C. amusing people all the time D. political propaganda in wartime Question 37: The major differences between Chinese cartoons and Western cartoons come from their _________. . A. purposes B. nationalities C. values D. styles Question 38: The pronoun “this” in paragraph 4 mostly refers to_________. . A. a piece of art B. an educational purpose C. a funny element D. a propaganda campaign Question 39: The passage is intended to present_________. . A. a contrast between Western cartoons and Chinese cartoons B. a description of cartoons of all kinds the world over C. an outline of Western cartoons and Chinese cartoons D. an opinion about how cartoons entertain people Question 40: Which of the following could be the best title for the passage? A. Chinese Cartoons and Western Cartoons B. A Very Powerful Force in Influencing People C. An Excellent Way of Spreading Propaganda D. Cartoons as a Way of Educating People Question 41: In general, Chinese cartoons are now aiming at _________. . A. bringing education to illiterate and semi-literate people in the world B. disseminating traditional practices in China and throughout the world C. illustrating the truth of Chinese great men’s famous sayings D. spreading the Chinese ideas and cultural values throughout the world.

(231) Question 42: The word “imbalance” in paragraph 6 refers to _________. . A. the mismatch between the East cartoons and the West cartoons B. the dominant cultural influence of the West over the East C. the influence of the East cartoons over the West cartoons D. the discrimination between the West culture and the East culture Question 43: Which of the following is most likely the traditional subject of Chinese cartoons? A. Jokes and other kinds of humour in political and social matters. B. The philosophies and sayings of ancient Chinese thinkers. C. The illiterate and semi-literate people throughout China. D. The stories and features of the lives of great men the world over. Question 44: According to the passage, which of the following is true? A. Western cartoons always have a serious purpose. B. Language barriers restricted cartoons. C. Cartoons will replace other forms of writing. D. Cartoons can serve various purposes. Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction. Question 45: Dictionaries frequently explain the origin of the defined word, state its part of speech and A B C indication its correct use. D Question 46: Publishing in the U.K, the book has won a number of awards in the recent regional book A. B. C. D. fairs.. Question 47: My father is very busy with his business; therefore , he is always willing to give A B C a hand with the housework. D Question 48: In most of high schools in that region, children must wear a uniform as required by A B C D the city council. Question 49: He has recently been offered a great job working as an electric engineer for that A B C D prestigious car company. Choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions..

(232) Question 50: The repeated commercials on TV distract many viewers from watching their favorite films. A. business B. advertisements C. economics D. contests Question 51: Some land is best used if two or more different kinds of crops are grown on it alternately; on the other hand, it is better to grow the same crop continuously. A. time after time B. slowly but surely C. one after another D. for many years Question 52: You may find that jogging is detrimental to your health rather than beneficial. A. useful B. facile C. depressing D. harmful Question 53: For a decade, Barzilai has studied centenarians, looking for genes that contribute to longevity. A. who are vegetarians B. who want to be fruitarians C. who are extraordinary D. who live to be 100 and above Question 54: The mountain region of the country is thinly populated. A. sparsely B. densely C. greatly D. fully Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks from 55 to 64. When the word " endangered"is mentioned, people usually think of particular species, like the panda or whooping crane. However, we would like to encourage you to think about (55) _______ in a broader context. It is (56) _______, the physical places where species live and interact with one another. Although the development of special breeding programs, also known as captive conservation, may help some species in some cases, it is clearly not (57) _______ answer to the global problem. Indeed, (58) _______ we are able to protect natural areas where endangered species actually live, they have no future. Species become endangered for a wide (59) ________ of reasons. By analyzing and grouping many individual cases, however, we find the same broad causes (60) _________ again and again. They are Habitat Destruction, Exotic Species, and Overexploitation. Among other factors threatening particular species are limited: distribution, disease, and pollution. Limited distributions are often a consequence of other threats: populations confined to one or a few small areas because of habitat (61) _________, for example, may be disastrously affected by random factors. Diseases can have severe (62) _________ on species lacking natural genetic protections against particular pathogens, like the rabies and canine distemper viruses that are currently devastating carnivore populations in East Africa. Domestic animals are usually the reservoirs of these and other diseases affecting wild (63) _________, showing once again that human activities lie at the root of.

(233) most causes of endangerment. Pollution has seriously done harm (64) _________ number of terrestrial species, although species living in freshwater and marine ecosystems are also suffering. Question 55: A. development contamination Question 56: A. plants organizations Question 57: A. a Question 58: A. so unless Question 59: A. variety destruction Question 60: A. expressing Question 61: A. benefit Question 62: A. impact Question 63: A. needs Question 64: A. to at. B. endangerment C. pollution. D.. B. conservations C. habitats B. an. D.. C. the B. but. C. if. D. this D.. B. commerce. C. extinction. D.. B. showing B. reserve B. interest B. populations B. for. C. disappearing D. appearing C. loss D. gone C. infection D. absorption C. natures D. medicines C. with D.. SECTION B: WRITING PART I: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that the rewritten sentence has the same meaning to the original one. Question 65: The last time I went to that town was ten years ago. It............................................................................................................................................... Question 66: “I’m sorry, Jackie. I didn’t tell you the problem earlier,” said Steven. Steven apologized to ............................................................................................................... Question 67: It was such a beautiful creature that everyone stopped to have a look. So ............................................................................................................................................ Question 68: Jenny finds it very much relaxing to listen to this wonderful type of music. It .............................................................................................................................................. Question 69: That boy gets more depressed when the weather becomes hotter. The hotter ............................................................................................................................... PART II: In about 140 words, write a paragraph on one of the following topics: 1/. Measures to protect endangered animals. 2/. Women’s roles in modern society have been changing over the past few decades. ................................................................................................................................................. ................................................................................................................................................. ................................................................................................................................................. ................................................................................................................................................. ..................................................................................................................................................

(234) ................................................................................................................................................. ................................................................................................................................................. ................................................................................................................................................. ................................................................................................................................................. ................................................................................................................................................. ................................................................................................................................................. ................................................................................................................................................. ................................................................................................................................................. ................................................................................................................................................. ................................................................................................................................................. ................................................................................................................................................. ................................................................................................................................................. ................................................................................................................................................. ................................................................................................................................................. ................................................................................................................................................. THE END..

(235) ANSWER KEYS SECTION A: MULTIPLE CHOICES 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8. D A C C B C A B. 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16. C A D C D A C D. 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24. A B A C A B A C. 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32. D B C B D A A C. 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40. C C C A A C A A. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48. D B B D D A B A. 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56. D B C D D A B C. 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64. B D A D C A B A. SECTION B: WRITING PART I: Question 65: The last time I went to that town was ten years ago. It is/has been ten years since I last went to that town. ....................................................... Question 66: “I’m sorry, Jackie. I didn’t tell you the problem earlier,” said Steven. Steven apologized to Jackie for not telling him the problem earlier. ................................ Question 67: It was such a beautiful creature that everyone stopped to have a look. So beautiful was the creature that everyone stopped to have a look. .............................. Question 68: Jenny finds it very much relaxing to listen to this wonderful type of music. It’s very much relaxing for Jenny to listen to this wonderful type of music. .................. Question 69: That boy gets more depressed when the weather becomes hotter. The hotter the weather [becomes], the more depressed the boy gets. .............................. PART II: Theo hướng dẫn của đề thi minh hoạ. HẾT. ĐỀ SỐ 27: ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT 2015 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions 1 to 5. 1. A. desert B. president C. season D. usual 2. A. author B. daughter C. laugh D. taught 3. A. four B. journey C. pour D. your 4. A. umbrella B. ugly C. until D. united 5. A. general B. gesture C. energy D. organize Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction 6 to 10..

(236) 6.. People use to know more or less how their children would live. A B C D 7. Because he has a very important job, he is not well paid. A B C D 8. They have lived next door to us for years; therefore, we’ve hardly ever seen them. A B C D 9. The national curriculum is set by the government and must follow in all state schools. A B C D 10. A more electricity you use, the higher your bill will be. A B C D Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the corresponding sentence to have the same meaning as the original one provided above in each of the following ones from 11 to 15. 11. I started working for the company a year ago. A. I’ve been in this company a year ago. B. It’s a year since I started working for the company. C. It’s the company that I started work a year ago. D. It’s a year that I work for the company. 12. My sister didn’t leave the car key, so I couldn’t pick her up at the airport. A. If my sister left the car key, I would pick her up at the airport. B. If my sister had left the car key, I would have picked her up at the airport. C. If my sister have left the car key, I would have picked her up at the airport. D. If my sister had left the car key, I could pick her up at the airport. 13. I received a letter this morning. It really upset me. A. I received a letter this morning really upset me. B. I received a letter this morning which really upset me. C. I received a letter this morning in which really upset me. D. I received a letter this morning from which really upset me. 14. They went out in spite of the heavy rain. A. Although it rains heavily, they went out. B. Although it rained heavy, they went out. C. Although it rained heavily, they went out. D. Although it rains heavy, they went out. 15. “Please could you wake me up at 7 o’clock tomorrow morning?” I said to the doorman. A. I said to the doorman if he wakes me up at 7 o’clock the following morning. B. I said the doorman if he wakes me up at 7 o’clock in the following morning. C. I asked the doorman whether he wakes me up at 7 o’clock in the following morning. D. I asked the doorman to wake me up at 7 o’clock the following morning. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions 16 to 40. 16. WHO stands _________ World Health Organization. A. as B. for C. of D. with 17. You can _________ the new words in the dictionary. A. fill in B. look up C. put on D. take off 18. Henri Dunant asked to found societies devoted _________ helping the wounded..

(237) 19.. A. at B. by C. for Swimming is related to _________ sporting activities. A. water- base B. water- based C. water- basing. D. to. D. waterbases 20. Ann: “_________ is it from here to your school? ” -Jack: “ About 10 minutes’ walk. ” A. How far B. How long C. How often D. How fast 21. You should know _________ a thick good book quickly. A. to read B. reading C. how to read D. the way for reading 22. Look! The water is _________. A. blowing B. lifting C. raising D. rising 23. Water polo _________ with a ball in a pool and people play it in a team. A. plays B. played C. is played D. is playing 24. The Vietnamese Women’s Football team _________ defended the SEA Games Champion title. A. success B. successful C. successfully D. succeed 25. The suitcase seemed to get _________ as I carried it upstairs. A. heaviest B. as heavy C. heavy and heavy D. heavier and heavier 26. Aquatic sports involve _________ in or upon the water. A. playing B. to play C. played D. play 27. A: Would you like me to get it for you? – B: _________. A. Go ahead, please B. I’m glad to C. No problem D. Me, too 28. Honshu Island, Japan _________ by a tsunami on March 11, 2011. A. strikes B. is struck C. has struck D. was struck 29. _________ little knowledge is _________ dangerous thing. A. A - a B. A - Ø C. Ø - a D. Ø - Ø 30. Luckily, you are _________ time for the meeting. A. at B. by C. in D. on 31. We have to contribute _________ up our country. A. to build B. building C. to building D. in building 32. Lan is said _________ a special prize. A. that won B. to have won C. to winning D. that she won 33. Look at the man _________ in the classroom. A. teaches B. teaching C. is teaching D. that teaching 34. I _________ it to you had you told me earlier. A. would give B. had given C. will give D. would have given 35. He is _________ busy a man that he really needs a helper. A. so B. such C. very D. quite 36. Jack: “ I don’t like her dress. ” -Jill: “_________. ” A. I do, too B. I don’t also C. I don’t, either D. I like not 37. Lora: “ How do you do ? ” -Jane: “_________ ”.

(238) A. I am a nurse B. I am doing OK C. I work in a bank D. How do you do? 38. They spoke _________ for us to understand. A. slow enough B. so slowly C. too slow D. slowly enough 39. You can drive my car _________ you drive carefully. A. unless B. as long as C. therefore D. although 40. Clara: “Would you mind helping me with these heavy boxes?” -Tom: “_________” A. My God! B. Yes, I would! C. Not at all! D. What a pity! Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks from 41 to 45. BOOKS Nearly all the discoveries that have been made through the ages can (41)_______ in books. The invention of the book is one of humankind’s (42)_______ achievements, the importance of which can not be overestimated. Books are very adaptable, providing us with both entertainment and information. The production of books began in Ancient (43)_______, though not in the form that is accessible to us today. The books read by the Romans, however, have some similarities to the ones we read now. Until the middle of the 15 th century, in Europe, all books were written by hand. They were ofen (44)_______ illustrated and always rare and expensive. With printing came the possibility of cheap, large-scale publication and distribution of books making (45)_______ more widespread and recognizable. 41. A. find B. founded C. be found D. found 42. A. greatest B. greater C. great D. greatly 43. A. China B. Egypt C. England D. America 44. A. beauty B. beautify C. beautiful D. beautifully 45. A. knowledge B. know C. known D. knowledgeable Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 46 to 50. The problem of the use of our natural resources may be divided into four parts. These deal with trees, soil, water and minerals. In a sense, the first three are closely related, for water is a great destroyer of soil, and trees are its great protectors. Trees need both soil and water to grow. And water, to be of any real use, needs to be kept by soil and trees. Minerals are apart. They exist where they are because of the changing physical nature of the earth. Man has no control over the creation of the minerals, and once a particular supply has been used up, it is gone forever. Conservation programmes have been instituted by most governments to prevent these four essentials from reckless waste and to start the long process of repairing earlier damage to forests, soil and water supply. 46. The problem of the use of our natural resources may be divided into _________. A. two parts B. three parts C. four parts D. five parts 47. The relations between trees, soil and water _________. A. Water is a great destroyer of soil and trees are its great protectors B. Trees need both soil and water to grow, and water needs to be kept by soil and trees.

(239) C. A & B are incorrect D. A & B are correct Minerals exist where they are _________. A. because of the changing physical nature of the earth B. because they are also need to be kept by soil C. because they are great protectors D. All are correct When minerals are used up, _________. A. they can be restored B. they are gone forever C. they can be found soon D. they can be supplied again To prevent these four essentials from reckless waste, _________. A. man has to have control over the creation of the minerals B. most governments have instituted conservation programmes C. man mustn’t cut trees D. man mustn’t destroy minerals. 48.. 49. 50.. 1D 2C 3B 4D 5D. 6A 7A 8C 9D 10A. 11B 12B 13B 14C 15D. 16B 17B 18D 19B 20A. KEY 21C 26A 22D 27A 23C 28D 24C 29C 25D 30C. 31C 32B 33B 34D 35B. 36C 37D 38D 39B 40C. 41C 42A 43B 44D 45A. 46C 47D 48A 49B 50B. ĐỀ SỐ 28: ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT 2015 Choose the best option to complete each of the following senetences. 1. ______, we couldn't have continued with the project. A. Unless we had your contribution B. Provided your contribution wouldn't come C. Even if you didn't like to contribute D. If you hadn't contributed positively 2. Alex did not do very well in class ______. A. therefore he was a good student B. because he failed to study properly C. although he was not hard-working D. as long as he had studied badly 3. The more you talk about the situation, ______. A. it seems the worse B. the worse it seems C. it seems worse D. the worse does it seem 4. Those boys took a long ladder ______. A. so they will get the ball from the roof B. and then get the ball from the roof C. in order to get the ball from the roof D. so that the ball from the roof can be gotten.

(240) 5. She regretted to tell him that ______. A. she was leaving the tickets at home B. the tickets at home would be left C. she would have left the tickets at home D. she had left the tickets at home Read the following passage and choose the correct answer. By adopting a few simple techniques, parents who read to their children can considerably increase their children's language development. It is surprising, but true. How parents talk to their children makes a big difference in the children's language development. If a parent encourages the child to actively respond to what the parent is reading, the child's language skills increase. A study was done with two or three-year-old children and their parents. Half of the thirty children participants were in the experimental study; the other half acted as the control group. In the experimental group, the parents were given a two-hour training session in which they were taught to ask open-ended questions rather than yes-no questions. For example, the parent should ask, "What is the doggy doing?" rather than, "Is the doggy running away?" Experimental parents were also instructed how to expand on their children's answer, how to suggest alternative possibilities, and how to praise correct answers. At the beginning of the study, the children did not differ on levels of language development, but at the end of one month, the children in the experimental group were 5.5 months ahead of the control group on a test of verbal expression and vocabulary. Nine months later, the children in the experimental group still showed an advance of 6 months over the children in the control group. 6. Parents can give great help to their children's language development by _____ them. A. adopting B. responding to C. experimenting D. reading to 7. What does the word "they" in the second paragraph refer to? A. Participants B. Questions C. Children D. Parents 8. During the training session, experimental parents were taught to _____. A. study many experiments B. use yes-no questions C. give correct answers D. ask open-ended questions 9. What was the major difference between the control group and the experimental one in the study? A. The training that parents received. B. The books that were read. C. The age of the children. D. The number of participants. 10. What conclusion can be drawn from this passage? A. Children who read actively always act six months earlier than those who don't. B. Children's language skills increase when they are required to respond actively. C. Two or three-year-old children can be taught to read actively. D. The more children read, the more intelligent they become. Choose the letter to show the underlined part that needs correction. 11. She brought a lot of money with her so that she needed buy some duty-free goods. A B C D 12. I have been working hardly for two weeks and now I feel like a rest..

(241) A B C D 13. Tom likes taking part sports, so he will join the football team of his school. A B C D 14. Many young people lack skills, good education, and financial to settle in the urban areas where A B C many jobs are found. D 15. We are going to visit our grandparents when we will finish our final exams. A B C D Choose the letter to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 16. They are not ______ to take part in this program of the World Health Organization. A. as old B. enough old C. old enough D. so old 17. I'm going ______ for a few days so don’t send me any more work. A. in B. after C. over D. away 18. A scientist who studies living things is a ______. A. biologist B. biologically C. biology D. biological 19. The football match was postponed ______ the bad weather. A. because B. in spite C. despite D. because of 20. Yesterday I met your brother, ______ had taken us to the Headquarters of the United Nations in New York before. A. who B. whose C. whom D. that 21. ______ students attended the meeting that there weren't enough chairs for all of them. A. Too many B. So many C. So few D. So much 22. Peter doesn't like scuba-diving. ______ does his brother. A. Too B. Neither C. Either D. So 23. Endangered species ______ by the World Wildlife Fund. A. will protect B. would protect C. be protected D. are protected 24. Maria: "Thanks for the lovely evening." –Diana: "______." A. Oh, that's right B. I'm glad you enjoyed it C. No, it's not good D. Yes, it's really great 25. High school students should be ______ for their future jobs before leaving school. A. ill-spoken B. ill-prepared C. well-prepared D. wellspoken 26. The government initiated the programme of ______ reform in the 1980s..

(242) A. economically B. economic C. economised D. economist 27. Kim: "What ______ this weekend?" –Sally: "Oh, we're going windsurfing. It's fantastic!" A. are you doing B. do you go C. would you do D. are you going 28. She didn't want to go ______ she knew all her friends would be there. A. wherever B. so that C. therefore D. even though 29. If I had the map now, I ______ a shortcut across the desert. A. could have taken B. take C. can take D. could take 30. Kevin: "How far is it from here to the nearest post office?" –Lan: "______." A. Two kilometers at least B. Turn left and then turn right C. No, it's rather far D. Yes, it's quite near here 31. Pat: "Would you like something to eat?" –Kathy: "______. I'm not hungry now." A. Yes, it is B. No, thanks C. Yes, I would D. No, no problem 32. I first met her two years ago when we ______ at Oxford University. A. have been studying B. had been studying C. were studying D. are studying 33. David: "Could you bring me some water?" –Waiter: "______." A. I don't want to B. Yes, I can C. No, I can't D. Certainly, sir 34. The recycling of waste paper ______ save a great amount of wood pulp. A. had better B. need C. can D. dare 35. If I were you, I would advise her ______ the new teaching method. A. trying B. try C. to try D. tries 36. He went back to work in his country after he ______ his course on Advanced Engineering in London. A. finishes B. has finished C. had finished D. was finishing 37. Ellen: "______?" –Tom: "He's tall and thin with blue eyes." A. What does John look like B. Who does John look like C. How is John doing D. What does John like 38. Could you fill out this ______ form? A. applying B. applicable C. application D. applicant 39. My father decided to ______ smoking after he had been smoking for ten years. A. give up B. get over C. put away D. take up 40. My father is very busy. ______, he is always willing to give a hand with the housework..

(243) A. However B. Despite C. Therefore D. Although Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest 41. A. thought B. laugh C. eight D. high 42. A. promise B. despite C. economize D. enterprise 43. A. already B. ease C. appeal {request} D. team 44. A. scholar B. aching C. chemist D. approach 45. A. decided B. engaged C. expected D. attracted Read the following passage and choose the correct word for each of the blanks. It can be shown in facts and figures that cycling is the cheapest, most convenient, and most environmentally desirable form of transport (46)______ towns, but such cold calculations do not mean much on a frosty winter morning. The real appeal of cycling is that it is so (47)______. It has none of the difficulties and tensions of other ways of travelling so you are more cheerful after a ride, even through the rush hour. The first thing a non-cyclist says to you is. "But isn't it (48)______ dangerous?" It would be foolish to deny the danger of sharing the road with motor vehicles and it must be admitted that there are an alarming (49)______ of accidents involving cyclists. However, although police records (50)______ that the car driver is often to blame, the answer lies with the cyclist. It is possible to ride in such a way as to reduce risks to a minimum. 46. A. to B. at C. in D. on 47. A. boring B. careful C. enjoyable D. excited 48. A. expectedly B. strangely C. comfortably D. terribly 49. A. number B. deal C. size D. digit 50. A. point B. exhibit C. indicate D. display KEY 1D 6D 11C 16C 21B 26B 31B 36C 41B 46C 2B 7D 12B 17D 22B 27A 32C 37A 42A 47C 3D 8D 13A 18A 23D 28D 33D 38C 43 48D 4C 9A 14B 19D 24B 29D 34C 39A 44D 49A 5D 10B 15D 20A 25C 30A 35C 40A 45B 50C. ĐỀ SỐ 29: SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC TRƯỜNG THPT LIỄN SƠN (ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT). ĐỀ THI THỬ THQG NĂM 2015 MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH – ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 185 Thời gian: 90 phút. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks from 1 to 10..

(244) Experiments have proved that children can be instructed in swimming at a very early age. At a special (1)___ in Los Angeles, children become expert at holding their (2)___ under water even before they can walk. Babies of two months old do not appear to be reluctant to enter the (3) ___.It is not long before they are so accustomed to (4) ___ that they can pick up weights from the (5) ___ of the pool. A game that is very popular with these young (6) ___ is the underwater tricycle race. Tricycles are lined up on the floor of the pool seven feet under (7) ___. The children compete against each other to reach the other end of the (8) ___. Many pedal their tricycles, but most of them prefer to push or drag them. Some children can cover the whole length of the pool (9) ___ coming up for breath even once. Whether they will ever become future Olympic champions, only time will tell. Meanwhile, they should encourage those among us who cannot swim five yards (10) ___ they are gasping for air. Question 1: A. swimming pool B. church C. stadium D. park Question 2: A. clothes B. breath C. hands D. heads Question 3: A. swimming pool B. water C. house D. club Question 4: A. jogging B. talking C. swimming D. walking Question 5: A. top B. side C. base D. floor Question 6: A. swimmers B. football- layers C. singers D. coaches Question 7: A. age B. ground C. water D. sun Question 8: A. sea B. pool C. lake D. river Question 9: A. owing to B. by C. with D. without Question 10: A. before B. after C. when D. as soon as Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 11 to 20. History books record that the first film with sound was The Jazz Singer in 1927. But sound films, or "talkies", did not suddenly appear after years of silent screenings. From the earliest public performances in 1896, films were accompanied by music and sound effects. These were produced by a single pianist, a small band, or a full-scale orchestra; large movie theatres could buy- sound-effects machines. Research into sound that was reproduced at exactly the same time as the pictures – called "synchronized sound" – began soon after the very first films were shown. With synchronized sound, characters on the movie screen could sing and speak. As early as 1896, the newly invented gramophone, which played a large disc carrying music and dialogue, was used as a sound system. The biggest disadvantage was that the sound and pictures could become unsynchronized if, for example, the gramophone needle jumped or if the speed of the projector changed. This system was only effective for a single song or dialogue sequence. In the "sound-on-film" system, sounds were recorded as a series of marks on celluloid which could be read by an optical sensor. These signals would be placed on the film alongside the image, guaranteeing synchronization. Short feature films were produced in this way as early as 1922. This system eventually brought us "talking pictures". Question 11: The passage is mainly about the______..

(245) A. history of silent movies B. disadvantages of synchronized sound C. development of sound with movies D. research into sound reproduction Question 12: According to the passage, films using sound effects were screened______ A. before 1896 B. as early as 1896 C. as early as 1922 D. in 1927 Question 13: The word "screenings" is closest in meaning to ______ . A. projections B. revelations C. demonstrations D. diversions Question 14: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a producer of sound to accompany movies? A. a jazz singer B. a single pianist C. a small band D. a gramophone Question 15: It can be inferred that______ . A. most movie theatres had a pianist B. sound-effects machines were not common because they were expensive C. orchestras couldn't synchronize sound with pictures D. gramophones were developed about the same time as moving pictures Question 16: According to the passage, gramophones were ineffective because they ______. A. got out of synchronization with the picture B. were too large for most movie theatres C. were newly invented and still had imperfections D. changed speeds when the needle jumped Question 17: The word "sequence" is closest in meaning to ______. A. interpretation B. progression C. distribution D. organization Question 18: The phrase "these signals" refers to______. A. sounds B. series C. marks D. sensors Question 19: According to the passage, sound-on-film guaranteed synchronization because the recording was_____. A. made during the filming of the picture B. read by an optical sensor C. inserted beside the image on the film D. marked on the gramophone Question 20: Short feature films produced as early as 1922 _____. A. were recorded by optical sensors B. put musicians out of work C. were only effective for dialogue sequences D. preceded talking pictures Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 21 to 30..

(246) Today's cars are smaller, safer, cleaner, and more economical than their predecessors, but the car of the future will be far more pollution-free than those on the road today. Several new types of automobile engines have already been developed that run on alternative sources of power, such as electricity, compressed natural gas, methanol, steam, hydrogen, and propane. Electricity, however, is the only zeroemission option presently available. Although electric vehicles will not be truly practical until a powerful, compact battery or other dependable source of current is available, transportation experts foresee a new assortment of electric vehicles entering everyday life: shorter-range commuter electric cars, three-wheeled neighborhood cars, electric delivery vans, bikes, and trolleys. As automakers work to develop practical electrical vehicles, urban planners and utility engineers are focusing on infrastructure systems to support and make the best use of the new cars. Public charging facilities will need to be as common as today's gas stations. Public parking spots on the street or in commercial lots will need to be equipped with devices that allow drivers to charge their batteries while they stop, dine, or attend a concert. To encourage the use of electric vehicles, the most convenient parking in transportation centers might be reserved for electric cars. Planners foresee electric shuttle buses, trains, buses, and neighborhood vehicles all meeting at transit centers that would have facilities for charging and renting. Commuters will be able to rent a variety of electric cars to suit their needs: light trucks, one-person three-wheelers, small cars, or electric/gasoline hybrid cars for longer trips, which will no doubt take place on automated freeways capable of handling five times the number of vehicles that can be carried by a freeway today. Question 21:. The following electrical vehicles are all mentioned in the passage except ______ A. vans. B. trains. C. planes. D. trolleys. Question 22: The author's purpose in the passage is to ______ A. criticize conventional vehicles. C. narrate a story about alternative energy vehicles. B. support the invention of electric cars. D. describe the possibilities for transportation in the future. Question 23: The passage would most likely be followed by details about ______ A. automated freeways. B. pollution restrictions in the future. C. the neighborhood of the future. D. electric shuttle buses. Question 24:. The word "compact" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ______ A. long-range. B. inexpensive. C. concentrated. D. squared. Question 25: In the second paragraph the author implies that ______ A. a dependable source of electric energy will eventually be developed. B. everyday life will stay much the same in the future..

(247) C. a single electric vehicle will eventually replace several modes of transportation D. electric vehicles are not practical for the future. Question 26: According to the passage, public parking lots of the future will be ______ A. more convenient than they are today. B. equipped with charging devices. C. much larger than they are today D. as common as today's gas stations. Question 27: The word "charging" in this passage refers to ______ A. electricity. B. credit cards. C. aggression. D. lightning. Question 28: The word "foresee" in this passage could best be replaced with ______ A. count on. B. invent. C. imagine. D. rely on. Question 29: The word "commuters" in paragraph 4 refers to ______ A. daily travelers. B. visitors C cab drivers. D. shoppers. Question 30:. The word "hybrid" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______ A. combination. B. hazardous. C. futuristic. D. automated. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction. Question 31: I couldn't give the teacher the summary of the lesson until Julia whispered some words into his ears. A B C D Question 32: Those who have never been abroad is A Question 33: I will have you to A. eager to see how different the other cultures are. B. C. D. know how bad your behaviour is. B. C. Question 34: Peter has gone on a sailing course in A B. D. spite being unable to swim C. D. Question 35: You have unnecessary sent me the copies of the files which have been sorted out. A B C D. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 36: The students were slow to catch ______ but gradually they began to understand. A. in B. on C. away D. out Question 37: The soldier was punished for_____ to obey his commanding officer’s orders. A. refusing B. regretting D. objecting D. resisting Question 38:. She’ll be a millionaire by the time she ______ forty. A. is B. was C. will be D. is going to Question 39: ______the rise in unemployment, people still seem to be spending more..

(248) A. Nevertheless B. Meanwhile C. despite D. Although Question 40: Their flat is decorated in a ______ combination of color. A. tasteful B. sweet C. delicious D. tasty Question 41: I wish you ______ stop interrupting me whenever I speak. A. will B. would C. did D. might Question 42: This ring is made of plastic so it is quite ______. A. valuable B. invaluable C. worthless D. priceless Question 43: You can’t enter this camp without ______ from the General. A. control B. a demand C. a permit D. an allowance Question 44: Tony’s boss doesn’t want him to ______ a habit of using the office phone for personal calls. A. make B. do C. have D. increase Question 45: She ______ her husband’s job for his ill health. A. accused B. blamed C. caused D. claimed Question 46: He ______ the bowl of soap all over the table- cloth. A. stained B. spilt C. scatted D. set Question 47: It’s time we ______ this old car and bought new one. A. will sell B. had sold C. have sold D. sold Question 48: As ______ as I know, we have not received a bill for the new computer. A. much B. long C. soon D. far Question 49: The project was rejected because of ______ funds. A. B. inconsiderable C. incomplete D. insufficient unavailable Question 50: She is ______ to leave as soon as possible. A. cautious B. anxious C. worried D. nervous Question 51: Ann agreed to stay behind; she was used to ______ late. A. working B. have worked C. work D. being worked Question 52: We look everywhere but the intruder was nowhere ______ A. to see B. seen C. to be seen D. having seen Question 53: I haven’ time to speak to him now, you’ll have to put him ______ A. off B. back C. aside D. away Question 54:. Nobody seems to be ______ control of these children. A. under B. over C. with D. in Question 55: The coins are ______ to be over a thousand years old. A. described B. said C. told D. mentioned Question 56: I bought this grammar book______ I could not go over all the things we have studied this year. A. that B. so that C. seeing that D. so far as Question 57: You know I’ll always stand ______ you if you are in trouble. A. by B. with C. for D. up Question 58: Hair colour is one of ____ characteristics to be used in identifying people..

(249) A. the most obviously B. most obvious C. obviously the most D. the most obvious Question 59: I would appreciate it _______ what I have told you a secret. A. you can keep B. that you kept C. you will keep D. if you kept Question 60: My cat would not have bitten the toy fish _______ it was made of rubber. A. if she has known B. if she should know C. had she known D. if she knew Question 61: I wish I hadn't said it. If only I could _______. A. turn the clock round B. turn the clock down C. turn the clock back D. turn the clock forward Question 62: _______, the results couldn't be better. A. No matter what he tried hard B. No matter how hard he tried C. Although very hard he tried D. Despite how hard he tried Question 63: He gave me his personal _______ that his draft would be ready by Friday. A. endurance B. insurance C. assurance D. ensurance Question 64: They will stay there for some days if the weather _______ fine. A. would be B. was C. is D. will be Question 65: Many people like the slow _______ of life in the countryside. A. step B. pace C. speed D. space Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 66: The exercise is so difficult that the students can't do it. A. The teacher is so difficult that the students can't do the exercise. B. It's such difficult exercise that the students can't do it. C. The exercise is too difficult for the students to do. D. The exercise is too difficult for the students to be unable to do it. Question 67: She prefers watching TV to listening to music. A. She'd rather watch TV than listen to music. B. Watching TV is what she prefers more than listen to music. C. She prefers not only watching TV but also listening to music. D. She likes both watching TV and listening to music better. Question 68: It's been ages since I went to the cinema. A. I didn't go to the cinema ago ages. B. My age has been enough to go to the cinema. C. I've been to the cinema since ages. D. I haven't been to the cinema for ages. Question 69: It's important that someone meets Mr. Andrews at the airport. A. Importantly for someone must meet Mr. Andrews at the airport. B. Mr. Andrews is important to meet someone at the airport. C. Someone is important to meet Mr. Andrews at the airport. D. Mr. Andrews must be met at the airport..

(250) Question 70: It would be a good idea to change your hairstyle. A. An idea is to would change your good hairstyle. B. Your hairstyle is changing; it would be a great idea. C. You had better change your hairstyle. D. I have an idea to change your hairstyle for good. Question 71: I'm sure you were driving too fast. A. I'm certainly that you were driving too fast. B. You must have been driving too fast. C. My uncertainty is that you were driving too fast. D. That you were driving too fast is my uncertainty. Question 72: If he's not in the office, then I'm sure he's working at home. A. If he's not in, then I'm sure he's working in the office. B. I'm sure he works neither at home nor in the office. C. I'm sure he doesn't work either at home or in the office. D. If he's not in the office, he must be working at home. Question 73: She asked Janet to repeat what she had said. A. “Will you please repeat what Janet said?”, she asked. B. “Please repeat what Janet had said.”, she asked. C. “Please repeat what you say, Janet.”, she said. D. “Please repeat what you said,. Janet.” , she said Question 74: I hardly know the truth about Jean’s success in the institute. A. Jean’s success in the institute was not to be known. B. It is difficult for Jean to be successful in the institute. C. I do not know much about Jean’s success in the institute . D. Jean hardly become known and successful in the institute. Question 75: People believed that the boys started the fire. A. The boys were believed to have started the fire . B. That the boys started the fire was believed. C. It is believed that the fire was started by the boys. D. It is believed that the boys started the fire.. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. Question 76: A. obtain B. neglect C. necessary D. mature Question 77: A. material B. magnificent C. considerable D. literature Question 78: A. investigate B. introduce C. guarantee D. generation Question 79: A. gather B. fortune C. abandon D. temperate Question 80: A. separate B. satellite C. satisfy D. routine ------------- THE END ----------. ĐỀ SỐ 30:.

(251) SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC ĐỀ THI THỬ THQG NĂM 2015 TRƯỜNG THPT LIỄN SƠN MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH – ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 171 (ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT) Thời gian: 90 phút Blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions 1 The more a boxer fights, the higher the chance that s/he will get brain damage A. There is a high chance that a boxer will become brain- damaged when s/ he fights B. Boxers have a higher chance of getting brain damage than other people, as they fight more C. The boxers that fight too often are the only one at risk of having their brains damaged. D. The risk of a boxer’s brain being damaged increases with the number of his or her fights. 2. In my whole life, nothing has fascinated me as much as woodcarving has been doing recently A. Woodcarving is such a fascinating activity that, for the first time in my life, I am actually enjoying doing something B. I am glad that I have taken up woodcarving, since nothing before has attracted my interest so much C. I have never been as interested in anything before as I am now in woodcarving D. I’m really interested in woodcarving, and in fact I have rarely been as happy doing anything as I am doing it 3. There is, in fact, less alcohol in beer than there is in wine, though the former’s taste is more bitter A. Beer tastes much more bitter than wine because of its lower alcohol content. B. Despite tasting less bitter, wine actually contains a higher amount of alcohol than beer does C. Although beer is not as good-tasting as wine, it is just as full of alcohol D. The more bitter taste of beer as compared with wine indicates that the former does not have as much alcohol as the latter. 4. The likelihood of suffering a heart attack rises as one becomes increasingly obese. A. Anyone who is obese is likely to experience a heart attack at any time B. Heart attacks are happening more and more often, and most of the sufferers are obese C. Obesity results in only a slight increase in the probability of having a heart attack D. The more obese one is, the higher the chances for heart attack become. 5. This book is probably the most boring one that I have ever read. A. I would never have guessed that the book would be so terribly dull B. Many other books that I have ever read have been as uninteresting as this one. C. It’s very likely that every other book I have ever read in my life is more interesting than this one D. A number of books are supposedly as boring as this one, but I have not read any of them Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from other words. 6. A. honest B. home C. vehicles D. heiress 7. A. youths B. maps C. cigarettes D. months 8. A. hole B. nose C. lost D. only 9. A. thorough B. without C. although D. mouths 10. A. permission B. ship C. decision D. inversion Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from other words. 11. A. escape B. lotion C. prefer D. review 12. A. discourage B. document C. general D. politics 13. A. assure B. behind C. grateful D. regrets 14. A. appointment B. argument C. arrival D. enjoyment 15. A. accommodate B. appreciate C. accessory D. competition Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions The Native American peoples of the north Pacific Coast created a highly complex maritime culture as they invented modes of production unique to their special environment. In addition to their sophisticated.

(252) technical culture, they also attained one of the most complex social organizations of any nonagricultural people in the world. In a division of labor similar to that of the hunting peoples in the interior and among foraging peoples throughout the world, the men did most of the fishing, and the women processed the catch. Women also specialized in the gathering of the abundant shellfish that lived closer to shore. They collected oysters, crabs, sea urchins, mussels, abalone, and clams, which they could gather while remaining close to their children. The maritime life harvested by the women not only provided food, but also supplied more of the raw materials for making tools than did fish gathered by the men. Of particular importance for the native tool than did the fish gathered by the men. Of particular made from the larger mussel shells, and a variety of cutting edges that could be made from other marine shells. The women used their tools to process all of the fish and marine mammals brought in by the men. They cleaned the fish, and dried vast quantities of them for the winter. They sun-dried fish when practical, but in the rainy climate of the coastal area they also used smokehouses to preserve tons of fish and other seafood annually. Each product had its own peculiar characteristics that demanded a particular way of cutting or drying the meat, and each task required its own cutting blades and other utensils. After drying the fish, the women pounded some of them into fish meal, which was an easily transported food used in soups, stews, or other dishes to provide protein and thickening in the absence of fresh fish or while on long trips. The women also made a cheese-like substance from a mixture of fish and roe by aging it in storehouses or by burying it in wooden boxes or pits lined with rocks and tree leaves. 16. Which aspect of the lives of the Native Americans of the north Pacific Coast does the passage mainly discuss? A. Methods of food preservation B. How diet was restricted by the environment C. The contributions of women to the food supply D. Difficulties in establishing successful farms 17. The word “unique” in line 2 is closest in meaning to____. A. comprehensible B. productive C. intentional D. particular 18. The word “attained” in line 3 is closest in meaning to____. A. achieved B. modified C. demanded D. spread 19. It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that the social organization of many agricultural peoples is____. A. more complex than that of hunters and foragers B. less efficient than that of hunters and foragers C. more widespread than that of hunters and foragers D. better documented than that of hunters and foragers 20. According to the passage, what is true of the “division of labor” mentioned in line 5? A. It was first developed by Native Americans of the north Pacific Coast. B. It rarely existed among hunting C. It was a structure that the Native Americans of the north Pacific Coast shared with many other peoples. D. It provided a form of social organization that was found mainly among coastal peoples. 21. The word “abundant” in line 7 is closest in meaning to ____. A. prosperous B. plentiful C. acceptable D. fundamental 22. All of the following are true of the north Pacific coast women EXCEPT that they_____. A. were more likely to catch shellfish than other kinds of fish B. contributed more materials for tool making than the men did C. sometimes searched for food far inland from the coast D. prepared and preserved the fish 23. The word “They” in line 16 refers to____. A. women B. tools C. mammals D. men 24. The Native Americans of the north Pacific Coast used smokehouses in order to____. A. store utensils used in food preparation B. prevent fish and shellfish from spoiling C. have a place to store fish and shellfish D. prepare elaborate meals 25. The word “peculiar” in line 19 is closest in meaning to_____. A. strange B. distinctive C. appealing D. biological 26. All of following are true of the cheese-like substance mentioned in paragraph 4 EXCEPT that it was____. A made from fish B. not actually cheese C. useful on long journeys D. made in a short period of time.

(253) Identify the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct: 27. Each chemical element is characterized to the number of protons that an atom of that element contains, called its atomic number A B C D 28. From 1905 to 1920, American novelist Edith Wharton was at the height of her writing career, publishing of her three most famous novels. A B C D 29. Although pure diamond is colorless and transparent, when contaminated with other material it may appear in various color, ranging from Pastels to opaque black. A B C D 30. In the 1970’s, consumer activities succeeded in promoting laws that set safety standard for automobiles, children ‘s clothing, and a widely range of household products A B C D 31. Zoos in New Orleans, San Diego, and the Bronx have become biological parks where animals roams free and people watch them across a moat. A B C D 32. In human beings, as in other mammal, hairs around the eyes and ears and in the nose, prevent dust, insects, and other matter from entering the organs. A B C D 33. Because of its vast tracts of virtually uninhabited northern forest, Canada has one of the lowest population density in the world. A B C D 34. Rice, which it still forms the staple diet of much of the world’s population grows best in hot, wet lands A B C D 35. Electric lamps came into widespread use during the early 1900’s and have replaced other type of fat, gas or oil lamps for almost even purpose. A B C D 36. Dinosaurs are traditionally classified as cold- blooded reptiles, but recent evidence based on eating habits, posture, and skeletal structural suggests some may have been warm-blooded. A B C D Choose A, B, C or D to complete the following sentences 37. The cast ____ several times and then left the stage to wild applause. A. bowed B. ducked C. crouched D. stooped 38. The pilot spoke to the passengers to ____ their fears when the plane entered a storm. A. allay B. deter C. soothe D. placate 36. Then he started out on what ____ to be a very eventful journey A. proved B. arose C. turned D. developed. 37. I think you are being ____ pessimistic and that you’ll do better than you expect A. additionally B. abundantly C. unduly D. worthlessly 38. She often appears not to care about her work, but appearance can be____. A. cunning B. deceitful C. deceptive D. insincere 39. In ____ to them, it wasn’t their fault that the party went so badly A. fairness B. justice C. recognition D. sympathy 40. Peter isn’t keen on exercise, but he isn’t ____ to the occasional walk A. averse B. unwilling C. reluctant D. contrary 41. It is difficult to decide on the best ____ of action in these circumstances A. measure B. course C. process D. policy 42. He has been with the company for 35 years, but the management has now decided to ____ with his services. A. discard B. dispense C. disuse D. dismiss 43. Richard is ____ to give up immediately when faced with any problems. A habitual B. subject C. susceptible D. apt 44. With the exception of mercury,____ at standard temperature and pressure. A. The metallic elements are solid B. which is a solid metallic element C. metallic elements being sold D. since the metallic elements are solid. 45. The computer has dramatically affected____ photographic lenses are constructed. A. is the way B. that the way C. which way do D. the way.

(254) 46. In bacteria and in other organisms, ____ is the nucleic acid DNA that provides the genetic information A. both B. which C. and D. it. 47. Although thunder and lightning are produced at the same time, light waves travel faster____ , so we see the lightning before we hear the thunder. A. than sounds do waves B. than sound waves are C. than do sound waves D. sound waves 48. Richard Wright enjoyed success and influences____ among Black American writers of his eras A. were paralleled B. are unparalleled C. unparalleled D. the unparalleled 49. ____ kind of organization throughout the world uses computers to conduct business, A. Virtually all B. Virtually every C. Nearly most D. Nearly all 50. One of the first exercises in math class is____ measure the radius of a circle. A. to learn and B. learning to C. learn to D. to learn how to 51. Which sentence is grammatically true? A. born in the mid- to late-1980s and the 1990s, children have been labeled the “Internet Generation”: the first generation growing up in a world where the Internet was always present. B. born in the mid- to late-1980s and the 1990s, they have labeled the “Internet Generation”: the first generation to grow up in a world where the Internet was always present. C. Being born in the mid- to late-1980s and the 1990s, children have been labeled the “Internet Generation”: the first generation to grow up in a world where the Internet was always present. D. born in the mid- to late-1980s and the 1990s, children have been labeled the “Internet Generation”: the first generation to grow up in a world where the Internet was always present. 52. ____ in most of this discourse about the Internet Generation and its transformative potential is the continued presence and influence of adults in the larger digital landscape inhabited by young people. A. Neglecting B. Having neglected C. Neglected D. Being neglected 53. The present experiment explored the relationship between academic confidence and performance within a college setting ____ both self-ratings and peer-ratings. A. uses B. by use C. used D. using 54. Finally, this experiment measured evaluations of confidence and performance as rated by participants' peers, ____ a multi-trait multi-method matrix. A. yield B. yielded C. yielding D. yields 55. We explored the caves enthusiastically, ____ A. Jim acted like an experienced guider B acting Jim like an experienced guider C. Jim acting as an experienced guider D. Jim acted as an experienced guider. Read the following newspaper article about an expedition and answer questions 45 – 50. There are very few big adventures left and very few heroes. Children's stories used to specialize in them – courageous explorers with sun-burnt, leathery skin and eyes narrowed by straining to see into far horizons on their journeys into the unknown. These days you no longer find such people in fiction, let alone in real life. Or so I thought until I met Charles Blackmore. Blakemore’s great adventure consisted of leading an expedition across one of the last unexplored places on earth, the Taklamakan Desert in western China. Its name means `once entered you never come out', but local people call it the Desert of Death. He recalled the dangers and exhilaration of that amazing trek, in the calm atmosphere of his family home. The team he led was composed of four Britons (one of them the party' s medical officer), an American photographer, four Chinese (all experts on the area), 30 camels and six camel handlers. It later turned out that the camel handlers had never worked with camels before, but were long-distance lorry drivers: a misunderstanding that could have cost everyone their lives and certainly jeopardized the expedition's success. This mixed bunch set out to cross 1,200 kilometres of the world's least hospitable desert and Charles Blackmore has written a mesmerizing account of their journey. At the time, he was about to leave the Army after 14 happy years. He launched the expedition for fun, to fill a gap in his life, to prove something. `I had always assumed I'd spend my whole life in the Army. I had been offered promotion but suddenly I felt I wanted to see who Charles Blackmore really was, outside all that. It was a tremendous gamble. Tina, my wife, was very worried that I wouldn't come.

(255) back as nobody had ever done that route; we went into it blind. In the event, it took 59 days to cross from west to east, and the desert was very kind to us.' Anyone reading his extraordinary account of that crossing will wonder at the use of the word `kind'. The team suffered unspeakable hardships: dysentery; extremes of temperature; severe thirst and dehydration; the loss of part of their precious water supply. `But', Blackmore explains, `when we were at the limits of our own endurance and the camels had gone without water for seven days, we managed to find some. We didn't experience the Taklamakan's legendary sandstorms. And we never hit the raw, biting desert cold that would have totally immobilized us. That's not to say that we weren't fighting against hurdles the whole time. The fine sand got into everything, especially blisters and wounds. The high dunes were torture to climb, for us and for the heavily laden camels, which often rolled over onto us. `What drove me on more than anything else was the need to survive. We had no contingency plan. Neither our budget nor time allowed one. No aircraft ever flew over us. Once we got into the sandhills we were completely on our own. `I knew I had the mental stamina for the trip but I was very scared of my physical ability to do it. I remember day one — we sat at the edge of the desert and it was such an inferno that you couldn't breathe. I thought, "We've got to do it now!" At that moment I was a very scared man.' If it was like that at the beginning, how did they feel towards the end? `When you've walked for 1,000 kilometres you're not going to duck out. You've endured so much; you've got so much behind you. We were very thin, but very muscular and sinewy despite our physical exhaustion. My body was well-toned and my legs were like pistons. I could walk over anything.' Midway through the book, Blackmore went on to describe lying in the desert gazing up at a full moon, thinking of his family. How conscious was he of the ordeal it must have been for them? Inside me there's someone trying to find peace with himself. When I have doubts about myself now, I go back to the image of the desert and think, well, we managed to pull that together. As a personal achievement, I feel prouder of that expedition than of anything else I've done. Yet in terms of a lifetime's achievement, I think of my family and the happiness we share — against that yardstick, the desert does not measure up, does not compare.' Has Charles Blackmore found peace? `I yearn for the challenge — for the open spaces — the resolve of it all. We were buoyed up by the sense of purpose. I find it difficult now to be part of the uniformity of modem life.' 56 Meeting Charles Blackmore changed the writer’s opinion about ____. A the content of children’s fiction B the nature of desert exploration C the existence of traditional heroes D the activities of explorers 57 When the expedition members set off, some of the group____. A posed an unexpected risk. B disagreed with each other. C were doubtful of success. D went on ahead of the others. 58 Blackmore had decided to set up the expedition because ____. A he was certain he could complete B he wanted to write a book C his aims in life had changed D his self-confidence was low 59 Which of the following best describes the team’s experience of the desert? A They were not able to have enough rest B It presented continual difficulties C They sometimes could not make any progress at all D It was worse than they had expected 60 Which of the following did Blackmore experience during the trip? A frustration at the lack of funding B regret about the lack of planning C realization that they would receive no help D fear that he would let his companions down 61 According to Blackmore, what enabled him to finish the expedition? A his strength of will B his physical preparation C his closeness to his family D his understanding of the desert 62. What put the expedition's success in jeopardy was____. A. Charles Blackmore’s underestimating the danger level of the adventure B. His destination was of the world's least hospitable deserts C. Charles Blackmore mistook long- distance lorry drivers for camel handlers.

(256) D. Charles Blackmore’s mesmerizing account of their journey. 63. After 14 happy years in the army, before leaving it; Charles Blackmore launched the expedition with the purpose___. A. to find something of exhilaration B. to assert himself C. to prove some meaning of his life D. to fulfill some empty moments in his life 64. The word inferno in the passage is in the closest meaning to____. A. heaven B. bottomless pit C. hell D. overworld 65. By saying ‘We were buoyed up by the sense of purpose.’ Charles Blackmore implies that____. A. They were saved from despair by their purpose B. They were rescued from drowning by the sense of purpose C. They were defended by the sense of purpose D. the sense of purpose is something for them to cling on to find something out of ordinary Circle a letter A, B, C or D that best fits each numbered gap: Oxford is a city with such a ____(66) reputation that many who come here find themselves intimidated by the place and can’t wait to leave. While others, taking to it like a ____(67)to water. Find themselves return again and again, the college lawns provide a gorgeous ____(68) to serious study, and in the light night, on a sunny winter’s morning says, one feels as if one is ____(69) on air, such is the sense of unreality. Oxford may like to ____(70) that it is at the intellectual ____(71) of things but in many ways , it is no more than a sleepy ____(72) where to mix metaphors, transitory students, the ____(73) their generation, wait in the ____(74) allowing their talents to ____(75) before moving off into the industrial or political ____(76). Much of this is a myth, of course. Hardship and hard work are very much part and ____(77) of student life .The ____(78) get through the three years’ hard ____(79) by simply putting their shoulders to the ____(80) before going on to fairly average jobs. Only for the tiny minority is Oxford the first step on the ladder to fame and future. 66. A. mind- blowing B. clearheaded C. backhanded D. broken- hearted 67. A. fish B. duck C. boat D. swimmer 68. A. backdrop B. curtain C. scene D. screen 69. A. flying B. gliding C. floating D. swimming 70. A. pretend B. act C. resemble D. produce 71. A. wheel B. engine C. spoke D. hub 72. A. backwater B. stream C. tributary D. watershed 73. A. from B. cream C. fat D. caviar 74. A. pavilion B. dressing- room C. wings D. foyer 75. A. flourish B. open C. spread D. float 76. A. beak B. abattoir C. dead-end D. fast-lane 77. A. package B. section C. province D. parcel 78. A. level- headed B. hot- headed C. hot- blooded D. kind-hearted 79. A. push B. pull C. grind D. roughage 80. A. cart B. wheel C. engine D. boat ----------THE END---------. ĐỀ SỐ 31: SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC ĐỀ THI THỬ THQG NĂM 2015 TRƯỜNG THPT LIỄN SƠN MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH – ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 172 (ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT) Thời gian: 90 phút Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that has its underlined part pronounced differently from the other three in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. apple B. absent C. applicant D. any Question 2: A. thread B. breath C. break D. tread.

(257) Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. colloquial B. however C. collision D. fellowship Question 4: A. deficiency B. definite C. delicacy D. deference Question 5: A. individual B. extinction C. opposition D. universal Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 6: Since Elgin was fired from the university, he has been forced to work in the market to earn his ____. A. wage B. debt C. livelihood D. poverty Question 7: Policemen are sometimes on ________ at night. A. force B. alert C. cover D. patrol Question 8: We bought some ________. A. German lovely old glasses C. German old lovely glasses B. lovely old German glasses D. old lovely German glasses Question 9: “How do you do?” – “________” A. I’m very fine, thanks! B. With my brother. C. Thanks to my mother! D. How do you do? Question 10: The school principle____ that all students hand in their mobile phones to teachers during school hours. A. strongly advised B. urgently asked C. firmly told D. firmly insisted Question 11: Tom doesn’t know much about computing ________ his brother is an expert at it. A. however B. whereas C. therefore D. in contrast Question 12: This is the third time James ________ the volunteer program to the village. A. joins B. joined C. has joined D. has been joining Question 13: Don’t ________ the kettle; it’s still hot. A. touch B. feel C. look D. taste Question 14: “Well, I hope you enjoyed your meal.” – “________” A. Oh, absolutely delicious. B. No problem. C. Yes, that’s very interesting. D. Yeah, that’s right. Question 15: George won five medals at the competition. His parents ________ very proud of him. A. can’t be B. can’t have C. must have been D. could have been Question 16: John hasn’t studied hard this year, so, in the last couple of months, he’s had to work ___ just to catch up. A. vaguely B. randomly C. barely D. intensely Question 17: Deborah is going to take extra lessons to ___ what she missed when she was away. A. catch up on B. put up with C. cut down on D. take up with Question 18: The baby does nothing but ________ all day. A. to sleep and to eat B. to sleep and eat C. sleep and eat D. sleeping and eating Question 19: “Excuse me! I’m looking for the library.” – “________” A. Where’re your eyes? It’s in front of you. B. Look no further! C. Find it yourself. I’m busy. D. Oh, nice to meet you. Question 20: The criminal knows the ________ of successful robberies. A. trash and treasure B. part and parcel C. ins and outs D. close all Question 21: “Do you have a minute, Dr Keith?” – “________” A. Sorry, I haven’t got it here. B. Well. I’m not sure when. C. Good, I hope so. D. Sure. What’s problem? Question 22: She went to college to study history, but changed ________ and is now a doctor. A. for a better B. horses in midstream C. her tune D. hands Question 23: She had an ________ crisis when she was sixteen. A. identity B. image C. inclination D. implication Question 24: You don’t have to worry. We still have ________ time. A. plenty of B. lot C. little D. a wide rage of Question 25: Do you feel I was too friendly ________ the applicants. A. with B. at C. on D. across.

(258) Question 26: “Follow me” ________ a very popular English teaching program on television in the 80s. A. used to be B. was used to C. was used to being D. used as Question 27: I’m the only person here who went to state school, ________? A. am I? B. aren’t I C. do I D. didn’t I? Question 28: “Goodbye, Susie!” – “________.” A. So so B. The same C. So long D. Yeah Question 29: ________ is the money given by an organization to pay for someone’s studies. A. scholarship B. scholar C. scholarly D. school Question 30: “You stepped on my toes!” – “________” A. Are you sure? It’s understandable C. I’m sorry but I meant it B. Really? I’m glad D. I’m terribly sorry. I didn’t mean it Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question 31: I hope to have the privilege of working with them again. A. honor B. advantage C. favor D. right Question 32: Everything was in a thorough mess. A. utter B. full C. complete D. appalling Question 33: The service station at Shiel Bridge has a good range of groceries. A. coach station B. railway station C. power station D. petrol station Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs corrections in each of the following questions. 34. The decrease of the infant mortality rate is the results of better health care services. A. of B. is C. of D. services 35. All junk food, especially those sold at the canteen, should be avoided. A. especially B. those C. at D. should 36. I was sure that some players had taken the money, even though they all denied. A. that B. taken C. though D. denied 37. With tears in our eyes, we watched her train slowly depart the platform. A. With B. in C. slowly D. depart 38. Her family had great difficulty to get her transferred to another hospital. A. difficulty B. to get C. transferred D. another Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question 39: His extravagant ideas were never brought to fruition. A. impressive B. exaggerated C. unacceptable D. practical Question 40: This shouldn’t be too taxing for you. A. comfortable B. demanding C. easy D. relaxing Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word(s) for each of the following blanks. People’s personalities (46) ____ considerably from one another as there are no two alike. Our ingrained characteristics which (47) ____ the patterns of our behavior, our reactions and temperaments are unparalleled on (48) ____ of the diversified processes that (49) ___ our personality in the earliest (50)____ of human development. Some traits of character may, to some (51) ____, be hereditary stimulating the attributes that (52) ___ our parents. Others may stem from the conditions experienced during pregnancy and infancy in this way reflecting the parents’ approach towards (53) ___ their offspring. Consequently, the environmental factor (54) ___ a crucial role in strengthening or eliminating behavioral systems making an individual more prone to comfort to the patterns that (55) ____ a prize. Question 41: A. distinguish B. coverage C. differentiate D. vary Question 42: A. denote B. resolve C. inflict D. determine Question 43: A. account B. means C. token D. event.

(259) Question 44: A. mould B. design C. conceive D. fabricate Question 45: A. states B. instants C. stages D. terms Question 46: A. scope B. area C. extent D. length Question 47: A. pertain B. recognize C. associate D. identify Question 48: A. breeding B. rearing C. growing D. yielding Question 49: A. makes B. does C. finds D. plays Question 50: A. yearn B. deserve C. wish D. necessitate Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. One of the most important social developments that helped to make possible a shift in thinking about the role of public education was the effect of the baby boom of the 1950's and 1960's on the schools. In the 1920's, but especially in the Depression conditions of the 1930's, the United States experienced a declining birth rate – every thousand women aged fifteen to forty-four gave birth to about 118 live children in 1920, 89.2 in 1930, 75.8 in 1936, and 80 in 1940. With the growing prosperity brought on by the Second World War and the economic boom that followed it, young people married and established households earlier and began to raise larger families than had their predecessors during the Depression. Birth rates rose to 102 per thousand in 1946, 106.2 in 1950, and 118 in 1955. Although economics was probably the most important determinant, it is not the only explanation for the baby boom. The increased value placed on the idea of the family also helps to explain this rise in birth rates. The baby boomers began streaming into the first grade by the mid-1940's and became a flood by 1950. The public school system suddenly found itself overtaxed. While the number of schoolchildren rose because of wartime and postwar conditions, these same conditions made the schools even less prepared to cope with the flood. The wartime economy meant that few new schools were built between 1940 and 1945. Moreover, during the war and in the boom times that followed large numbers of teachers left their profession for better-paying jobs elsewhere in the economy. Therefore, in the 1950's and 1960's, the baby boom hit an antiquated and inadequate school system. Consequently, the "custodial rhetoric" of the 1930's and early 1940's no longer made sense; that is, keeping youths aged sixteen and older out of the labor market by keeping them in school could no longer be a high priority for an institution unable to find space and staff to teach younger children aged five to sixteen. With the baby boom, the focus of educators and of laymen interested in education inevitably turned toward the lower grades and back to basic academic skills and discipline. The system no longer had much interest in offering nontraditional, new, and extra services to older youths. Question 51: What does the passage mainly discuss? A. The teaching profession during the baby boom B. Birth rates in the United States in the 1930's and 1940 C. The impact of the baby boom on public education D. The role of the family in the 1950's and 1960's Question 52: The word "it" in line 11 refers to____. A. 1950 B. economics C. the baby boom D. value Question 53: The word "overtaxed" in line 14 is closest in meaning to____. A. well prepared B. heavily burdened C. plentifully supplied D. charged too much Question 54: The public school of the 1950's and 1960's faced all of the following problems EXCEPT A. a declining number of students C. a shortage of teachers B. old-fashioned facilities D. an inadequate number of school buildings Question 55: According to the passage, why did teachers leave the teaching profession after the outbreak of the war? A. They needed to be retrained. B. They were dissatisfied with the curriculum. C. Other jobs provided higher salaries. D. Teaching positions were scarce. Question 56: The word "inadequate" in line 20 is closest in meaning to____. A. deficient B. expanded C. innovative D. specialized Question 57: The "custodial rhetoric" mentioned in line 21 refers to____. A. raising a family C. running an orderly house hold.

(260) B. keeping older individuals in school D. maintaining discipline in the classroom Question 58: The word "inevitably" in line 25 is closest in meaning to____. A. unwillingly B. impartially C. irrationally D. unavoidably Question 59: Where in the passage does the author refer to the attitude of Americans toward raising a family in the 1950's and 1960's? A. Lines 1-2 B. Lines 9-10 C. Lines 17-18 D. Lines 20-21 Question 60: Which of the following best characterizes the organization of the passage? A. The second paragraph presents the effect of circumstances described in the first paragraph. B. The second paragraph provides a fictional account to illustrate a problem presented in the first paragraph. C. The second paragraph argues against a point made in the first paragraph. D. The second paragraph introduces a problem not mentioned in the first paragraph. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word(s) for each of the following blanks. Before the mid-nineteenth century, people in the United States ate most foods only in season. Drying, smoking, and salting could preserve meat for a short time, but the availability of fresh meat, like that of fresh milk, was very limited; there was no way to prevent spoilage. But in 1810, a French inventor named Nicolas Appert developed the cooking-and-sealing process of canning. And in the 1850's an American named Gail Borden developed a means of condensing and preserving milk. Canned goods and condensed milk became more common during the 1860's, but supplies remained low because cans had to be made by hand. By 1880, however, inventors had fashioned stamping and soldering machines that mass-produced cans from tinplate. Suddenly all kinds of food could be preserved and bought at all times of the year. Other trends and inventions had also helped make it possible for Americans to vary their daily diets. Growing urban populations created demand that encouraged fruit and vegetable farmers to raise more produce. Railroad refrigerator cars enabled growers and meat packers to ship perishables great distances and to preserve them for longer periods. Thus, by the 1890's, northern city dwellers could enjoy southern and western strawberries, grapes, and tomatoes, previously available for a month at most, for up to six months of the year. In addition, increased use of iceboxes enabled families to store perishables. An easy means of producing ice commercially had been invented in the 1870's, and by 1900 the nation had more than two thousand commercial ice plants, most of which made home deliveries. The icebox became a fixture in most homes and remained so until the mechanized refrigerator replaced it in the 1920's and 1930's. Almost everyone now had a more diversified diet. Some people continued to eat mainly foods that were heavy in starches or carbohydrates, and not everyone could afford meat. Nevertheless, many families could take advantage of previously unavailable fruits, vegetables, and dairy products to achieve more varied fare. Question 61: What does the passage mainly discuss? A. Causes of food spoilage C. Inventions that led to changes in the American diet B. Commercial production of ice D. Population movements in the nineteenth century. Question 62: The phrase "in season" in line 2 refers to____. A. a kind of weather B. a particular time of year C. an official schedule D. a method of flavoring food Question 63: The word "prevent" in line 4 is closest in meaning to____. A. estimate B. avoid C. correct D. confined Question 64: During the 1860's, canned food products were____. A. unavailable in rural areas C. available in limited quantities B. shipped in refrigerator cars D. a staple part of the American diet Question 65: It can be inferred that railroad refrigerator cars came into use____. A. before 1860 B. before 1890 C. after 1900 D. after 1920 Question 66: The word "them" in line 14 refers to____. A. refrigerator cars B. perishables C. growers D. distances Question 67: The author implies that in the 1920's and 1930's home deliveries of ice____. A. decreased in number C. increased in cost B. were on an irregular schedule D. occurred only in the summer..

(261) Question 68: The word "Nevertheless" in line 24 is closest in meaning to____. A. therefore B. before C. occasionally D. however Question 69: Which of the following types of food preservation was NOT mentioned in the passage? A. Drying B. Canning C. Cold storage D. Chemical additives Question 70: Which of the following statements is supported by the passage? A. Tin cans and iceboxes helped to make many foods more widely available. B. Commercial ice factories were developed by railroad owners. C. Most farmers in the United States raised only fruits and vegetables. D. People who lived in cities demanded home delivery of foods. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to the original sentence. Question 71: Sam speaks Chinese well and his Japanese is good, too. A. Sam is good at either Chinese or Japanese. B. Not only Chinese but also Japanese Sam is good at. C. Not only does Sam speak Chinese but also Japanese. D. Sam not only speaks Chinese well but also is good at Japanese. Question 72: It’s a bad line. Do you want me to give you a ring later? A. Can I call you later? B. I would like to give you a ring as a present. C. Would you like to become my wife? D. Can I give the ring back to you later? Question 73: Had she read the reference books, she would have been able to finish the test. A. If she had read the reference books, she could finish the test. B. Not having read the reference books, she couldn’t finish the test. C. Although she didn’t read the reference books, she was able to finish the test. D. Because she read the reference books, she was able to finish the test. Question 74: Housewives do not have to spend a lot of time doing housework any more. A. Housework will never be done by housewives any more. B. Housewives have to spend more and more time to do housework. C. Never have housewives spent as much time doing housework as they do now. D. No longer do housewives have to spend a lot of time doing housework. Question 75: They would be a bit happier with more guests. A. If more guests came, they would feel happier.B. More guests made them happy. C. They were sad because no one came. D. They made their guests a bit happier. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is made up from the given words. Question 76: remember / lock / door / go out. A. You remember to lock the door before you go out. B. Remember locking the door before going out. C. Remember to lock the door before going out. D. Remember to lock the door before you going out. Question 77: this class / twice/ girls / boys / there. A. In this class, there are twice more girls than boys. B. In this class, girls are twice more than boys. C. In this class, there are twice as many girls as boys. D. In this class, there are twice as much girls as boys. Question 78: like / sit / next / he / whenever / window / plane / he. A. He likes sitting next to the window whenever he is on the plane. B. He likes to sit next to the window whenever he is on the plane. C. He likes sit next to the window whenever he is on the plane. D. He likes to sit next to the window whenever he is out the plane. Question 79: party / be / much / interest / than / I expect. A. The party was much more interesting than I expect. B. The party was much more interesting than I had expected..

(262) C. The party was much interesting than I had expected. D. The party was much more interested than I had expected. Question 80: It / be / big decision / choose / university. A. It is big decision to choose a university. B. It is a big decision of choosing the university. C. It is a big decision to choose a university. D. It is a big decision in choosing a university. ---------------------THE END-------------------. ĐỀ SỐ 32: SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC ĐỀ THI THỬ THQG NĂM 2015 TRƯỜNG THPT LIỄN SƠN MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH – ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 173 (ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT) Thời gian: 90 phút Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 1: Many scientists agree that global warming poses great threats to all species on Earth. A. annoyances B. risks C. irritations D. fears Question 2: The works of such men as the English philosophers John Locke and Thomas Hobbes helped pave the way for academic freedom in the modern sense. A. initiate B. lighten C. terminate D. prevent Question 3: E-cash cards are the main means of all transactions in a cashless society. A. cash-free B. cash-starved C. cash-strapped D. cash-in-hand Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 4: A. hesitation B. economics C. calculation D. curriculum Question 5: A. constructive B. national C. essential D. commercial Question 6: A. cancel B. remove C. copy D. notice Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 7: Population growth rates vary among regions and even among countries within the same region. A. fluctuate B. stay unchanged C. restrain D. remain unstable Question 8: In some countries, the disease burden could be prevented through environmental improvements. A. something to sufferB. something sad C. something to entertain D. something. enjoyable Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 9: A. invent B. tennis C. medicine D. species Question 10: A. particular B. superstar C. part D. harvest Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions. Question 11: “I would be grateful if you could send me further details of the job,” he said to me A. He politely asked me to send him further details of the job. B. He thanked me for sending him further details of the job. C. He flattered me because I sent him further details of the job. D. He felt great because further details of the job had been sent to him..

(263) Question 12: “Why don’t we wear sunglasses?” our grandpa would say when we went out on bright sunny days. A. Our grandpa asked us why we did not wear sunglasses when going out on bright sunny days. B. Our grandpa reminded ous of going out with sunglasses on bright sunny days. C. Our grandpa would warn us against wearing sunglasses on bright sunny days. D. Our grandpa used to suggest wearing sunglasses when we went out on bright sunny days. Question 13: David was narrowly defeated and blew his own chance of becoming a champion. A. But for his title as the former champion, David would not have defeated his rivals. B. As a result of his narrow defeat, David did not win the championship. C. Losing the championship came as a terrible blow to David. D. In spite of the narrow defeat, David won the championship. Question 14: People say that Mr. Goldman gave nearly a million pounds to charity last year. A. Nearly a million pounds was said to have been given to charity by Mr. Goldman last year. B. Mr. Goldman was said to have given nearly a million pounds to charity last year. C. Mr. Goldman is said to have given nearly a million pounds to charity last year. D. Nearly a million pounds is said to be given to charity by Mr. Goldman last year. Question 15: I am sure he did not know that his brother graduated with flying colors. A. He cannot have known that his brother graduated with very high marks. B. He may not know that his brother is flying gradually up in a colorful balloon. C. That his brother graduated with flying colors must have been appreciated by him. D. He should not have been envious of his brother’s achievement. Question 16: If you had stuck to what we originally agreed on, everything would have been fine. A. If you had not kept to what was originally agreed on, everything would have been fine. B. As you fulfilled the original contract, things went wrong. C. Things went wrong because you violated our original agreement. D. If you had changed our original agreement, everything would have been fine. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 17 to 26. In “Cerealizing America”, Scott Bruce and Bill Crawford remark that the cereal industry uses 816 million pounds of sugar per year. Americans buy 2.7 billion packages of breakfast cereal each year. If (17)___ end to end, the empty cereal boxes from one year’s consumption would (18) ___ to the moon and back. One point three (1.3) million advertisements for cereal are broadcast on American television every year at a(n) (19) ___ of $762 million for airtime. Only automobile manufacturers spend more money on television advertising than the makers of breakfast cereal. (20) ___ of the boxed cereals found in supermarkets contain large amounts of sugar and some contain more than 50% sugar. Cereal manufacturers are very clever in their marketing, making many cereals appear much healthier than they really are by “fortifying” them with vitamins and minerals. Oh, (21) ___ - you now have vitamin-fortified sugar! Before you eat any cereal, read the ingredient list and see how (22) ___ sugar appears on the ingredient list. Then check the “Nutrition facts” panel. There are actually only a small handful of national commercially-branded cereals that are made (23) ___ whole grains and are sugar-free. If you shop at a health food store instead of your local supermarket, you (24) ___ to find a healthy, whole grain, sugar-free (or very low sugar) cereal. But (25) ___! Some of the health food store boxed cereals are sweetened with fruit juice or fructose. Although this may be an improvement (26) ______ refined white sugar, this can really skyrocket the calories. From “Foods That Burn Fat, Foods That Turn to Fat” by Tom Ventulo.

(264) Question 17: A. to lay B. laying C. lay D. laid Question 18: A. reach B. prolong C. stretch D. contact Question 19: A. charge B. everage C. cost D. expense Question 20: A. Most B. Mostly C. Almost D. Furthermost Question 21: A. charming B. lovely C. gorgeous D. beautiful Question 22: A. tall B. large C. high D. many Question 23: A. by B. from C. at D. in Question 24: A. are more likelier B. are much more likely C. would be able D. could more or less Question 25: A. see through B. keep alert C. watch out D. look up Question 26: A. at B. from C. with D. on Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 27 to 36. New surveys suggest that the technological tools we use to make our lives easier are killing our leisure time. We are working longer hours, taking fewer and shorter vacations (and when we do go away, we take our cell phones, PDAs, and laptops along). And, we are more stressed than ever as increased use of e-mail, voice mail, cell phones, and the Internet is destroying any idea of privacy and leisure. Since the Industrial Revolution, people have assumed that new labor-saving devices would free them from the burdens of the workplace and give them more time to grow intellectually, creatively, and socially – exploring the arts, keeping up with current events, spending more time with friends and family, and even just ‘goofing off’. But here we are at the start of the 21 st century, enjoying one of the greatest technological boom times in human history, and nothing could be further from the truth. The very tools that were supposed to liberate us have bound us to our work and study in ways that were inconceivable just a few years ago. It would seem that technology almost never does what we expect. In ‘the old days’, the lines between work and leisure time were markedly clearer. People left their offices at a predictable time, were often completely disconnected from and out of touch with their jobs as they traveled to and from work, and were off-duty once they were home. That is no longer true. In today’s highly competitive job market, employers demand increased productivity, expecting workers to put in longer hours and to keep in touch almost constantly via fax, cell phones, e-mail, or other communications devices. As a result, employees feel the need to check in on what is going on at the office, even on days off. They feel pressured to work after hours just to catch up on everything they have to do. Workers work harder and longer, change their work tasks more frequently, and have more and more reasons to worry about job security. Bosses, colleagues, family members, lovers, and friends expect instant responses to voice mail and e-mail messages. Even college students have become bound to their desks by an environment in which faculty, friends, and other members of the college community increasingly do their work online. Studies of time spent on instant messaging services would probably show staggering use. This is not what technology was supposed to be doing for us. New technologies, from genetic research to the Internet, offer all sorts of benefits and opportunities. But, when new tools make life more difficult and stressful rather than easier and more meaningful – and we are, as a society, barely conscious of it – then something has gone seriously awry, both with our expectations for technology and our understanding of how it should benefit us. From “Summit 1” by Joan Saslow & Allen Ascher Question 27: According to the first three paragraphs, technological tools that were designed to make our lives easier______. A. have brought us complete happiness B. have fully met our expectations C. have not interfered with our privacy D. have turned out to do us more harm. than good Question 28: Which of the following is NOT true about technological tools, according to new surveys?.

(265) A. They make our life more stressful. B. They bring more leisure to our life. C. They are used even during vacations. D. They are being increasingly used. Question 29: Which of the following is true, according to the passage? A. People have more opportunities to get access to technological applications. B. Employees were supposed to make technology do what they expected. C. People now enjoy greater freedom thanks to the technological boom. D. Students used to have to study more about technological advances. Question 30: The word “inconceivable” in the passage is closest in meaning to”______”. A. unforgettable B. unimaginable C. predictable D. foreseeable Question 31: With the phrase “at a predictable time”, the author implies that______. A. people had to predict the time they were allowed to leave offices B. people wanted to be completely disconnected from their work C. people were unable to foresee their working hours D. people used to have more time. and privacy after work Question 32: It can be inferred from the fourth paragraph that______. A. it is compulsory that employees go to the office, even on days off B. employees have more freedom to decide what time they start and finish work C. employers are more demanding and have efficient means to monitor employees D. life is more relaxing with cell phones and other technological devices Question 33: The word “They” in the fourth paragraph refers to______. A. employers B. employees C. workers D. tasks Question 34: Which of the following could be the main idea of the fifth paragraph? A. New technological applications are wise entertainment choices of our modern time. B. The coming of new technological advances has spoiled family and social relationships. C. New technological advances have added more stress to daily life. D. New technological advances have reduced work performance. Question 35: This passage has probably been taken from______. A. a science review B. a political journal C. an advertisement D. a fashion magazine Question 36: Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage? A. Expectations and Plain Reality B. Benefits of Technology C. Research on the Roles of Computers D. Changes at the Workplace Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer in each of the following questions. Question 37: We all agree that she is _____ student in our class. A. the cleverest B. a more clever C. cleverest D. most clever Question 38: Standing on the tip of the cape, _____. A. people have seen a lighthouse far away B. a lighthouse can see from the distance C. we can see the lighthouse in the distance D. lies a lighthouse in the middle of the sea Question 39: The boat was sailing north when a terrible storm _____. A. broke B. would break C. had broken D. was breaking Question 40: _____ John Kennedy was elected president, he was the youngest American President ever. A. Before B. As long as C. When D. While Question 41: Only one of our gifted students _____ to participate in the final competition. A. has been chosen B. have been chosen C. were choosing D. chosen Question 42: The pool should not be made so deep _____ small children can be safe there. A. so as to B. though C. if D. so that Question 43: I am sorry I have no time at present to _____ detail of our plan. A. bring in B. come in C. take into D. go into Question 44: Tom: “_____” Mike: “I won’t say no!”.

(266) A.. Mike, do you know where the scissors are?. C.. What about playing badminton. this afternoon? B. How are things with you, Mike? D. What’s your favourite, tea or coffee? Question 45: As a millionaire who liked to show off her wealth, Mrs. Smith paid _____ we asked. A . four time much as B. four time much than C. four times as much as D. four time as many as Question 46: The Lake District, _____ was made a national park in 1951, attracts a large number of tourists every year. A. that B. what C. where D. which Question 47: He _____ us but he was short of money at that time. A. might help B. would help C. can help D. could have helped Question 48: Michael looked deeply hurt and surprised when _____. A. scolding B. scolded C. having scolded D. to scold Question 49: The packages ______ so that it would be easier to carry them. A. are tied altogether B. are tied in a bundle C. were tied together D. were tied in a knot Question 50: In spite of her abilities, Laura has been _____ overlooked for promotion. A. repetitive B. repeatedly C. repetition D. repeat Question 51: The examination was not very difficult , but it was _____ long. A. too much B. so much C. much too D. very much Question 52: She asked me ______ I was looking at. A. if B. what C. when D. why Question 53: Education in many countries is compulsory _____ the age of 16. A. for B. forwards C. until D. when Question 54: We must push the piano to the corner of the hall to _____ our party tonight. A. give place to B. make room for C. take up room to D. make place for Question 55: Stephanie: “Oh, no! I left my book at home. Can I share yours?” Scott:”_____” A. No, thanks. B. Yes, I do too C. No, not at all! D. Yes, sure! Question 56: There has been a great increase in retail sales, _____? A. isn’t it B. isn’t there C. doesn’t it D. hasn’t there Question 57: Long ago, women were _____ to vote in political elections. A. prevented B. banned C. forbidden D. stopped Question 58: Regular exercise and good diet will bring _____ fitness and health. A. about B. from C. to D. up Question 59: _____ his brother, Mike is active and friendly. A. Dislike B. Liking C. Alike D. Unlike Question 60: ___one of the most beautiful forms of performance art, ballet is a combination of dance and mime performed to music. A. Considered B. Being considering C. Considering D. To consider Question 61:_____ has been a topic of continual geological research. A. If the continents formed B. The continents formed C. how the continents were formed D. How did the continents form Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 62: When precipitation occurs, some of it evaporates, some run off the surface it strikes, and some sinking in to the ground. A B C D Question 63: A warming printed on a makeshift lifebuoy says: ”This is not a life-saving device. Children should be accompany by their parents.” A B C D Question 64: Of all the art-related reference and research library in North American, that of the.

(267) A B Meltropolitan Museum of Art in New York city is among the largest and most complete. C D Question 65: Different fourteen crops were grown 8,600 years ago by some of the world’s earliest farmer. A B C D Question 66: Globally and internationally, the 1990’s stood out as the warmest decade in the history of weather records. A B C D Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 67 to 76. Very few people, groups, or governments oppose globalization in its entirety. Instead, critics of globalization believe aspects of the way globalization operates should be changed. The debate over globalization is about what the best rules are for governing the global economy so that its advantages can grow while its problems can be solved. On one side of this debate are those who stress the benefits of removing barriers to international trade and investment, allowing capital to be allocated more efficiently and giving consumers greater freedom of choice. With free-market globalization, investment funds can move unimpeded from the rich countries to the developing countries. Consumers can benefit from cheaper products because reduced taxes make goods produced at low cost from faraway places cheaper to buy. Producers of goods gain by selling to a wider market. More competition keeps sellers on their toes and allows ideas and new technology to spread and benefit others. On the other side of the debate are critics who see neo-liberal policies as producing greater poverty, inequality, social conflict, cultural destruction, and environmental damage. They say that the most developed nations – the United States, Germany, and Japan – succeeded not because of free trade but because of protectionism and subsidies. They argue that the more recently successful economies of South Korea, Taiwan, and China all had strong state-led development strategies that did not follow neo-liberalism. These critics think that government encouragement of “infant industries” – that is, industries that are just beginning to develop – enables a country to become internationally competitive. Furthermore, those who criticize the Washington Consensus suggest that the inflow and outflow of money from speculative investors must be limited to prevent bubbles. These bubbles are characterized by the rapid inflow of foreign funds that bid up domestic stock markets and property values. When the economy cannot sustain such expectation, the bubbles burst as investors panic and pull their money out of the country. Protests by what is called the anti-globalization movement are seldom directed against globalization itself but rather against abuses that harm the rights of workers and the environment. The question raised by nongovernmental organizations and protesters at WTO and IMF gatherings is whether globalization will result in a rise of living standards or a race to the bottom as competition takes the form of lowering living standards and undermining environmental regulations. One of the key problems of the 21st century will be determining to what extent markets should be regulated to promote fair competition, honest dealing, and fair distribution of public goods on a global scale. From “Globalization” by Tabb, William K., Microsoft ® Student 2009 [DVD] Question 67: It is stated in the passage that ______. A. the protests of globalization are directed against globalization itself B. the United States, Germany, and Japan succeeded in helping infant industries C. suppoters of globalization stress the benefits of removing trade barriers D. critics of globalization say that the successful economies are all in Asia Question 68: Supporters of free-market globalization point out that ______. A. consumers can benefit from cheaper products B.there will be less competition among producers.

(268) C. taxes that are paid on goods will be increased D. investment will be allocated only to rich countries Question 69: The word “allocated” in the passage mostly means “_____”. A. removed B. solved C. offered D. distributed Question 70: The phrase “keeps sellers on their toes” in the passage mostly means “_____”. A. makes sellers responsive to any changes B. allows sellers to stand on their own feet C. forces sellers to go bare-footed D. prevents sellers from selling new products Question 71: According to critics of globalization, several developed countries have become rich because of ____. A. their neo-liberal policies B. their help to developing countries C. their prevention of bubbles D. their protectionism and subsidies Question 72: The word “undermining” in the passage mostly means “_____”. A. observing B. making more effective C. making less effective D. obeying Question 73: Infant industries mentioned in the passage are _____. A. successful economies B. young companies C. development strategies D. young industries Question 74: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage? A. Critics believe the way globalization operates should be changed. B. The anti-globalization movement was set up to end globalization. C. Some Asian countries had strong state-led economic strategies. D. Hardly anyone disapproves of globalization in its entirety. Question 75: The debate over globalization is about how_____. A. to use neo-liberal policies for the benefit of the rich countries C. to spread ideas and strategies for globalization B. to govern the global economy for the benefit of the community D. to terminate globalization in its entirely Question 76: The author seems to be _____ globalization that helps promote economy and raise living standards globally. A. supportive of B. indifferent to C. pessimistic about D. opposed to Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best joins each of the following pairs of sentences in each of the following questions. Question 77: We spend about one-third of our lives sleeping. We know relatively little about sleep. A. We know relatively little about sleep; as a result, we spend about one-third of our lives sleeping. B. Despite spending about one-third of our lives sleeping, we know relatively little about sleep. C. We shall know more about sleep if we spend more than one-third of our lives sleeping. D. We spend about one-third of our lives sleeping so that we know relatively little about sleep. Question 78: He was successful because he was determined to pursue personal goals. He was not talented. A. His determination to pursue personal goals made him successful and talented. B. It was his determination to pursue personal goals, not talent, that contributed to his success. C. His success lay in his natural ability, not in his determination to pursue personal goals. D. In addition to his determination, his talent ensured his success in pursuing his goals. Question 79 : Overeating is a cause of several deadly diseases. Physical inactivity is another cause of several deadly diseases. A. Both overeating and physical inactivity result from several deadly diseases. B. Apart from physical activities, eating too much also contributes to several deadly diseases. C. Not only overeating but also physical inactivity may lead to several deadly diseases. D. Overeating and physical inactivity are caused by several deadly diseases. Question 80: I did not arrive in time. I was not able to see her off..

(269) A. I did not go there, so I could not see her off B. She had left because I was not on time C. I arrived very late to say goodbye to her D. I was not early enough to see her off. ---------------------THE END--------------------. ĐỀ SỐ 33: SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC ĐỀ THI THỬ THQG NĂM 2015 TRƯỜNG THPT LIỄN SƠN MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH – ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 174 (ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT) Thời gian: 90 phút Find the word with stress pattern different from that of the other three words in each question 1. A. gravity B. professor C. pyramid D. colorful 2. A. industrial B. exhibition C. preparation D. decoration 3. A. brilliant B. insect C. lunar D.. proceed A. reference A. repetitious. 4. B. important C. refusal 5. B.curriculum C. historical Choose the best options to complete the sentences. 6. The letter _________ me of the theft hadn’t been signed. A. to accuse B. accused C. accusing 7. Had they arrived at the shop earlier, they_____ a better selection of clothes. A. would be finding B. will have found C. will find. D. decision D. grammatical D. that accuse D.. would have. found 8. ____ an emergency arise , call 911 A. Should B. Can C. Does D. Will 9. A: Could I speak to Susan please? B: _____________ . A. Talking B. Speaking C. Calling D. Answering 10. Having opened the bottle, ____ for everyone. A. The drink was poured B. Mike poured the drink C. Mike pouring the drink D. The drink was being poured 11. The house is found ____ down. A. to burn B. burning C. having burned D. to have been. burned 12. Please look through these papers ____ your pleasure A. on B. in C. for 13. His job is ____. A. driving a bus B. a bus driver C. bus driving of a bus 14. Granny is completely deaf. You’ll have to ____ allowance for her A. bring B. take C. make 15. Nothing can ____ the loss of the child. A. make up with B. make up for C. do with 16. ‘’ Would you mind turning down your stereo ?’’ - “________” A. I’m really sorry! I ‘m not paying attention B. Oh! I’m sorry! No. I don’t D. Yes, I do. D. at D. a driver. D. find D. come up with. I didn’t realize that. 17." Can you ____me a favor , Bill ? " Peter said . A. get. B. do. C. put. D. make. C..

(270) 18. I will recommend _____to the director . A. the student to speak B. that the student speaks C. that that the student speaking .. the student speak. D.. 19. _______ that he had no choice but to leave early. A. In such a situation did he find himself B. In such a situation he found himself C. He found himself in a situation where D. He found himself in a so embarrassing situation 20. Make sure that you pick up your tickets ____advance. A. in B. of C. on D. at . 21. Melanie was ______pain ,but she couldn't use the painkiller she had at home because it was _______date . A. in - out of B. at - outside C. for - under D. with - up to 22. I __________ this letter while I was tidying up. A. came by B. brought in C. brought back D. came across 23. Only in the last few days ____ to repair the swimming pool A. anything has been done B. has done anything C. has anything been done D. has there anything been done 24. The problem ________never occurred . A. I had expected it B. who I had expected. C. that I had expected it D. I. had expected 25. If you hadn’t watched that late movie last night, you ________ sleepy now. A. wouldn’t have been B. might not have been C. wouldn’t be have been being 26. My old friend and colleague, John, __________ married. A. have just got B. has just got C. just have got 27. I suggest that the doctor _________ up his mind without delay. A. makes B. make C. made. D. wouldn’t D. just has got D. is to make. 28.The whole village was wiped out in the bombing raids. A. changed completely B. cleaned well C. destroyed completely D. removed quickly 29.where he tried to hide his favourite jacket, Mogie’s brother always managed to find it. A. Much as B. However C. Even though D. No matter 30.No sooner _________the news than she fainted. A. she heard B. had she heard C. as she heard D. she had heard 31. The doctor gave the patient _______ examination to discover the cause of his collapse. A. a thorough B. an exact C. a universal D. a whole 32. Nowadays children would prefer history _______ in more practical ways. A. teach B. to be taught C. be taught D. to teach 33. John has a monthly bank _______ sent to him so that he knows how much there is his account. A. cheque B. balance C. statement D. overdraft 34. Many political radicals advocated that women should not be discriminated on the basic of their sex..

(271) A. openly criticized. B. rightly claimed. C. publicly said. D. publicly. supported 35. His brother refuses to even listen to anyone else's point of view. He is very_______ . A. kind - hearted B. narrow- minded C. open - minded D. absent minded 36. The success of the party was mainly due to the presence of several_______ . A. celebrations B. celebrities C. celebrates D. celebrated 37. George wouldn't have met Mary_______ to his brother's graduation party. A. if he shouldn't have gone B. had he not gone C. if he has not gone D. hadn't he gone 38. On _______ he had won, he jumped for joy. A. having B. he was told C. being told D. telling 39. I should very much like to have gone to that party of theirs, but _______ . A. I'm not invited B. I have not been invited C. I was not invited D. I will not be invited 40. Jane wasn't in when I arrived. I suppose she _______ I was coming. A. can't have forgotten B. must forget C. may forget D. must have. forgotten Choose from four alternatives (A, B, C, or D) which you think that is closest meaning to the sentence above. 41. Rather than disturb the meeting, I left without saying goodbye. A. I would rather disturb the meeting than leave without saying goodbye. B. I left without saying goodbye as I didn’t want to disturb the meeting. C. I disturbed the meeting because I said goodbye D. The meeting was disturbed as I left saying goodbye. 42. Wealthy as they were, they were far from happy. A. They were not happy as they were wealthy B. Although they were wealthy, they were not happy. C. They were as wealthy as they were happy. D. Even if they were wealthy, they were not happy. 43. When I arrived, they were having lunch. A. I came to their invitation to lunch. B. They ate their lunch as soon as I arrived. C. I came in the middle of their lunch. D. When they start having their lunch, I arrived. 44. . “Would you like something to drink?” he asked. A. He asked me would like something to drink. B. He wanted to invite me for something to drink. C. He asked me if I wanted something to drink. D. He offered me something to drink. 45. Their chances of success are small. A. It’s very likely that they will succeed B. They will definitely be successful C. It’s not very likely that they will succeed D. They won’t have any chances of being successful.

(272) Identify the underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be corrected 46. (A)It’s thirty years (B)since this(C) thirty-storeys building (D)was built. 47. He was seen (A) enter the house (B)at midnight, so he (C)shouldn’t say he didn’t (D)do it. 48. . (A)Never before(B) I have seen a man who (C)enjoyed being (D)lied to. 49. We insist on (A)you (B)leaving the meeting( C)before any( D)further outbursts take place . 50. Nora (A)hardly never misses( B)an opportunity(C) to play (D)in the tennis tournaments Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the numbered blanks. Everybody has heard about the Internet, do you know what an “intranet” is? It is this: just as the Internet connects people around the world, intranets connect people within a (51) ____ company. In fact, intranets make use of the same software programs as the Internet to (52) ____ computers and people. This (53) ____ that you do not have to buy a lot of additional programs to set up an intranet service. If your intranet is working properly, it can link together a huge amount of (54) ____ which is stored in different places in the company. In this way, people can get the information they need, regardless (55) ____ where it comes from. A company intranet can, of course, be used for unimportant information like office memos or canteen menus. But an intranet should (56) ____ important information which people need to make decision about new products, costs and so on. The intranet is (57) ____ to share their information with other people. (58) ____, many departments don’t want to share their specialist knowledge with others. Another problem which often occurs is (59) ____ top managers like to use the intranet to “communicate down” rather than to “communicate across”. That is, they use the intranet to give orders, not to (60) ____ information between themselves and others working in the same organization. A. branch A. contact A. indicates A. information A. to A. provide A. going A. However A. which A. enjoy. B. jointed B. compare B. is B. properties B. on B. take B. willing B. Luckily B. it B. provide. C. single C. distinguish C. means C. elements C. with C. give C. likely C. Unfortunately C. what C. share. D. large D. introduce D. is said D. parts D. of D. bring D. happened D. Consequently D. that D. divide. Read the passage carefully, then choose the correct answer. Carbon dioxide in the atmosphere, which is primarily a result of mankind's burning of fuels, is thought to act like the glass of a greenhouse. It absorbs heat radiation from the earth and its atmosphere, heats that otherwise would dissipate into space. The possibility that the greenhouse effect could alter the earth's temperature has been debated for many years. Scientists have agreed that carbon dioxide is increasing but there has been uncertainty about whether temperatures are also increasing. The major difficulty in accepting the greenhouse effect has been the absence of observed warming coincident with the historic carbon dioxide increase. 51. What does the scientific community think about the greenhouse effect?.

(273) A. It regards it as an established scientific fact. B. It. considers it a promising scientific. issue. C. It finds it an important mechanism for removing carbon dioxide from greenhouse. D. It sees it as a useful agricultural technique. 52. One thing that all atmospheric scientists apparently agree about is that _______ . A. global temperatures are continually rising. B. greenhouse affects the earth's temperature significantly.. C. the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere is increasing. D. the glass of greenhouses has reduced the need to burn fuel. 53. The carbon dioxide in the atmosphere is believed to produce the greenhouse effect by _______ . A. preventing heat radiation from escaping the earth's atmosphere. B. dissipation into outer space. C. being burned on the ground. D. being widely used for agricultural purposes in greenhouse. 54. Doubts about the greenhouse effect seem to center on the fact that_______ .. A. past increase in carbon dioxide volume and global temperatures have often not corresponded. B. it is difficult to locate and identify carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. C. growing produce in greenhouses has been only marginally profitable. D. the earth is steadily cooling down. 55. The principal consequence of the greenhouse effect is assumed to be an increase in _______ . A. the building of fossil fuels. B. the sun's radiation reaching earth. C. global temperatures. D. the building of greenhouse. Read the passage carefully, then choose the correct answer. Telecommunicating is a form of computer communication between employees’ homes and offices. For employees whose jobs involve sitting at a terminal or word processor entering data or typing reports, the location of the computer is of no consequence. If the machine can communicate over telephone lines, when the work is completed, employees can dial the office computer from a distant site and transmit the material to their employers. A recent survey in USA Today estimates that there are appoximately 8.7 million telecommuters. But although the numbers are rising annually, the trend does not appear to be as significant as predicted when Business Week published "The Portable Executive" as its cover story a few years ago. Why hasn't telecommuting become more popular? Clearly, change simply takes time. But in addition, there has been active resistance on the part of many managers. These executives claim that supervising the telecommuters in a large work force scattered across the country would be too difficult, or, at least, systems for managing them are not yet developed, thereby complicating the manager's responsibilities. It is also true that employees who are given the option of telecommuting are often reluctant to accept the opportunity. Most people feel that they need regular interaction with a group, and many are concerned that they will not have the same consideration for advancement if they are not more visible in the office setting. Some people feel that even when a space in their homes is set aside as a work area, they never really get away from the office. 56. The author mentions all of the following as concerns of telecommuters EXCEPT_______ . A. the lack of interaction with a group B. the different system of supervision C. the fact that the work space is in the home D. the oportunities for advancement 57. How many American workers are involved in telecommuting? A. More than predicted in Business Week B. Fewer than estimated in USA Today C. More than 8 million D. Fewer than last year 58. It can be inferred from the passage that the author is _______ . A. a statistician B. a telecommuter C. the manager of a group of telecommuters D.. a reporter.

(274) 59. The word "resistance" could best be replaced by_______ . A. alteration B. consideration C. participation D. opposition 60. Which of the following is the main topic of the passage? A. The failure of telecommuting B. The advantages of telecommuting C. A definition of telecommuting D. An overview of telecommuting Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best fits the blank space in the following passage. Face-to-face conversation is a two-way process: You speak to me, I reply to you and __(71)__. Two-way __(72)__ depends on having a coding system that is understood by both sender and __(73)__, and an agreed convention about signalling the beginning and end of the message. In speech, the coding system is the language __(74)__ English or Spanish; the convention that one person speaks at __(75)__ time may seem too obvious to __(76)__ In fact, the signals __(77)__ in conversations and meetings are often __(78)__ For example, lowering the pitch of the voice may mean the end of a sentence; a sharp intake of breath may signal the desire to __(79)__, catching the chairman's eye may indicate the desire to speak in a formal setting like a debate, a clenched fist may indicate anger. When __(80)__ visual signals are not possible, more formal signals may be needed. 61. A. so on 62. A. exchange correspondence 63. A. announcer 64. A. either 65. A. the 66. A. notice 67. A. being used using 68. A. informal 69. A. interchange 70. A. that. B. versus C. as well B. communication C. interchange B. receiver B. like B. a B. recognize B. that people B. formal B. interrupt B. those. D. etc D.. C. messenger C. alike C. one C. mention. D. transmitter D. as D. all D. judge C. are used D.. C. non-verbal C. intercept C. their. D. verbal D. interfere. use. D. these. -------------------- THE END ----------------. ĐỀ SỐ 34: SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC ĐỀ THI THỬ THQG NĂM 2015 TRƯỜNG THPT LIỄN SƠN MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH – ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 175 (ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT) Thời gian: 90 phút Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 1. Please ____ and see us some time. You‘re always welcome. A. come to B. come around C. come about D. come away 2. The judge ____ the murderer to a lifetime imprisonment. A. accused B. convicted C. sentenced D. prosecuted 3. Only in the Civil War____ killed or wounded. A. soldiers in America were B. so many American soldiers were C. many in America were D. were so. many American soldiers.

(275) 4. I have to assure myself that I____ the best possible decision. A. have leapt B. have done C. have made D. have reached 5. James: “What’s the matter?” - Anne: “________.” A. That’s all right B. Not at all C. Nothing D. It’s no trouble 6. If it____ their encouragement, he could have given it up. A. had been for B. hadn’t been for C. wouldn’t have been for D. hadn’t been 7. It’s surprising that ex-smokers are less____ smokers than non-smokers. A. tolerant of B. tolerable to C. intolerant D. tolerance towards 8. “What a great haircut, Lucy!” - “________.” A. Thanks. It’s very kind of you to do this. B. It’s my pleasure C. Oh, yes. That’s right D. You think so? I think it’s a bit too. short. 9. The criminal was sentenced to death because of____ of his crime. A. the severity B. the complexity C. a punishment D. the importance 10. Tony often watches TV after his parents____ to bed. A. have gone B. go C. had gone D. went 11. Population expansion seems to surpass the ability of the earth to meet____ food. A. the requirement of B. the command of C. the demand for D. the necessity for 12. After years of being exposed to the sun and rain, the sign had become completely____. A. unreadable B. readable C. misread D. illegible 13. By the end of this month I____ for this company for two years. A. have been working B. will work C. will have been working D. will be working 14. John paid $20 for his meal,____ he had thought it would cost A. not much as B. not so much as C. less as D. not so many as 15. -“Mum! I’ve got 6000 on the TOEFL test” -“________” A. Good way! B. You are right C. Good job! D. Oh, hard luck 16. “Would you like me to get a taxi?” - “________.” A. Yes, please, if it’s no bother B. Well, let’s see. C. That would be delightful. Thanks D. Yes, I see. 17. ____ over long distances is a fact. A. That electricity transmitting B. That electricity can be transmitted C. That electricity D. That can be transmitted 18. The discovery was a major ____ for research workers A. breakthrough B. breakdown C. break-in D breakout 19. John____ knowledge from many of his life experiences in his work. A. approved B. accomplished C. appreciated D. applied 20. ____ sheep were then used for wool. A. Having first domesticated for milk production B. Having been first domesticated for milk production C. Because they had been first domesticated for milk production D. Although they had first domesticated for milk production 21. Lorie is very thin, ____ her young sister, who is quite heavy. A. unlike B. dissimilar to C. dislike D. unlikely 22. Flooding in April is an unusual ____ in this area. A. occurrence B. occur C. occurring D. occurred.

(276) 23. It is a fact that____ form of energy. A. electricity being the most useful B. electricity is the most useful C. the most useful in electricity D. electricity the most useful 24. You have a good feeling about yourself and____ when you volunteer. A. the others B. other C. the other D. others 25. Prices of flats____ from a few thousand to millions of dollars. A. change B. vary C. differ D. fluctuate 26. Do you think Ms. Brown will ____ for Parliament in the next election? A. run B. walk C. sit D. stand 27. Nearly all of the reporters ______ the press conference had questions ______ A. attend / asked B. attended / to ask C. attending / to ask D. would attend / to be asked 28. The general public____ a large number of computers now, because prices are beginning to decrease. A. must buy B. must be buying C. must have bought D. must bought. 29. I'm worried about ______ on so much work. A. she taking B. she takes C. her to take taking. D. her. 30. Hieroglyphics ___ on the walls of caves provide scientists with important details on prehistoric man. A. painted B. were painted C. have been painted D. that they painted 31. If you ___ Peter, could you tell him to ring me up? A. come into B. come over C. come across D. come back 32. Where did you buy that ____ handbag? A. funny leather purple B. purple funny leather C. funny purple leather D. leather funny purple 33. To buy this type of product, you must pay half of the money ___, and pay the rest on the day of delivery. A. in advance B. in cheque C. in cash D. in charge 34. The boy was sent to the police because of several ____ that he had taken part in. A. set-to B. set-toes C. sets-to D. set-tos 35. ____, the results couldn’t be better. A. No matter what he tried hard B. No matter how hard he tried C. Although very hard he tried D. Despite how hard he tried Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined sound that is pronounced differently from the rest or the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress: 36. A. explosion B. conversion C. precision D. expansion 37. A. dangerous B. conspicuous C. marvelous D. numerous 38. A. pioneer B. engineer C. reindeer D. referee 39. A. establish B. intimidate C. inheritance D. illustrate 40. A. malaria B. eradicate C. character D. spectacular Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction. 41. If they took their language lesson seriously, they would be able to communicate with the locals now. A B C D 42. It announced today that an enquiry would be held into the collapse of a high-rise apartment block in Kuala Lumpur last week. A B C D.

(277) 43. I strongly object the idea of students in the final year working part-time jobs. A B C D 44. The City Council is planning to take measures regarding to the noise level in the city centre. A B C D 45. Neither of the men arresting as terrorists would reveal information about his group. A B C D 46. When a lion gets hungry, its manner changes and it becomes threatened. A B C D 47. Little he knows about the surprise that awaited him. A B C D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 48. My father couldn’t stand Tom’s behavior. A. My father found Tom’s behavior intolerant B. My father found Tom’s behavior. intolerable. C. My father was tolerant towards Tom’s behavior D. Tom’s behavior was not tolerable 49. Cultures vary from country to country. A. Cultures are different in different countries. B. There are different cultures in one country C. Culture differences are based on countries D. Cultures move from one country to another. 50-Nobody at all came to the meeting A. There was almost nobody at the meeting B. Not many people came to the meeting C. Not a single person came to the meeting D. Only a few people came to the meeting 51. The book costs $15,50 but I have only $14,50. A. I have more than enough money to pay for the book. B. The book costs a little more than I have with me. C. I have just enough money to pay for the book. D. I need a few more dollars to pay for the book. 52. If I hadn’t had so much work to do I would have gone to the movies. A. Because I had to do so much work I couldn’t go to the movies. B. I would go to the movies when I had done so much work. C. A lot of work couldn’t prevent me from going to the movies. D. I never go to the movies if I have work to do. 53. Despite his early retirement, he found no peace in life. A. Although he retired early, but he found no peace in life. B. His early retirement has brought him peace in life. C. He found no peace in life because he retired early.. D. Early as he retired, he found. no peace in life. 54. Tom has the ability to be a professional musician, but he’s too lazy to practice.. A. He is talented but he’ll never be a professional musician as he doesn’t practice.. B. As a professional musician he is not lazy to practice music lessons. C. He is able to practice music lessons professionally though he is lazy. D. Though practicing lazily, he is a professional musician. 55. David broke his leg and couldn’t play in the final. A. David couldn’t play in the final due to his broken leg. B. If David hadn’t broken his leg, he could play in the final now C. If David didn’t break his leg, he could play in the final. D. But for his broken leg, David couldn’t have played in the final. 56. Anne takes after her mother. A. Anne resembles her mother in action B. Anne and her mother are alike C. Anne looks alike her mother D. Anne likes her mother very much 57. This question is even harder than the last one..

(278) A. The last question is not difficult B. This question is the most difficult one C. The last question is difficult but this one is more difficult D. This question is hard but the last one is not. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. In the world today, particularly in the two most industrialized areas, North America and Europe, recycling is big news. People are talking about it, practicing it, and discovering new ways to be sensitive to the environment. Recycling means finding was to use products a second time. The motto of the recycling movement is "Reduce, Reuse, Recycle". The first step is to reduce garbage. In stores, a shopper has to buy products in blister packs, boxes and expensive plastic wrappings. A hamburger from a fast food restaurant comes in lots of packaging: usually paper, a box, and a bag. All that packaging is wasted resources. People should try to buy things that are wrapped simply, and to reuse cups and utensils đồ dùng, dụng cụ . Another way to reduce waste is to buy high-quality products. When low quality appliances break, many customers throw them away and buy new ones - a loss of more resources and more energy. For example, if a customer buys a high-quality appliance that can be easily repaired, the manufacturer receives an important message. In the same way, if a customer chooses a product with less packaging, that customer sends an important message to the manufacturers. To reduce garbage, the throwaway must stop. The second step is to reuse. It is better to buy juices and soft drinks in returnable bottles. After customers, empty the bottles, they return them to the store. The manufacturers of the drinks collect the bottles, wash them, and then fill them again. The energy that is necessary to make new bottles is saved. In some parts of the world, returning bottles for money is a common practice. In those places, the garbage dumps have relatively little glass and plastic from throwaway bottles. The third step is being environmentally sensitive is to recycle. Spent motor oil can be cleaned and used again. Aluminum cans are expensive to make. It takes the same amount of energy to make one aluminum can as it does to run a color TV set for three hours. When people collect and recycle aluminum (for new cans), they help save one of the world's precious resources. 58. What is the main topic of the passage? A. how to reduce garbage disposal B. what people often understand about the term 'recycle' C. what is involved in the recycling movement D. how to live sensitively to the environment. 59. Which is described as one of the most industrialized areas? A. Europe B. Asia C. Middle East D. South America 60. What does the word 'sensitive' in the phrase 'sensitive to the environment' mean? A. cautious B. logical C. friendly D. responding 61. People can do the following to reduce waste EXCEPT____. A. buy high-quality product B. buy simply-wrapped things C. reuse cups D. buy fewer hamburgers 62. Why is it a waste and customers buy low-quality products? A. Because people will soon throw them away. B. Because they have to be repaired many times. C. Because customers change their ideas all the time. D. Because they produce less energy. 63. What does it mean 'Customers can vote with their wallets'? A. they can choose the cheapest products B. they can cast a lot to praise a producer. C. they can ask people to choose products with less packaging. D. they can tell the producers which products are good for environment by buying them. 64. The word 'motto' is closest in meaning to_________ A. meaning B. value C. belief 65. What best describes the process of reuse? A. The bottles are collected, washed, returned and filled again.. D. reference.

(279) B. The bottles are filled again after being returned, collected and washed.. C. The bottles are washed, retuned, filled again and collected. D. The bottles are collected, returned filled again and washed. 66. The garbage dumps in some areas have relatively little glass and plastic because A. people are ordered to return bottles. B. returned bottles are few. C. not many bottles are made of glass or plastic. D. each returned bottles is paid. 67. The word 'practice' is closest in meaning to_______. ` A. drill B. deed C. exercise D. belief 68-What are the two things mentioned as examples of recycling? A. Aluminum cans and plastic wrappings. B. Hamburger wrappings and spent motor oil. C. Aluminum cans and spent motor oil. D. TV sets and aluminum cans. 69-The energy used to make a can is________ the energy used to run a color TV set for 3 hours. A. as much as B. less than C. not worth being compared to D. more than 70-The word 'precious' is closest in meaning to_______. A. natural B. substantial C. first D.. invaluable. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word(s) for each of the blanks. From the seeds themselves to the machinery, fertilizers and pesticides - The Green Revolution regimen depend heavily on technology. One (71) ___ , however, depends much (72) ___ on technology - organic farming. Many organic farmers use machinery, but (73) ___ chemical fertilizers or pesticides. (74) ___ chemical soil enrichers, they use animal manure and plant parts not used as food -,natural,organic fertilizers that are clearly a renewable (75) ___. Organic farmers also use alternatives for pesticides; for example they may rely (76) ___ natural predators of certain insect pests. (77) ___ the need arises, they can buy the eggs and larvae of these natural predators and introduce them into their crop fields. They use (78) ___ techniques to control pests as well, like planting certain crops together because one crop repels the other's pests. Organic farmers do not need a lot of land; (79) ___ organic farming is perfectly (80) ___ to small farms and is relatively inexpensive. Finally, many organic farmers' average yields compare favorably with other farmers' yields. 71. A. alternative B. alternate C. alteration D. alternation 72. A. more B. less C. better D. worse 73. A. also B. for C. not D. all 74. A. In spite of B. On account of C. In favour of D. Instead of 75. A. resource B. source C. matter D. substance 76. A. of B. to C. on D. in 77. A. Then B. If C. Because D. Though 78. A. others B. another C. the others D. other 79. A. instead B. in one way C. on one hand D. in fact 80. A. suitable B. open C. likely D. suited. --------------- THE END --------------. ĐỀ SỐ 35: SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC ĐỀ THI THỬ THQG NĂM 2015 TRƯỜNG THPT LIỄN SƠN MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH – ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 176 (ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT) Thời gian: 90 phút Choose the word whose underlined part different from that of the rest: I. A. present B. casual C. composure D. Occasion.

(280) 2. A. notice B. post C. monument D. comb 3. A. river B. rivalry C. icon D. stripe 4. A. experiment B. athletics C. comment D. experience. 5. A. few B. grew C. blew D. flew. Choose the word whose stress part different fromthat of the rest 6. A. readable B. satisfy C. evidence D. distinguish 7. A. relationship B. deliberate C. customer D. equipment 8. A. participate B. literature C. intimate D. powerful 9. A. teacher B. village C. police D. worker 10 A. discuss B. attack C. suppose D. visit. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions Each advance in microscopic technique has provided scientists with new perspectives on the function of living organisms and the nature of matter itself. The invention of the visible-light microscope late in the sixteenth century introduced a previously unknown realm of single-celled plants and animals. In the twentieth century, electron microscopes have provided direct views of viruses and minuscule surface structures. Now another type of microscope, one that utilize x-rays rather than light or electrons, offers a different way of examining tiny details, it should extend human perception still farther into the natural worlD. The dream of building an x-ray microscope dates to 1895, its development, however, was virtually halted in the 1940's because the development of the electron microscope was progressing rapidly. During the 1940's electron microscopes routinely achieved resolution better than that possible with a visible-light microscope, while the performance of x-ray microscopes resisted improvement. In recent years, however, interest in x-ray microscopes has revived, largely because of advances such as the development of new sources of x-ray illumination. As a result, the brightness available today is millions of times that of x-ray tubes, which, for most of the century, were the only available sources of soft x-rays. The new x-ray microscopes considerably improve on the resolution provided by optical microscopes. They can also be used to map the distribution of certain chemical elements. Some can form pictures in extremely short time, others hold the promise of special capabilities such as three dimensional imaging. Unlike conventional electron microscopy, x-ray microscopy enables specimens to be kept in air and in water, which means that biological samples can be studied under conditions similar to their natural state. The illumination used, so-called soft x-rays in the wavelength range of twenty to forty angstroms (an angstrom is one tenbillionth of a meter), is also sufficiently penetrating to image intact biological cells in many cases. Because of the wavelength of the x-rays used, soft x-ray microscopes will never match the highest resolution possible with electron microscopes. Rather, their special properties will make possible investigations that will complement those performed with light- and electron-based instruments. 11. What does the passage mainly discuss? A. The detail seen through a microscope B. Sources of illumination for microscopes C. A new kind of microscope D. Outdated microscopic technique 12. According to the passage, the invention of the visible-light microscope allowed scientists to____. A. see viruses directly B. develop the electron microscope later on C. understand more about the distribution of the chemical elements D. discover single celled plants and animals they had never seen before. 13. The word "minuscule" in the passage is closest in meaning to___. A. circular B. dangerous C. complex D. tiny 14. The word "it" in the passage refers to___. A. a type of microscope B. human perception C. the natural world D. light 15. Why does the another mention me visible light microscope in the first paragraph? A. To begin a discussion of sixteenth century discoveries. B. To put the x-ray microscope in historical perspective C. To show how limited its uses are D. To explain how it functioned 16. Why did it take so long to develop the x-ray microscope?.

(281) A. Funds for research were insufficient. B. The source of illumination was not bright enough until recently. C. Materials used to manufacture x-ray tubes were difficult to obtain D. X-ray microscopes were too complicated to operate. 17. The word "enables" in the passage is closest in meaning to____. A. constitutes B. specifies C. expands D. allows 18. The word "Rather" in the passage is closest in meaning to____. A. significantly B. preferably C. somewhat D. instead 19. The word "those" in the passage refers to____. A. properties B. investigations C. microscopes D. x-rays 20. Based on the information in the passage, what can be inferred about x-ray microscopes in the future? A. They will probably replace electron microscopes altogether. B. They will eventually be much cheaper to produce than they are now. C. They will provide information not available from other kinds of microscopes. D. They will eventually change the illumination range that they now use. Choose the underlined word or phrase in each of the sentences that needs correcting: 21. The tanker has drowned and the oil on the beaches has destroyed much of the wild life. A B C D 22. Some of the large construction companies have appointed lobbyists to try to persuade MPs to vote for legislation that would allow to build on green areas in cities. A B C D 23. Jane has very pale skin and she has to spend quite a number of days under the sun in order to get a suntan. A B C D 24. Bomb disposal experts were able to detonate the bomb before it could cause any damages. A B C D 25. The fat cats which own the business are among the wealthiest people in the country, but the workers are very poorly paid. A B C D 26. There used to be an independent insurance company, but is now part of an international conglomerate. A B C D 27. You would be better having a walk in the fresh air rather than spending hours to walk on the treadmill in the gym. A B C D 28. The twin’s hairs couldn’t have been more different, Jane’s hair was dark and Sue’s was fair. A B C D 29. Last night’s storm was terrible; the thunder and the lightning kept me wakeful for hours. A B C D 30. They’ve replaced workers with computer- controlled machine in near all their factories. A B C D Blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 31. I’d never seen anybody so shocked as Claire was when she heard Ben propose marriage to her. A. Should Ben have asked Claire to marry him, I guess she would’ve been extremely shockeD. B. I’d thought Claire would’ve been more shocked when Ben asked if she would marry him. C. I’d never imagined I could see anybody so shocked as Claire was when Ben asked her to marry him. D. When Claire heard Ben asking her to marry him, she was more shocked than I’d ever seen anyone be. 32. I wouldn’t mind having a late meeting tomorrow since I’m quite used to going home late. A. I’m trying to get more accustomed to going home late, so I think I’ll start the meeting late tomorrow. B. As it’s rather normal for me to go home late, conducting a meeting late tomorrow would be no problem for me..

(282) C. It’s rare that I go home late, but it’ll be no problem if tomorrow’s meeting is a bit later than usual. D. Why don’t we start the meeting late tomorrow, even though I know none of us is used to leaving so late? 33. She is intent on going to university whether she can get her parents’ approval or not. A. She’s attending university, even though her parents do not approve of her doing so. B. Whether or not hr parents will agree to her going to university depends on what she intends to study. C. If she can get her parents’ approval, her intention is to go to university. D. Even if her parents don’t agree, she’s still go to university. 34. You can only have my notes on condition that you bring them back tomorrow. A. I can let you borrow my notes until tomorrow, if you like. B. You must return my notes by tomorrow; otherwise, I won’t lend them to you C. You can take my notes, but not until tomorrow. D. Providing that you bring them back in good condition, you can borrow my notes until tomorrow. 35. Our team hasn’t won a trophy for five years. A. Every five years our team wins a trophy. B. Five years ago, our team failed to win a trophy. C. Five years ago was the last time our team won a trophy D. Five years is a long time to wait for our team to win a trophy Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks. Knowledge of economy is one where (36)___ and people acquire, create, disseminate and use knowledge more effectively for greater economic and social (37)___ Increased importance of knowledge provides great (38)___ for countries to strengthen their economic and social development by providing more efficient ways of producing goods and services and (39)___ them more effectively and at lower costs to a greater number of people. Wealth creation through (40)___ of human knowledge and (41)___ is steadily outpacing wealth creation through (42)___ and processing of natural resources. Knowledge has increasingly become an important means for value creation. Knowledge has become a vital (43)___ to countries, businesses and (44)____ in the 21st century - age of the (45)___ economies (KBE). Tangible evidence suggests that knowledge and information are capable of helping nations to achieve (46)___ goals. To capitalize on the knowledge revolution to improve their (47)____ and welfare, developing countries need to build on their strengths and carefully plan(48)____ investments in human capital, (49)___ institutions, (50)___ technologies and innovative and competitive enterprises. Countries such as Korea, Ireland, Malaysia and Chile illustrate the rapid progress that can be made. According to Houghton and Sheehan (2000), knowledge society. This could be blended with the new methods of developments, spread of knowledge and acquisition. Another important feature proposed by NDP is that knowledge societies must foster knowledge sharing. This is due to the recognition given to knowledge as public incentives and must be made available to every individual of the society. 36. A. groups B. societies C. organizations D. communities. 37. A. progress B. benefits C. betterment D. development 38. A. talent B. genius C. resource D. potential 39. A. delivering B. supplying C. offering D. serving. 40. A. the use B. utilizing C. application D. applying. 41. A. experiences B. qualifications C. aspirations D. creativity 42. A. elicitation B. extraction C. derivation D. eradication 43. A. commodity B. property C. treasure D. fortune. 44. A people B. citizens C. individuals D residents 45. A. knowledge- founded B. knowledge-basing C. knowledge- basis D. knowledge-based 46. A. Developing B. developmental C. developmentive D. developed. 47. A. competition B. competitiveness C. competency D. competence. 48. A. appropriate B. applicable C. concordant D. improper 49. A. cogent B. efficient C. sufficient D. effective 50. A. admissible B. relevant C. consonant D. consistent.

(283) Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 51. He was arrested because he answered to the description of the ____man. A. hunted B. searched C. pursued D. wanted 52. The residents had no time to get away as the storm hit without ____warning A. precedent B. initial C. prior D. previous 53. ____the final score, I’m sure this will be an exciting game. A. in spite of B. regardless of C. apart from D. except for 54. People who claim to have had encounters with aliens often face a great deal of ____ A. skepticism B. criticism C. objectivism D. protectantism 55. The interviewer questioned the artist at length about his____for the painting. A. inspiration B. expiration C. deliberation D. aspiration 56. You should have contacted the police, not____the law into your own hands. A. to take B. take C. taken D. taking 57. The dish was so tasty that I asked for a second____. A. portion B. share C. ration D. helping 58. The entire city was ____electricity last night – it was chaotic A. almost no B. hardly any C. without D. no. 59. For the past few months she’s been as a street____selling fruit and veg A. pusher B. vendor C. trader D. dealer. 60. He tried to make out that the fake painting he had____genuine A. to be B. being C. been D. was 61. Stage producers Klaw and Erlanger were the first to eliminate arguments among leading performers____in order of appearance, instead of prominence. A. of whom listed program B. the program listing C. for them the program listed D. by listing them on the program 62. During the decades after the United States Civil War, a host of technical advances made possible____and uniformity of railroad service A. a new integration B. for a new integration C. that a new integration D. and a new integration. 63. Many’s ____conducted through the application of creativity and knowledge. A. the advances have been B. the advances were C. the advance has been D. the advance was. 64. Forests stabilize____ and retain precipitation, thereby helping to prevent erosion and regulate the flow of streams. A. to the soil B. the soil C. where the soil D. the soil is 65. I knew once the car didn’t start, saw it had a flat tyre and also that it had started to rain, that was going to be one of those days A. a day when nothing goes right B. a day when something goes right C. a day when little goes right D. a day when little goes wrong 66. The Congress in the United States is likely to approve of the administration’s billion dollar aid package sooner or later. A. The administration’s billion dollar aid package is likely to be approved sooner or later in the United States by Congress B. The administration’s billion dollar aid package is likely to be approved sooner or later by Congress in the United States C. The administration’s billion dollar aid package is likely to be approved in the United States sooner or later by Congress. D. The administration’s billion dollar aid package is likely to be approved by Congress in the United States sooner or later. 67. We need to ____allowances for extraordinary situations like Haiti. A. have B. give C. make D. do Find the word that is synonymous to the underlined one:.

(284) 68. For a long term period, Lizzie Magie has been battling against the vicissitudes of life A. mutability B. caprice C. ups and downs D. determination 69. The aim of University education is to inure students to hardship, trials and adverse situations in life. A. accustom B. obliterate C. shun D. estrange. Find the word that is antonymous to the underlined one: 70. The Germany’s war hysteria has accounted for its people’s hostility towards foreigners A. disease B. ceremony C. malaria D. serenity . 71. He was ostracize by his colleagues for refusing to support the strike. A. crucify B. include C. patronize D. lionize. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions The selection that follows is based on an excerpt from a history of the game of Monopoly. In 1904, the U.S. Patent Office granted a patent for a board game called “The Landlord’s Game,” which was invented by a Virginia Quaker named Lizzie Magie. Magie was a follower of Henry George, who started a tax movement that supported the theory that the renting of land and real estate produced an unearned increase in land values that profited a few individuals (landlords) rather than the majority of the people (tenants). George proposed a single federal tax based on land ownership; he believed this tax would weaken the ability to form monopolies, encourage equal opportunity, and narrow the gap between rich and poor. Lizzie Magie wanted to spread the word about George’s proposal, making it more understandable to a majority of people who were basically unfamiliar with economics. As a result, she invented a board game that would serve as a teaching device. The Landlord’s Game was intended to explain the evils of monopolies, showing that they repressed the possibility for equal opportunity. Her instructions read in part: “The object of this game is not only to afford amusement to players, but to illustrate to them how, under the present or prevailing system of land tenure, the landlord has an advantage over other enterprisers, and also how the single tax would discourage speculation.” The board for the game was painted with forty spaces around its perimeter, including four railroads, two utilities, twenty-two rental properties, and a jail. There were other squares directing players to go to jail, pay a luxury tax, and park. All properties were available for rent, rather than purchase. Magie’s invention became very popular, spreading through word of mouth, and altering slightly as it did. Since it was not manufactured by Magie, the boards and game pieces were home-made. Rules were explained and transmuted, from one group of friends- to another. There is evidence to suggest that The Landlord’s Game was played at Princeton, Harvard, and the University of Pennsylvania. In 1924, Magie approached George Parker (President of Parker Brothers) to see if he was interested in purchasing the rights to her game. Parker turned her down, saying that it was too political. The game increased in popularity, migrating north to New York state, west to Michigan, and as far south as Texas. By the early 1930s, it reached Charles Darrow in Philadelphia. In 1935, claiming to be the inventor, Darrow got a patent for the game, and approached Parker Brothers. This time, the company loved it, swallowed Darrow’s prevarication, and not only purchased his patent, but paid him royalties for every game sold. The game quickly became Parker Brothers’ bestseller, and made the company, and Darrow, millions of dollars. When Parker Brothers found out that Darrow was not the true inventor of the game, they wanted to protect their rights to the successful game, so they went back to Lizzie Magie, now Mrs. Elizabeth Magie Phillips of Clarendon, VirginiA. She agreed to a payment of $500 for her patent, with no royalties, so she could stay true to the original intent of her game’s invention. She therefore required in return that Parker Brothers manufacture and market The Landlord’s Game in addition to Monopoly. However, only a few hundred games were ever produced. Monopoly went on to become the world’s best- selling board game, with an objective that is the exact opposite of the one Magie intended: “The idea of the game is to buy and rent or sell property so profitably that one becomes the wealthiest player and eventually monopolist. The game is one of shrewd and amusing trading and excitement.” 72. What does “excerpt” in the passage mean? A. Fragment B. extract C. paraphrase D. verse 73. How can the players go to jail, pay luxury tax and park? A. By going along the four railroads B. By renting a lot of properties..

(285) C. Through the directing squares available D. By using its perimeter 74. In line 16, what does repressed the possibility for equal opportunity mean? A. Monopolies led to slavery. B. Monopolies were responsible for the single tax problems. C. Monopolies made it impossible for poorer people to follow Henry George. D. Monopolies made it impossible for poorer people to have the same chances as the wealthy. 75. How does the objective of The Landlord’s Game differ from that of Monopoly? A. In The Landlord’s Game, you can only rent the properties, but in Monopoly you may buy them. B. The Landlord’s Game illustrates the inequality of the landlord/tenant system, while Monopoly encourages players to become landlords and become wealthy at the expense of others. C. The Landlord’s Game teaches the problems of capitalism and Monopoly teaches the value of money. D. The Landlord’s Game was a way for Quakers to understand the economic theories of Henry George, and Monopoly explains the evolutionary theories of Charles Darrow. 76. In line 38, what does swallowed Darrow’s prevarication mean? A. ate his lunch B. believed his lie C. understood his problem D. played by his rules 77. In line 28, the statement that the rules of The Landlord’s Game were explained and transmuted relies on the notion that. A. when people pass along information by word of mouth, it goes through changes. B. when people explain things to their friends, they take on a different appearance. C. friends rely on one another for vital information. D. it’s not always easy to play by the rules. 78. In paragraph 4, the author implies that____. A. Parker Brothers bought the game from Charles Darrow. B. it is not difficult to get a patent for an idea you didn’t invent. C. Monopoly made Parker Brothers and Darrow millions of dollars. D. Lizzie Magie tried to sell her game to George Parker. 79. Why did Mrs. Phillips sell her patent to Parker Brothers? A. So a large company would market her game and spread the word about Henry George’s single tax theory. B. So she could make money. C. So The Landlord’s Game could compete with Monopoly. D. So the truth would be told about Charles Darrow. 80. All of the following questions can be explicitly answered on the basis of the passage EXCEPT____. A. Why did Lizzie Magie invent The Landlord’s Game? B. Was was the object of The Landlord’s Game? C. What were some of the properties on The Landlord’s Game board? D. How did Parker Brothers find out that Charles Darrow didn’t invent the game? ---------------------THE END------------------. ĐỀ SỐ 36: SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC TRƯỜNG THPT LIỄN SƠN (ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT). I. Choose the word whose 1. A. necessary 2. A. relationship 3. A. concentrate 4. A. intimate 5. A. material. ĐỀ THI THỬ THQG NĂM 2015 MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH – ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 177 Thời gian: 90 phút. stress pattern is different B. benefit C. vulnerable B. equipment C. customer B. eventual C. character B. literature C. participate B. harmony C. evidence. D. parade D. deliver D. optimism D. powerful D. readable.

(286) II. Choose the best answer to complete the sentence. 6. Only in Japan …the high levels of western countries. A. industrialization has reached B. industrialization is reached C. has industrialization reached D. is industrialization reached 7. Nowadays children would prefer history ______ in more practical ways. A. be taught B. to teach C. to be taught D. teach 8. Hurry up! They’ve only got____seats left. A. a little B. a few C. a lot of D. plenty of 9. _____of the students know the answer to that question. A. Most B. Almost C. Mostly D. The most 10. We decided not to travel, ____ the terrible weather forecast. A. having heard B. we heard C. having been heard D. being heard 11. ____for their strong fiber include flax and hemp. A Plants are grown B. Plants grown C. Plants that grow D. To grow plants 12. I think you must be ____me for someone else. A. confusing B. reminding C. mistaking D .considering 13. ‘John won’t come tomorrow.’ ‘Did he say he _____next week?’ A. will come B. would come C. is coming D. had come 14. Pests occur in large numbers, and they can ____terrible damage, particularly to growing crops, that in some parts of the world people frequently suffer from famine. A. do such B. do so C. make such D. make so 15. The new magazine about maintenance ____ tomorrow. A. comes down B. comes off C. comes on D. comes out 16. A:”Do you think it will rain?’ B: “________” A. I hope not B.I not hope so C. I don’t hope so D. So do I hope 17. Peter is very____ for all the help you have given him. A. generous B. pleasant C. acceptable D. thankful 18. He couldn’t____ her to speak a word to him all the way back to her boarding house. A. have B. make C. let D. get 19. No sooner ____ the corner than its wheel came off. A. the van turned B. did the van turned C. the van had turned D. had the van turned.

(287) 20. He____ all his money, then closed the account. A. took out B. took away C. took off D. took in 21. The government are doing a ____ of people’s changing habits. A. plan B. project C. survey D. research 22. A cool drink____ him after his long hot journey. A. relaxed B. relieved C. refreshed D. recovered 23. Although he is rich and famous, he lives in a ____ house in the village. A. limited B. modest C. slight D. reserved 24. I took the shoes back to the shop, but the manager____ to change them. A. denied B. disliked C. disagrees D. refused 25. Well, we did have a terrible row but we’ve____ it up now. A. turned B. made C. sorted D. cleaned 26. I do not believe that this preposterous scheme____ of our serious consideration. A. worthy B. worth C. worthwhile D. worthless 27. It was only ____ he told me his surname that I realized that we had been to the same school. A. when B. until C. as soon as d. then 28. The____ of his first novel appeared in The Times yesterday. A. review B. inspection C. revision D. survey 29. He did not share his secrets with many people but he____ in her. A. confessed B. concealed C. confided D. consented 30. He just couldn't open the jar____ hard he tried. A. however B. whatever C. moreover D. even 31. If the students____ on time, they'd have enjoyed the pictures. A. had come B. came C. have come D. come 32. Would you be____ to hold the door open? A. too kind B. as kind C. kind enough D so kind 33. Mike: 'That's the 16th job interview I've failed. What should I do?' -Jane: ' ____ ' A. Don't give over. B. Don't give out. C. Don't give up. D. Don't give on..

(288) 34. "I've got two tickets for the exhibition." "____ ____ " A. Oh, let's go and get the tickets. B. That's great. When is it? C. Oh, anything else? D. Thanks. I can't afford the tickets. 35. Nga: “Thanks a lot for your nice present!” Mai: “________” A. Yes, it’s very nice. B. Yes, it’s very expensive. C. You’re welcomed. D. I’m glad you like it. III. Choose the part that needs correcting 36. In purchasing a winter coat, it is very important for trying it on with heavy clothing underneath.( to try) A B C D 37. What happened in that city were a reaction from city workers, including firemen and policemen who had been laid off from their jobs. ( was) A B C D 38. A number of novelists submitted their manuscripts under pseudonyms to conceal the fact that there were women. ( they were) A B C D 39. Although a doctor may be able to diagnose a problem perfectly, he still may not be able to find a drug which the patient will respond. ( to which) A B C D 40. Because the Red Cross accepts blood from most donors, the nurses will not let you give blood if you have just had a cold. (Although) A B C D IV. Choose the sentence that is the nearest in meaning to the given one 41. Unlike the other students, Thomas does not have any ambition. A. Thomas's peers, as well as him, all have some ambition. B. Thomas does not like his friends because they are ambitious. C. His students do not like Thomas because he has no ambition. D. All the students, excluding Thomas, have some ambition. 42. It’s no use reading that book. A. You should read that book. B. That book has not been used. C. That book is not worth reading. D. I have used the book for a long time. 43. I ran into Peter, a friend of mine, on my may to work this morning. A. I met Peter unexpectedly on my way to work this morning. B. Peter and I ran to work this morning C. Peter had to work this morning, but I did not D. Peter ran into his friend this morning. 44. I would have been on time if I hadn’t stopped at the post office. A. I was on time even though I stopped at the post office. C. I didn’t stop at the post office, but I was late. B. I wasn’t on time because I stopped at the post office. D. All of the above are correct. 45. But for his father’s early retirement, Richard would not have taken over the family business..

(289) A. Richard didn’t take over the family business because his father didn’t retire. B. Richard only took over the family business because his father decided to retire early. C. His father retire early, but he still ran the family business. D. Richard’s father didn’t want him to take over the family business despite his retirement. 46. Dick got to the bus station at midnight, missing his bus by two hours. A. The bus left at ten o’clock at night, so Dick missed it. B. The bus left at two o’clock in the afternoon. C. The bus left at ten o’clock in the morning. D. The bus left at midnight. 47. The onset of the disease is shown by a feeling of faintness. A. A feeling of faintness signals the final stage of the disease. B. One feels faint if the disease is over . C. The first sign of the disease is a feeling of faintness. D. Faintness causes the disease. 48. Were it not for the money, this job wouldn’t be worthwhile. A. This job is not rewarding at all. B. The only thing that makes this job worthwhile is the money. C. Although the salary is poor, the job is worthwhile. D. This job offers a poor salary. 49. 'Why not participate in the English Speaking Contest?' A. He asked me to take part in the English Speaking Contest. B. He suggested taking part in the English Speaking Contest. C. He offered us to take part in the English Speaking Contest. D. He told me not to participate in the English Speaking Contest. 50.'Don't be so disappointed Jane. You can take the driving test again,' said Helen. A. Helen told Jane not to be disappointed and take the driving test again. B. Helen asked Jane not to be disappointed and offered her another driving test. C. Helen warned Jane not to be disappointed' in order to take the driving test again. D. Helen encouraged Jane to take the driving test again. V. Read the passages and decide which answer A,B,C or D best fit each space. Do you ever wish you were more optimistic, someone who always (51)___ to be successful? Having someone around who always fears the worst isn't really a lot of (52)___ - we all know someone who sees a single cloud on a sunny day and says, 'It looks like rain.' But if you catch yourself thinking such things, it's important to do something about it. You can change your view of life, according to psychologist. It only takes a little (53)___, and you'll find life more rewarding as a (54)___.Optimism, they say, is partly about self-respect and confidence but it's also a more positive way of looking at life and all it has to (55)___. Optimists are more (56)___ to start new projects and are generally more prepared to take risks..

(290) Upbringing is obviously very important in forming your (57)___ to the world. Some people are brought up to depend too much on others and grow up forever blaming other people when anything (58)___ wrong. Most optimists, on the (59)___ hand, have been brought up not to (60)___ failure as the end of the world - they just get on with their lives. 51 A. counted B. expected C. felt D. waited 52. A. amusement B. play C. enjoyment D. fun 53. A. energy B. effort C. work D. effect 54. A. result B. reason C. purpose D. product 55. A. supply B. suggest C. offer D. propose 56. A. possible B. likely C. hopeful D. welcome 57. A. opinion B. attitude C. view D. position 58. A. goes B. falls C. comes D. turns 59. A. opposite B. others C. other D. far 60. A. regard B. respect C. suppose D. think VI.Read the passage and answer the question that follow Accustomed though we are to speaking of the films made before 1927 as "silent," the film has never been, in the full sense of the word, silent. From the very beginning, music was regarded as an indispensable accompaniment ; when the Lumiere films were shown at the first public film exhibition in the Unites States in February 1896, they were accompanied by piano improvisations on popular tunes. At first, the music played bore no special relationship to the films; an accompaniment of any kind was sufficient. Within a very short time, however, the incongruity of playing lively music to a solemn film became apparent, and film pianists began to take some care in matching their pieces to the mood of the film. As movie theaters grew in number and importance, a violinist, and perhaps a cellist, would be added to the pianist in certain cases, and in the larger movie theaters small orchestras were formed. For a number of years the selection of music for each film program rested entirely in the hands of the conductor or leader of the orchestra, and very often the principal qualification for holding such a position was not skill or taste so much as the ownership of a large personal library of musical pieces. Since the conductor seldom saw the films until the night before they were to be shown (if, indeed, the conductor was lucky enough to see them then), the musical arrangement was normally improvised in the greatest hurry. To help meet this difficulty, film distributing companies started the practice of publishing suggestions for musical accompaniments. In 1909, for example, the Edison Company began issuing with their films such indications of mood as "pleasant," "sad," "lively." The suggestions became more explicit, and so emerged the musical cue sheet.

(291) containing indications of mood, the titles of suitable pieces of music, and precise directions to show where one piece led into the next. Certain films had music especially composed for them. The most famous of these early special scores was that composed and arranged for D.W. Griffith's film Birth of a Nation, which was released in 1915. 61. The passage mainly discusses music that was ____ . A. performed before the showing of a film B. played during silent films C. specifically composed for certain movie theaters D. recorded during film exhibitions 62. What can be inferred from the passage about the majority of films made after 1927? A. They were truly "silent." B. They were accompanied by symphonic orchestras. C. They incorporated the sound of the actors' voices. D. They corresponded to specific musical compositions. 63. The word "solemn" is closest in meaning to____. A. simple B. serious C. short D. silent 64. It can be inferred that orchestra conductors who worked in movie theaters needed to ____. A. be able to play many instruments B. have pleasant voices C. be familiar with a wide variety of music D. be able to compose original music 65. The word "them" refers to ____. A. years B. hands C. pieces D. films 66. According to the passage, what kind of business was the Edison Company? A. It produced electricity. B. It distributed films. C. It published musical arrangements. D. It made musical instruments. 67. It may be inferred from the passage that the first musical cue sheets appeared around ____. A. 1896 B. 1909 C. 1915 D. 1927 68. Which of the following notations is most likely to have been included on a musical cue sheet of the early 1900's? A. "Calm, peaceful" B. "Piano, violin" C. "Key of C major" D. "Directed by D.W. Griffith" 69. The word "scores" is closest in meaning to ____. A. totals B. successes C. musical compositions D. groups of musicians 70. The passage probably continues with a discussion of ____. A. famous composers of the early twentieth century B. other films directed by D.W. Griffith.

(292) C. silent films by other directors D. the music in Birth of a Nation VII. Read the passage and answer the question that follow Marianne Moore (1887-1972) once said that her writing could be called poetry only because there was no other name for it. Indeed her poems appear to be extremely compressed essays that happen to be printed in jagged lines on the page. Her subject were varied: animals, laborers, artists, and the craft of poetry. From her general reading came quotations that she found striking or insightful. She included these in her poems, scrupulously enclosed in quotation marks, and sometimes identified in footnotes. Of this practice, she wrote, " 'Why many quotation marks?' I am asked. When a thing has been so well that it could not be said better, why paraphrase it? Hence, my writing is, if not a cabinet of fossils, a kind of collection of flies in amber." Close observation and concentration on detail and the methods of her poetry. Marianne Moore grew up in Kirkwood, Missouri, near St. Lois. After graduation from Bryn Mawr College in 1909, she taught commercial subjects at the Indian School in Carlisle, Pennsylvania. Later she became a librarian in New York City. During the 1920’s she was editor of The Dial, an important literary magazine of the period. She lived quietly all her life, mostly in Brooklyn, New York. She spent a lot of time at the Bronx Zoo, fascinated by animals. Her admiration of the Brooklyn Dodgers-before the teammoved to Los Angeles-was widely known. Her first book of poems was published in London in 1921 by a group of friends associated with the Imagist movement. From that time on her poetry has been read with interest by succeeding generations of poets and readers. In 1952 she was awarded the Pulitzer Prize for her Collected Poems. She wrote that she did not write poetry "for money or fame. To earn a living is needful, but it can be done in routine ways. One writes because one has a burning desire to objectify what it is indispensable to one's happiness to express. 71. What is the passage mainly about? A. The influence of the imagists on Marianne Moore. B. Essayists and poets of the 1920's. C. The use of quotations in poetry. D. Marianne Moore's life and work.. 72. Which of the following can be inferred about Moore's poems? A. They are better known in Europe than the United States. B. They do not use traditional verse forms. C. They were all published in The Dial. D. They tend to be abstract. 73. According to the passage Moore wrote about all of the following EXCEPT____. A. artists B. animals C. fossils D. workers. 74. What does Moore refer to as "flies in amber"? A. A common image in her poetry. B. Poetry in the twentieth-century. C. Concentration on detail. D. Quotations within her poetry. 75. The author mentions all of the following as jobs held by Moore EXCEPT____. A. commercial artist B. teacher C. magazine editor D. librarian.

(293) 76. The word "period" is closest in meaning to ____. A. movement B. school 77. Where did Moore spend most of her adult life? A. In Kirkwood. B. In Brooklyn. D. In Carlisle. 78. The word "succeeding" in line 19 is closest to____. A. inheriting B. prospering later. C. region. D. time. C. In Los Angeles.. C. diverse. D.. 79. The word "it" in line 22 refers to____. A. writing poetry B. becoming famous C. earning a living attracting readers 80. It can be inferred from the passage that Moore wrote because she____. A. wanted to win awards B. was dissatisfied with what others wrote C. felt a need to express herself D. wanted to raise money for the Bronx Zoo ------------------THE END-----------------. D.. ĐỀ SỐ 37: SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC ĐỀ THI THỬ THQG NĂM 2015 TRƯỜNG THPT LIỄN SƠN MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH – ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 178 (ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT) Thời gian: 90 phút I. Mark A,B,C or D to indicate the word pronounced differently from the rest. 1. A. event B. prevent C. percent D. agent 2. A. sword B. whole C. answer D. sweet 3. A. river B. rival C. native D. driven 4. A. broad B. load C. road D. boat 5. A. measure B. pleasure C. ensure D. leisure II. Mark A,B,C or D to indicate the word whose main stress differs from the rest. 6. A. benefit B. industry C. inherit D. architect 7. A. contrary B. graduate C. document D. attendance 8. A. emphasize B. contribute C. maintenance D. heritage 9. A. comprehend 10. A. image. B. entertain B. predict. C. develop C. envy. D. introduce D. cover. III. Mark A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to the following questions. 11. Remember to appreciate what your friends do for you. You shouldn’t take them______________. A. as a rule B. as usual C. out of habit D. for granted 12. It’s very kind of you to give me something on my birthday, but you ____ bought such an expensive present like this. A. didn’t need B. needn’t C. needn’t have D. haven’t needed 13. _______ appear, they are really much larger than the Earth..

(294) A. As the small stars. Small as the stars. B. The stars as small. C. Despite of the small stars. D.. 14. After running up the stairs, I was ________ breath. A. without B. out of C. no D. away from 15. I know his name, but I can’t recall it at the moment. It’s on the tip of ______. A. tongue B. brain C. mind D. memory 16. ________ to the big city, I have got lost many times. A. Useless B. Unused C. Unfamiliar D. Unacquainted 17. If he hadn’t lost his job last year, he _____________ a house of his own now. A. can buy B. will buy C. could buy D. could have bought 18. He has a big house and an expensive car, not to _________ a villa in Dalat. A. infer B. refer C. mention D. imply 19. The teacher asked a difficult question, but finally Ted _________ a good answer. A. put up with B. keep pace with C. made way for D. came. up with 20. The volcano which had been _____ for years suddenly exploded. A. passive B. idle C. immobile D. inactive 21. Although he was completely ________, he produced the most beautiful table. A. unable B. incapable C. uneducated D. untrained 22. We can put you ___ for a few days if you have nowhere else to live. A. on B. out C. up D. off 23. Andrew is known for always saying _________ comes to his mind. A. anything B. something C. everything D. whatever 24. It’s hard to _________ well with him. He’s got such a difficult character. A. get over B. get on C. get into D. get in 25. If that old vase is a _______ one, it will cost a lot of money. A. sincere B. genuine C. truthful D. realistic. 26. Hard work can often bring _________ success. A. into B. in C. about D. up 27. He _____ a big fortune when he was young, so he didn’t have to work hard. A. came into B. came up C. came across came round 28. He manages to visit his parents _________________ Saturday. A. another every B. every other C. every the other D. other every 29. _______, all animals need oxygen, water, food and proper range of weather. A. Being survive B. To survive C. When surviving D. Surviving 30. In order to avoid boredom, the most important thing is to keep oneself ______ A. occupation B. occupational C. occupied D. preoccupied. D.. IV. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks. Health is something we tend to (31) ___ when we have it. When our body is doing well, we are hardly (32) ____ of it. But illness can come, even (33) ___ we are young. In fact, childhood has been a very susceptible time. Many diseases attack children in particular, and people know very little (34) ____ to cure them once they struck. The result was that many children died. About a century ago, (35) ____, scientists found out about germs, and then everything changed. The (36).

(295) ____ of many diseases was found, and cures were developed. As this medical discovery spread, the world became (37) ___ safer for children. The result is that (38) ____ a hundred years ago, the average man lived for 35 years, nowadays, in many areas of the world, people can (39) ___ to live for 75 years. And what do we expect by the year 2020? Undoubtedly, medical science will continue to (40) ___. Some people will be able to avoid medical problems that are unavoidable today. 31. A. forget B. ignore C. give up D. throw away 32. A. awake B. keen C. aware D. concerned 33. A. if B. so C. when D. while 34. A. how B. what C. which D. when 35. A. therefore B. however C. although D. moreover 36. A. reason B. origin C. source D. cause 37. A. more B. much C. very D. quite 38. A. where B. when C. why D. whereas 39. A. desire B. hope C. want D. expect 40. A. speed up B. advance C. accelerate D. run V. Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Telecommuting is some form of computer communication between employees’ homes and offices. For employees whose job involve sitting at a terminal or word processor entering data or typing reports, the location of the computer is of no consequence. If the machine can communicate over telephone lines, when the work is completed, employees can dial the office computer and transmit the material to their employers. A recent survey in USA Today estimates that there are approximately 8,7 million telecommuters. But although the numbers are rising annually, the trend does not appear to be as significant as predicted when Business Week published “The Portable Executive” as its cover story a few years ago. Why hasn’t telecommuting become more popular? Clearly, change simply takes time. But in addition, there has been active resistance on the part of many managers. These executives claim that supervising the telecommuters in a large work force scattered across the country would be too difficult, or, at least, systems for managing them are not yet developed, thereby complicating the manager’s responsibilities. It is also true that employees who are given the option of telecommuting are reluctant to accept the opportunity. Most people feel that they need regular interaction with a group, and many are concerned that they will not have the same consideration for advancement if they are not more visible in the office setting. Some people feel that even when a space in their homes is set aside as a work area, they never really get away from the office. 41. With which of the following topics is the passage primarily concerned? A. The advantages of telecommuting. B. A definition of telecommuting. C. An overview of telecommuting. D. The failure of telecommuting. 42. How many Americans are involved in telecommuting? A. More than predicted in Business Week. B. More than 8 million. C. Fewer than estimated in USA Today. D. Fewer than last year. 43. The phrase “of no consequence” means____. A. of no use B. of no good C. unimportant D. irrelevant 44. The author mentions all of the following as concerns of telecommuting, EXCEPT____. A. the opportunities for advancement. B. the different system of supervision. C. the lack of interaction with a group. D. The work place is in the home. 45. The word “executives “ in line 10 refers to____. A. telecommuters B. managers C. employees D. most people 46. The word “them” in line 11 refers to____. A. systems B. telecommuters C. executives D. responsibilities.

(296) 47. The reason why telecommuting has not become popular is that the employees____. A. need regular interaction with their families. B. are worried about the promotion if they not seen at the office. C. feel that a work area in their home is away from the office. D. are ignorant of telecommuting. 48. It can be inferred from the passage that the author is____. A. a telecommuter B. the manager C. a statistician D. a reporter 49. The word “reluctant” in line 13 can best be replaced by ____. A. opposite B. willing C. hesitate D. typical 50. When Business Week published “ The Portable Executive “, it implied that A. systems for managing telecommuters were not effective.. are. B. there was resistance on the part of many managers about telecommuting. C. the trend for telecommuting was optimistic. D. most telecommuters were satisfied with their work. VI. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 51. I read two books, but I didn’t find them interesting. A. None of the two books I read was interesting B. Either of the books I read weren’t interesting. C. Neither of the books I read was interesting. D. The two books I read wasn’t interesting. 52. He spent all his money. He even borrowed some from me. A. As soon as he borrowed some money from me, he spent it all. B. Hardly had he borrowed some money from me when he spent it all. C. Not only did he spent all his money but also he borrowed some from me. D. Not only did he spend all his money but he borrowed some from me as well. 53. These new machines have put an end to queuing, A. These new machines have a special function in putting an end to queuing. B. Putting an end to queuing depends on these machines. C. People have to queue before these machines. D. Before these new machines were invented, people had to queue. 54. It was his lack of confidence that surprised me.. A. He surprised me by his lack of confidence.. B. What surprised me. was his lack of confidence. C. That his lack of confidence surprised me.. D. That he lacked of. confidence surprised me. 55. As he gets older, he wants to travel less. A. As soon as he wants to travel less, he gets older. wants to travel, the older he gets.. B. The less he.

(297) C. The more old age he gets, the less he wants to travel. D. The older he gets, the less he wants to travel. 56. She only felt relaxed after a few months working for him. A. She used to feel relaxed working for him a few months. B. A few months ago, she didn’t find it relaxed working for him.. C. Only after a few months working for him did she feel relaxed. D. It was not until a few months working for him did she feel relaxed. 57. Everyone expected her to win the tournament, but she didn’t. A. Unlike everyone expected, she didn’t win the tournament B. Everyone was unexpected when she won the tournament.. C. Contrary to everyone’s expectation, she lost the tournament. D. To everyone’s expectation, she won the tournament. 58. We have run out of the items you want. A. We have to run out to buy the items you want B. The items you want are out of our shop. C. The items you want have been out of stock. D. For the items you want, we must run out. 59. If only I had taken that job in the bank A. I regret not taking that job in the bank B. I regret not take that job in the bank C. I wish I took that job in the bank D. I don’t taken that job in the bank 60. I didn’t mean to offend you. A. Offending you was meaningless to me. B. I had no intention of offending you. C. It was meaningless of me to offend you. D. What I offended you was meaningless. VII. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to show the underlined part that needs. correction.. 61. She is among the few who wants to quit smoking instead of cutting down. (want) A B C D 62. Doctors have always recommended that a person with a cold must drink fluids, such as juice or water to prevent the loss of water in his / her body. (should drink : SUBJUNCTIVE MOOD) A B C D 63. Alike light waves, microwaves may be reflected and concentrated. (Like) A B C D. 64. We felt asleep at the meeting because the speaker had such a monotonous voice. A. B. (sleepy) C. D. 65. One-cent coins issued in the United States in 1982 was 96 percent zinc. (were) A B C D VIII. Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Choosing a career may be one of the hardest jobs you ever have, and it must be done with care. View a career as an opportunity to do something you love, not simply as a way to earn a living. Investing the time and effort to thoroughly explore your options can mean the difference between finding a stimulating and rewarding career and move from job to unsatisfying job in an.

(298) attempt to find the right one. Work influences virtually every aspect of your life, from your choice of friends to where you live. Here are just a few of the factors to consider. Deciding what matters most to you is essential to making the right decision. You may want to begin by assessing your likes, dislikes, strengths, and weaknesses. Think about the classes, hobbies, and surroundings that you find most appealing. Ask yourself questions, such as “Would you like to travel? Do you want to work with children? Are you more suited to solitary or cooperative work?” There are no right or wrong answers; only you know what is important to you. Determine which job features you require, which ones you would prefer, and which ones you cannot accept. Then rank them in order of importance to you. The setting of the job is one factor to take into account. You may not want to sit at a desk all day. If not, there are diversity occupation – building inspector, supervisor, real estate agent – that involve a great deal of time away from the office. Geographical location may be a concern, and employment in some fields in concentrated in certain regions. Advertising job can generally be found only in large cities. On the other hand, many industries such as hospitality, law education, and retail sales are found in all regions of the country. If a high salary is important to you, do not judge a career by its starting wages. Many jobs, such as insurance sales, offers relatively low starting salaries; however, pay substantially increases along with your experience, additional training, promotions and commission. Don’t rule out any occupation without learning more about it. Some industries evoke positive or negative associations. The traveling life of a flight attendant appears glamorous, while that of a plumber does not. Remember that many jobs are not what they appear to be at first, and may have merits or demerits that are less obvious. Flight attendants must work long, grueling hours without sleeps, whereas plumbers can be as highly paid as some doctors. Another point to consider is that as you mature, you will likely develop new interests and skills that may point the way to new opportunities. The choice you make today need not be your final one. 66. The author states that “There are no right or wrong answers” in order to ____. A. emphasize that each person’s answers will be different. B. show that answering the questions is a long and difficult process. C. indicate that the answers are not really important. D. indicate that each person’s answers may change over time. 67. The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to____. A. questions B. answers C. features D. jobs 68. The word “assessing” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by____. A. discovering B. considering C. measuring D. disposing 69. According to paragraph 3, which of the following fields is NOT suitable for a person who does not want to live in a big city? A. plumbing B. law C. retail sales D. advertising 70. The word “evoke” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to____. A. agree on B. bring to mind C. be related to D. differ from 71. The word “that” in paragraph 4 refers to____. A. occupation B. the traveling life C. a flight attendant D. commission 72. It can be inferred from the paragraph 3 that____. A. jobs in insurance sales are generally not well-paid. B. insurance sales people can earn high salary later in their career. C. people should constantly work toward the next promotion. D. a starting salary should be an important consideration in choosing a career. 73. In paragraph 5, the author suggests that____.. A. you may want to change careers at some time in the future. B. as you get older, your career will probably less fulfilling..

(299) C. you will be at your job for a lifetime, so choose carefully. D. you will probably jobless at some time in the future. 74. Why does the author mention “long, grueling hours without sleeps” in paragraph 4? A. To emphasize the difficulty of working as a plumber.. B. To contrast the reality of a flight attendant’s job with most people’s perception. C. To show that people must work hard for the career they have chosen. D. To discourage readers from choosing a career as a flight attendant. 75. According to the passage, which of the following is true? A. To make a lot of money, you should not take a job with a low starting salary. B. To make lots of money, you should rule out all factory jobs. C. If you want an easy and glamorous lifestyle, you should consider becoming flight attendant. D. Your initial view of certain careers may not be accurate. IX. Mark the letter (A, B, C or D) to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 76. Having been asked to speak at the conference, ______________. A. some notes were prepared for Dr. Clark B. some notes were prepared by Dr. Clark C. Dr. Clark prepared some notes. D. audiences were pleased to hear Dr. Clark. 77. The scientist did the experiment ____________ alone A. on his own B. by him C. by himself D. by his 78. Total color blindness, _________ , is the result of a defect in the retina. A. is a rare condition B. which is a condition rare C. a rare condition D. that is a rare condition 79. ____ in 1635, the Boston Latin School is the oldest public school in the United States. A. Founding B. Founded C. To found D. Having founded 80. It took the director two hours ____. A. explaining us the new plan B. to explain us the new plan C. explaining the new plan to us D. to explain the new plan to us ----------------------THE END---------------------------. ĐỀ SỐ 38: SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC ĐỀ THI THỬ THQG NĂM 2015 TRƯỜNG THPT LIỄN SƠN MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH – ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 179 (ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT) Thời gian: 90 phút Chọn phương án (A hoặc B, C, D) cho ứng với từ có trọng âm chính nhấn vào âm tiết có vị trí khác với ba từ còn lại trong mỗi câu: 1. A. adverb B. advent C. addict D. adventure 2. A. accept B. accent C. accord D. Account 3. A. accuracy B. Canada C. banana D. countryside 4. A. contaminate B. continent C. conquer D. Comfortable 5. A. Civilian B. Citizen C. circular D. citadel Chọn phương án đúng (A hoặc B, C, D) để hoàn thành mỗi câu sau: 6. I’m sorry, but I just can’t____ your behaviour any longer. A. go along with B. get on with C. keep up with D.. put up with.

(300) 7. It is doubtful whether newspapers____ governments to any great degree. A. draw B. influence C. catch D. attract 8. Many companies____ to take part in illegal logging. A. denied B. rejected C. protested D. refused 9. The music____ the composer’s joy of life. A. arouses B. appeals C. expresses D. attracts 10. The Grand Canyon is the product of centuries of____ A. erosion B. decay C. crumbling D. deterioration 11. The Keep Environment Clean campaign raised far more than the____. A. target B. object C. goal D. aim. 12. The space shuttle can travel at seven miles____ second. A. every B. a C. for a D. each 13. She lives near me and I often speak to her on my____ to work. A. route B. road C. street D. way 14. The other day I came____ a really beautiful old house in the back streets of London. A. over B. down C. by D. across 15. I could tell he was pleased____ the expression on his face. A. by B. in C. at D. for 16. By the 1300s, the Spanish had learnt that gunpowder could____ propel an object with incredible force. A. using it to B. used to C. be used to D. been used to 17. Tennessee has about 140 newspapers,____ 25 are issued daily. A. of which about B. which is about C. about which D. which are about 18. When consumers cannot have everything that they want, they have to choose____ most. A. they want what B. what they want C. they want it D. that they want 19. Rodney____ for the company for very long before he was promoted. A. hadn’t been working B. hasn’t been working C. didn’t used to work D. didn’t work. 20. “Do you think Harry will want something to eat after he gets here?” “I hope not. It’ll probably be after midnight, and we____.” A. be sleeping B. are sleeping C. will be sleeping D. have been sleeping 21. Mr. Lee was upset by____ him the truth. A. us not tell B. we didn’t tell C. not to tell D. our not having told. 22. ____ for the fact that he was working abroad, he would have helped win the project. A. Had it been B. Hadn’t it been C. If it hadn’t been D. If it had been 23. “Could you please turn off the stove? The potatoes____ for at least thirty minutes.” A. are boiling B. were boiling C. boiling D. have. been boiling 24. I didn’t see anyone but I felt as though I____. A. am watched B. have been watched C. was being watched D. be watched 25. Let’s leave early, so we’ll be ahead of the rush of commuters. We can’t risk____ in heavy traffic during rush hour. A. to hold up B. holding up C. having held up D. being held up Đọc kỹ đoạn văn sau và chọn phương án đúng (A hoặc B, C, D) cho mỗi chỗ trống từ câu 26 đến câu 35.

(301) Nowadays people are more aware that wildlife all over the world is in (26)___ many species of animals are threatened, and could easily become (27)___ if we do not make an effort to (28)___ them. There are many reasons for this. In some cases, animals are (29)___ for their fur or for other valuable parts of their bodies. Some birds, such as parrots, are caught (30)___, and sold as pets. For many animals and birds, the problem is that their habitat- the place where they live- is (31)___. More (32)___ is used for farms, for houses and industry , and there are fewer open spaces than there once were. Farmers use powerful chemicals to help them grow better (33)___, but these chemicals pollute the environment and (34)___ wildlife. The most successful animals on earthhuman beings- will soon be the only ones (35)___, unless we can solve this problem. 26. A. problem B. vanishing C. threat D. danger 27. A. empty B. disappeared C. extinct D. vanished 28. A. serve B. protect C. defend D. harm 29. A. game B. extinct C. chased D. hunted 30. A. alive B. for living C. lively D. for life 31. A. departing B. exhausting C. disappearing D. escaping 32. A. land B. area C. soil D. earth 33. A. products B. fields C. crops D. herbs 34. A. wound B. wrong C. harm D. spoil 35. A. staying B. survived C. over D. left Đọc kỹ đoạn văn sau và chọn phương án đúng (A hoặc B, C, D) cho mỗi chỗ trống từ câu 36 đến câu 45 Most people feel that when they dream, they are (36)___ off to another world. On the (37)___, dreams are often connected to our daily lives. When our whole (38)___ is filled with something, when we are either very upset (39)___ when we are in good spirit, a dream will represent this reality in symbols. It is often (40)___ that we benefit from dreams because they help the spirit to heal itself, when things (41)___ wrong. Dreams are therefore a kind of escape, almost a holiday from (42)___ life, with its fears and responsibilities. It is, however, a strange kind of holiday because whether we have a wonderful time or whether it turns (43)___ to be a nightmare, we quickly forget it. Most dreams disappear forever, (44)___ you are one of those people disciplined enough to write them down as soon as you (45)___. 36. A. taken B. guided C. brought D. carried 37. A. contrast B. contrary C. other side D. opposite 38. A. spirit B. mind C. brain D. soul 39. A. unless B. but also C. or else D. or 40. A. said B. spoken C. declared D. started 41. A. become B. go C. turn D. get 42. A. real B. factual C. genuine D. actual 43. A. off B. up C. out D. down 44. A. except that B. therefore C. thus D. unless 45. A. wake up B. arise C. awake D. rise up Đọc kỹ đoạn văn sau và chọn phương án đúng (A hoặc B, C, D) cho mỗi câu từ 46 đến 50 Chess must be one of the oldest games in the world. An Arab traveler in India in the year 900 wrote that it was played “long , long ago”. Chess was probably invented in India, and it has been played everywhere from Japan to Europe since 1400. The name “chess” is interesting. When one player is attacking the other’s king, he says in English, “check”. When the king has been caught.

(302) and cannot move anywhere, he says “check mate”. These words come from Persian. “shah mat” means “ the king is dead”. That is the game is over, and one player has won. Such an old game changes very slowly. The rules have not always been the same as they are now. For example, at one time the queen could only move one square at a time. Now she is the strongest piece on the board. It would be interesting to know why this has happened! Chess takes time and thought, but it is a game for all kinds of people. You don’t have to be champion in order to enjoy it. it is not always played by two people sitting at the same table.The first time of the Americans beat the Russians was in a match played by radio. Some of the chess masters are able to play many people at the same time. The record was when one man played 400 games! It is said that some people play chess by post. This must make chess the slowest game in the world. 46. Which of the following is known to be true? A. Chess was played in India long before 900. B. Chess is an old Indian traveling 900 C. Chess is the oldest game in the world. D. Chess was played in Japan and Europe before 400 47. One player has won the game when___. A. he says “check” to the other player. B. the other player’s king cannot move anywhere. C. he attack the other player’s king. D. he says some Persian words. 48. Which of the following will you hear when one player has won the game? A. “Check mate” B. “Shah mat” C. “The King is dead” D. “check” 49. Which following is NOT correct of the passage? A. All kinds of people can play chess B. Some people write each other playing chess. C. The Russian lost the game played by radio. D. Only two people can play chess sitting at the same table. 50. According to the old rules of the game___. A. the queen could move no more than one square at a time. B. the king could not move anywhere. C. the queen was the strongest piece on the board. D. the king had to be attacked all the time. Đọc kỹ đoạn văn sau và chọn phương án đúng (A hoặc B, C, D) cho mỗi câu từ 51đến 60 Basic to any understanding of Canada in the 20 years after the Second World War is the country’s impressive population growth. For every three Canadians in 1945, there were over five in 1966. In September 1966 Canada’s population passed the 20 million mark. Most of his surging growth ca me from natural increase. The depression of the 1930’s and the war had held back marriages, and the catching-up process began after 1945. The baby boom continued through the decade of the 1950’s, producing a population increase of nearly fifteen percent in the five years from 1951 to 1956. This rate of increase had been exceeded only once before settleD. Undoubtedly, the good economic condition of the 1950’s supported a growth in the population, but the expansion also derived from a trend toward earlier marriages and an increase in the average size of families. In 1957 the Canadian birth rate stood at 28 per thousand, one of the highest in the world. After the peak year of 1957, the birth rate in Canada began to decline. It continued failing until in 1966 it stood at the lowest level in 25 years. Partly this decline reflected the low level of births during the depression and the war, but it was also caused by changes in Canadian society. Young people were staying at school longer; more women were working; young married couples were buying automobiles or houses before starting families; rising living standards were cutting down the size of families. It appeared that Canada was once more falling in step with the trend toward smaller families that had occurred all through the Western world since the time of the Industrial Revolution. Although the growth in Canada’s population had slowed down by 1966 (the increase in the first half of the 1960’s was only nine percent), another large population wave was coming over the.

(303) horizon. It would be composed of the children who were born during the period of the high birth rate prior to 1957. 51. What does the passage mainly discuss? A. Educational changes in Canadian society. B. Canada during the Second World war. C. Population trends in postwar Canada. D. Standards of living in Canada. 52. According to the passage, when did Canada’s baby born begin? A. In the decade after 1911 B. After 1945 C. During the depression of the 1930’s D. In 1966 53. The word “five” refers to____. A. Canadians B. years C. decades D. marriages 54. The word “surging” is closest in meaning to____. A. new B. extra C. accelerating D. surprising 55. The author suggests that in Canada during the 1950’s____. A. the urban population decreased rapidly B. fewer people married. C. economic conditions were poor. D. the birth rate was very high. 56. The word “trend” is closest in meaning to____. A. tendency B. aim C. growth D. directive 57. The word “peak” is closest in meaning to____. A. pointed B. dismal C. mountain D. maximum. 58. When was the birth rate in Canada at its lowest population level? A. 1966 B. 1957 C. 1956 D. 1951 59. The author mentions all of the following as causes of declines in population growth after 1957 EXCEPT____. A. people being better educated B. people getting married earlier. C. better standards of living. D. couples buying houses. 60. It can be inferred from the passage that before the Industrial Revolution A. families were larger B. population statistics were unreliable C. the population grew steadily. D. economic conditions were bad. Chọn phương án (A hoặc B, C, D) ứng với từ / cụm từ có gạch chân cần phải sửa để các câu sau trở thành câu đúng: 61. Never having flied (A) before, Mark was very (B) excited as (C) he drove to the (D)airport. 62. If classes had finished (A) sooner(B), I would go (C) to Canada last month(D). 63. The (A) law of that country forbids anyone (B)under (C)eighteen driving (D)a car. 64. The notorious (A) criminal (B) is reported (C) to having surrendered (D) yesterday. 65. The professor had us (A) to read (B) the first half of the (C) book by (D) Monday. Chọn phương án đúng (A hoặc B, C, D) ứng với câu có nghĩa gần nhất với mỗi câu cho sẵn sau đây: 66. His parents made him study for his exams. A. he was made study for the exams by his parents. B. he was obliged to study for the exams by his parents. C. He is made to study for the exams by his parents. D. He was made to study for the exams by his parents. 67. “Where are you spending your holidays?” Janet asked us. A. Janet asked us that where we were spending our holidays. B. Janet asked us where we were spending our holidays. C. Janet asked us that where were we spending our holidays..

(304) D. Janet asked us that where you were spending your holidays. 68. “I was not there at the time” he said. A. He denied being there at the time. B. He denied that he was there at the time. C. He denied not being there at the time. D. He denied that he wasn’t there at the time. 69. “Don’t forget to phone the office,” she told him. A. She reminded him to phone the office. B. She reminded him not to forget to phone the office. C. She reminded him to forget not to phone the office. D. She reminded him about phoning the office. 70. “Will you come to my party?” she said to me. A. She invited that I would come to her party. B. She invited me to come to her party. C. She asked me if I would come to her party D. She asked me would I come to her party. Chọn phương án (A hoặc B, C, D) ứng với từ / cụm từ có gạch chân cần phải sửa để các câu sau trở thành câu đúng: 71. When too many (A) firms enter competitive(B) markets, their share of profits(C) will fell. (D). 72. No one knows ( A) exactly how many species( B) of animals (C) lives ( D) on earth. 73. The mining (A) of minerals often brings about ( B) the destruction ( C) of landscapes and wildlife(D) habitants. 74. The term “middle class” describes ( A) people between ( B) the upper and the below (C) social ( D) classes. 75. Copper comes from seven types ( A) of ores ( B) that also contain (C) the other (D) materials. Chọn phương án đúng (A hoặc B, C, D) ứng với câu có nghĩa gần nhất với mỗi câu cho sẵn sau đây: 76. They arrived too late to get good seats. A. When they arrived, the good seats were already taken. B. They got good seats some time after they arrive. C. Although they were late, they found some good seats. D. They had to stand for the whole show. 77. He started to play the guitar five years ago. A. He has been playing the guitar since five years. B. he has been playing the guitar for five years. C. He has been starting to play the guitar for five years. D. He has started playing the guitar for 5 years. 78. The switch was too high for him to reach. A. He wasn’t tall enough for reaching the switch. B. He wasn’t tall enough to reach the switch. C. He wasn’t enough tall to reach the switch. D. He wasn’t so tall that he can reach the switch. 79. It’s possible to cross the road because of the traffic. A. The traffic makes people be impossible to cross the road. B. The traffic makes everyone be impossible to cross the road. C. The traffic makes it be impossible to cross the road. D. The traffic makes it. impossible to cross the road. 80. I would prefer you not to smoke in here. A. I’d rather you shouldn’t some in here. here. C. I’d rather you not to smoke in here.. B. I’d. rather you didn’t smoke in. D. I’d rather you don’t smoke in here..

(305) --------------------THE END--------------------. ĐỀ SỐ 39: SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC ĐỀ THI THỬ THQG NĂM 2015 TRƯỜNG THPT LIỄN SƠN MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH – ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 180 (ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT) Thời gian: 90 phút Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 1. It was a six-hours journey; we were completely exhausted when we arrived. A B C D Question 2. A huge amount of immigrants passed through the Great Hall on Ellis Island between 1892 and 1954. A B C D Question 3. Of the more than 1,300 volcanoes in the world, only about 600 can classify as active. A B C D Question 4. If a person goes to prison for using the Internet to commit a crime, can he be barred from using the Internet after the sentence will be served. A B C D Question 5. In failing to debate the moral justification for capital punishment could well lead to a situation where the practice of executing criminals is simply taken for granted. A B C D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 6. The school was closed for a month because of serious ____ of fever. A. outcome B. outburst C. outset D. outbreak Question 7. The campaign raised far more than the ____ of $20.000. A. aim B. object C. goal D. target Question 8. Only thoroughly unpleasant people leave the ____ of their picnics to spoil the appearance of the countryside. A. rest B. remainder C. remains D. rester Question 9. An almost ____ line of traffic was moving at a snail’s pace through the town. A. continuous B. constant C. continual D. stopping Question 10. Medieval travelers’ tales of fantastic creatures were often fascinating but not always ____. A. credible B. creditable C. credulous D. imaginable Question 11. Don’t be late for the interview, ____ people will think you are a disorganized person. A. unless B. otherwise C. if not D. or so Question 12. You are being thoroughly ____ in refusing to allow this ceremony to take place. A. unrequited B. unrepresentative C. unreliable D. unreasonable Question 13. “But so”, I told him, “you are my own ____.” A. heart and heart B. body and soul C. flesh and blood D. skin and bone Question 14. My uncle is in _______ of 60 engineers and workers. A. charge B. leadership C. management D. direction Question 15. Janet: “Do you feel like going to the cinema this evening?” -Susan: "_______ .”.

(306) A. You’re welcome B. That would be great C. I feel very bored D. I don't agree, I'm afraid Question 16.No one died in the accident, _______ ? A. did he B. didn’t he C. did they D. didn’t they Question 17.-Peter: "Would you like a beer?" - David: "Not while I’m _______ ." A. on duty B. in order C. in the act D. under control Question 18. Tom. "Thank you for your help." - Mary. "_______ ." A. With all my heart B. It’s my pleasure C. Never mind me D. Wish you Question 19. His father left New York. The doctor suggested he _______ there. A. not stayed B. didn’t stay C. not stay D. not go to stay Question 20. -A: “Excuse me, is anybody sitting here?” - B: “_______” A. Sorry, the seat is taken B. Yes, I am so glad C. No, thanks. D. Yes, yes. You can sit here. Question 21. Jane: “ _______ " – David: "Thanks. I’ll write to you when I arrive there." A. Good luck B. Have a go C. Have a good trip D. Good bye Question 22________ but he also proved himself a good athlete. A. A good student not only showed him B. Not only did he show himself a good student C. He did not show himself only a good student D. Not only he showed himself a good student Question 23 . ______, many animals can still survive and thrive there. A. Even though the weather conditions in the desert severe B. The weather conditions in the desert to be severe C. Although the weather conditions in the desert are severe D. Being severe weather conditions in the desert Question 24. The company fell deeper and deeper into the ____ and then went bankrupt. A. black B. green C. yellow D. red Question 25. It is critical that you ____ anything the night before your surgery. A. not eat B. do not eat C. did not eat D. ate Question 26. The hotel room ____ over a beautiful garden . A. view out B. faced up C. opened up D. looked out Question 27. The ex-champion was hit so hard that it took him five minutes to ____. A. come in B. come on C. come around D. come over Question 28. The biggest bank in our city has ____ bankruptcy. A. announced B. declared C. claimed D. informed Question 29. Somebody who is foolish or stupid is ____. A. soft in the head B. over the moon C. riding high D. pushing up daisies Question 30. Marta looks great! She's really dressed to ____. A. destroy B. kill C. murder D. slaughter Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question 31: She could not hide her dismay at the result. A. disappointment B. depression C. happiness D. pessimism Question 32: Certain courses are compulsory; others are optional. A. voluntary B. free C. pressure. D. mandatory. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions..

(307) Question 33: He is very intelligent. He can solve all the problems in no time.. A. So intelligent is he that he can solve all the problems in no time. B. He is very intelligent that he can solve all the problems in no time. C. An intelligent student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time. D. So intelligent a student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time. Question 34: In spite of having a broken leg, he managed to get out of the car. A. In spite of the fact that his leg was broken, he managed to get out of the car. B. In spite of having broken legs, he managed to get out of the car. C. Despite of the fact that his leg was broken, he managed to get out of the car. D. Although his leg was broken but he managed to get out of the car. Question 35: Had it not been for the attendance of a famous film star, the party couldn't have been a. success.. A. The film star didn't attend, so the party was a failure. B. If the famous film star hadn't attended, the party could have been a success. C. The party was successful without the attendance of the famous film star. D. The only reason the party was a success was that a famous film star attended. Question 36: Barely had Laura sat down at her computer in her office when she was called away to. deal with an unhappy customer. A. Because Laura was instructed to sort out the complaint of an annoyed customer, she had no time to sit down at her computer. B. Someone called Laura out of her office to try and sort out the problem of a dissatisfied customer just after she had sat down in front of her computer. C. An unhappy customer called Laura out of her office to deal with his complaint, just as she was getting into her seat in front of her computer. D. Laura was ordered to help resolve the problem of an upset customer before she was able to go into her office and sit down at the computer. Question 37: I see no reason to change my clothes so long as they are not excessively. dirty. A. If my clothes were a bit dirty, then probably I would think about changing them. B. Provided my clothes are not too dirty, I do not think it necessary to change them. C. I will have to change my clothes if they get any less clean than they currently are. D. It is illogical to change my clothes when they are not actually dirty. Read the following passage on Peter Illich Tchaikovsky, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 38 to 47..

(308) Question 38. What is the passage primarily about? A. Alexis de Tocqueville C. the progress achieved in America within about 40 years after adoption of the U.S. Constitution B. “Democracy in America” D. the impact of the book “Democracy in America” Question 39. All of the following fields of professional interest and activity are used to describe de Tocqueville EXCEPT__. A. philosopher B. author C. political scientist D. politician Question 40. According to the passage, when did de Tocqueville visit America? A. 1830s B. 1831 C. 1831-32 D. 1835 Question 41. The phrase “these traits” in lines 9-10 refers to____. A. observations B. how Americans think, feel, and act C. traditional American beliefs and values D. visible and meaningful observations Question 42. What in the passage is mentioned as being truly remarkable?. A. many of his observations are still visible and meaningful today B. the book was so detailed and thorough after only such a comparatively short visit C. that the second volume should be so pessimistic in comparison with the first D. de Tocqueville’s powers of observation Question 43. The word “unique” in line 16 is closest in meaning to____. A. clearly identifiable B. outstanding C. unmatched D. positive Question 44. The word “neutral” in line 16 is closest in meaning to____. A. impartial B. careful C. important D. thorough Question 45. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? A. the English don’t like the French B. the book was most important because it was the first time that American values. had been clearly documented C. de Tocqueville was a slow writer D. de Tocqueville was primarily motivated by an interest in his own country Question 46. The word “glimpse” in line 20 is closest in meaning to____. A. overview B. glance C. brief understanding D. quick conclusion Question 47. According to the passage, “Democracy in America” consisted of how many volumes? A. one B. two C. three D. four Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 48. You needn't have taken so many warm clothes there. A. It's not necessary for you to take so many warm clothes there. B. You have taken so many warm clothes there that I don't need. C. There's no need for you to take so many warm clothes there.. D. You took lots of warm clothes there but it turned out not necessary. Question 49. David was narrowly defeated and blew his own chance of becoming a champion. A. Losing the championship came as a terrible blow to David. B. In spite of the narrow defeat, David won the championship.. C. As a result of his narrow defeat, David did not win the championship. D. But for his title as the former champion, David would not have defeated his rivals. Question 50. If you had stuck to what we originally agreed on, everything would have been fine. A. If you had not kept to what was originally agreed on, everything would have been fine.. B. Things went wrong because you violated our original agreement. C. If you had changed our original agreement, everything would have been fine. D. As you fulfilled the original contract, things went wrong. Question 51. People say that Mr. Goldman gave nearly a million pounds to charity last year..

(309) A. Mr. Goldman is said to have given nearly a million pounds to charity last year. B. Mr. Goldman was said to have given nearly a million pounds to charity last year. C. Nearly a million pounds was said to have been given to charity by Mr. Goldman last year. D. Nearly a million pounds is said to be given to charity by Mr. Goldman last year. Question 52. I am sure he did not know that his brother graduated with flying colors. A. He should not have been envious of his brother’s achievement.. B. He cannot have known that his brother graduated with very high marks. C. That his brother graduated with flying colors must have been appreciated by him. D. He may not know that his brother is flying gradually up in a colorful balloon. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase for each of the blanks from 53 to 62. If you’re an environmentalist, plastic is a word you tend to say with a sneer or a snarl. It has become a symbol of our wasteful, throw-way society. But there seems little (53)___ it is here to stay, and the truth is, of course, that plastic has brought enormous (54)___ even environmental ones. It’s not really the plastics themselves that are the environmental (55)___ – it’s the way society choose to use and (56)___ them. Almost all the 50 or so different kinds of modern plastic are made from oil, gas or coal – nonrenewable natural resources. We import well over three million tones of the stuff in Britain each year and, sooner or later, most of it is thrown away. A high (57)___ of our annual consumption is in the (58)___ of packaging, and this constitutes about seven per cent by weight of our domestic (59)___ Almost all of it could be recycled, but very little of it is, though the plastic recycling industry is growing fast. The plastics themselves are extremely energy-rich – they have a higher calorific (60)___ than coal and one (61)___ of ‘recovery’ strongly favoured by the plastic manufacturers is the (62)___ of waste plastic into a fuel. Question 53. A. evidence B. concern C. doubt D. likelihood Question 54. A. pleasures B. benefits C. savings D. profits Question 55. A. poison B. disaster C. disadvantage D.. evil Question 56. A. dispose. B. store. C. endanger. D.. abuse Question 57. A. portion B. amount C. proportion D. rate Question 58. A. way B. kind C. form D. type Question 59. A. refuse B. goods C. requirements D. rubble Question 60. A. degree B. value C. demand D. effect Question 61. A. measure B. mechanism C. method D. medium Question 62. A. conversion B. melting C. change D. replacement Your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. Question 63. A. primitive B. particular C. continuous D. connected Question 64.A. explain B. involve C. purpose D. control Question 65. A. familiar B. automatic C. responsible D. environment Question 66. A. admiration B. enthusiast C. discriminate D. minority Question 67. A. essential B. embarrass C. develop D. industry Read the following passages, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 68 to 77..

(310) 68. Why did the author write the passage? A. because it is a tragic story of a gifted writer B. to outline the career of a famous American C. because of his fame as America’s favorite short story writer D. to outline the influences on O. Henry’s writing 69. According to the passage, Porter’s Father was A. responsible for his move to La Salle County in Texas B. the person who gave him a lifelong love of books C. a medical doctor D. a licensed pharmacist 70. The word “allegedly” in line 9 is closest in meaning to____. A. supposedly B. reportedly C. wrongly D. mistakenly Question 71. Which of the following is true, according to the passage? A. both of Porter’s wives died before he died B. Porter left school at 15 to become a pharmacist C. Porter wrote a column for the Houston Daily Post called “Rolling Stone” D. the first recorded use of his pseudonym was in Austin Question 72. The word “venture” in line 12 is closest in meaning to____. A. challenging experiment B. bold initiative C. speculative action D. sorry experience Question 73. The word “subsequent in line 14 is closest in meaning to A. resulting B. police C. alleged D. official Question 74. Porter lost all of the following when he went to prison EXCEPT his____. A. home B. wife C. job D. books Question 75. According to the author, how many stories did Porter write while in prison for three years? A. more than 300 B. 35 C. at least 12 D. over 20 Question 76. The author implies which of the following is true? A. Porter would probably have written less stories if he had not been in prison for three years B. Porter was in poor health throughout his life C. O. Henry is as popular in many other. countries as he is in America D. Porter’s wife might have lived longer if he had not left her in Austin when he fled. Question 77. Where in the passage does the author mention a habit of Porter that was to become very useful for him later? A. lines 6-10 B. lines 11-15 C. lines 16-20 D. lines 21-25.

(311) Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question 78.I will communicate with you as soon as I have any news. A. be related B. be interested in C. get in touch D. have connection Question 79. “Please speak up a bit more, Jason. You’re hardly loud enough to be heard from the back”, the teacher said. A. visible B. edible C. eligible D. audible Question 80. I couldn’t see what she was doing. It was so dark down there. A. make out B. make up C. make for D. make from -----------------------THE END------------------------. ĐỀ SỐ 40: SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC ĐỀ THI THỬ THQG NĂM 2015 TRƯỜNG THPT LIỄN SƠN MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH – ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 181 (ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT) Thời gian: 90 phút From the four words or phrases(A, B, C or D) choose the one that best completes the sentences Question1 : The first movie- length cartoon, _____ , “Snow White and the Seven Dwarfs” set the standard for later full length features such as “ The Lion King” and “Pocahotas” A. that released ever B. which ever released C. ever released D. released whatever. Question 2: _____, such as banking and travel, computers are not a convenience: they are a necessity. A. where some industries B. there are some industries C. in some industries D. some industries Question 3: Only in the Civil war _____killed or wounded A. soldiers in America B. so many American soldiers were C. many in America. D.. were. so many American soldiers Question 4: Studies have shown that the elderly who are pet owners have lower blood pressure than_____ who live without pets. A . do the elderly B. elderly C. for the elderly to do D. to the elderly Question 5:______, Harry was the thirty – third President of the United States A. He was born and raised in Missori B. That he was born and raised in Missori C. Because he was born and raised in Missouri D. Born and raised in Missouri Question 6: ___ the fifth largest among the nine planets that make up our solar system A. The Earth being B. The Earth is C. That the Earth is D. Being the Earth. Question 7: All the way along the wind street ____ A. he came B. came he C. did he came. D. comes he. Question 8: Both liquids and gases flow freely from a container because they have ____ A. not definite shape B. none definite shape C. no definite shape D. nothing definite shape Question 9: Environmentalists are earnestly trying to determine ______ of the ozone layer over the poles. A. what is causing the deterioration B. what the cause of the deterioration.

(312) C. is causing the deterioration D. the deterioration is causing Question 10: The bank sent a notice to its customers which contained____ Ạ. A remembrance that interest rates were to rise the following month B. A reminder that a raise in interest rates was the month following C. To remember that the interest rates was going up next month. D. A reminder that the interest rates would raise the following month Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others Question 11: A. contents B. dismal C. discontent D. decent Question 12: A. hygiene B. appointment C. remember D. neglect Question 13: A. competence B. comfortable C. compliment D. companion Question 14: A. delicious B. theory C. attractive D. alleviate Question 15: A. inevitable B. innovate C. innocent D. insecticide Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions Question 16: There’s a lot more to Willie than one would think: still waters run _____ A. deep B. deeply C. deepness D. depth Question 17: The idea ____to nothing because I couldn’t afford to do it A. went B. came C. turned D. changed Question 18. The players’ protests_____ no difference to the referee’s decision at all A. did B. made C. caused D. created Question 19: Peter, Harry and Chuck were first, second, and third ______ in the school crosscountry race A. respectively B. actively C. responsively D. tremendously Question 20: By using all the latest technology, the yathchman managed to cross the Atlantic in ____ time. A. record B. lightning C. top D. quickest Question 21: Why ____ Peter to the party? He is always making trouble A. Don’t we inviteB. don’t you invite C. not invite D. invite Question 22 The speaker fail to get his message ____ to his audience A. Around B. in C. across D. out Question 23: You are under no obligation _____ to accept this offer A. whatsoever B. Eventually C. Apart D. indeed Question 24: ______ no money would be wasted, we will use energy more efficiently A. so that B. in order that C in order to D. A and B Question 25: Interpreting is not a mechanical process of converting a sentence in language A in to a sentence in language B. ____, it is a complex art. A. But B. In addition C.. Rather. D. However. Question 26: You can always _____Ann to give you sound advice A. bank of B. bank for C. bank at D. bank on Question 27: His emotional problems _____from the attitudes he encountered as a child, I think A. stem B. flourish C. root D. sprout Question 28: There should be an international law encouraging_____ A. afforestation B. deforestation C. forestry D. reforestation Question 29: I’m not keen on _____ control of the project to a relatively newcomer A. undertaking B. charging C. entrusting D. allotting Question 30: Unfortunately, the company closed down because it couldn’t keep___with rapidly changing technology A. speed B. time C. fast D. pace Question 31. He is not under arrest, nor have the police placed any _____ on his movements.

(313) A. obstacle B. veto regulation: Question 32: He was very taken ___ by her aggressive attitude A. about B. aside. C. restriction C. apart. D. D.. aback Question 33: Most crimes that are committed are no more than ____theft A. slight B. small C. unimportant. D.. petty Question 34: John was asked to _____ before the judge A. wit B. testify C. execute D. prejudice Question 35: She is extremely competent and ______ A. industrial B. industrious C. industry D. industrialized Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from number 36 to 45. Since water is the basis of life, composing the greater part of the tissues of all living things, the crucial problem of desert animals is to survive in a world where sources of flowing water are rare. And since man’s inexorable necessity is to absorb large quantities of water at frequent intervals, he can scarcely comprehend that many creatures of the desert pass their entire lives without a single drop. Uncompromising as it is, the desert has not eliminated life but only those forms unable to withstand its desiccating effects. No moist-skinned, water-loving animals can exist there. Few large animals are found. The giants of the North American desert are the deer, the coyote, and the bobcat. Since desert country is open, it holds more swift-footed running and leaping creatures than the tangled forest. Its population is largely nocturnal, silent, filled with reticence, and ruled by stealth. Yet they are not emaciated. Having adapted to their austere environment, they are as healthy as animals anywhere else in the word. The secret of their adjustment lies in the combination of behavior and physiology. None could survive if, like mad dogs and Englishmen, they went out in the midday sun; many would die in a matter of minutes. So most of them pass the burning hours asleep in cool, humid burrows underneath the ground, emerging to hunt only by night. The surface of the sun-baked desert averages around 150 degrees, but 18 inches down the temperature is only 60 degrees. Question 36: The title for this passage could be _____ . A. “Desert Plants” B. “Life Underground” C. “Animal Life in a Desert Environment” D. “Man’s Life in a Desert Environment” Question 37: The word “inexorable” in the passage mostly means _____ . A. relentless B. full C. demanding D. essential Question 38: Man can hardly understand why many animals live their whole life in the desert, as _____ . A. sources of flowing water are rare in a desert B. water is an essential part of his existence C. water composes the greater part of the tissues of living things D. very few.

(314) large animals are found in the desert Question 39: The phrase “those forms” in the passage refers to all of the following EXCEPT _____. A. water-loving animals B. the coyote and the bobcat C. moist-skinned animals D. many large animals Question 40: According to the passage, creatures in the desert _____. A. are smaller and fleeter than forest animals C. are more active during the day than those in the tangled forest B. live in an accommodating environment D. are not as healthy as those anywhere else in the world Question 41: The author mentions all the following as examples of the behavior of desert animals EXCEPT _____. A. they sleep during the day B. they dig home underground C. they are noisy and aggressive D. they are watchful and quiet Question 42: The word “emaciated” in the passage mostly means _____. A. wild B. cunning C. unmanageable D. unhealthy Question 43: the word “Them” means_____. A. animals B. people C. water D. minutes Question 44: The word “burrows” in the passage mostly means _____. A. “places where insects or other small creatures live and produce their young” B. “holes or tunnels in the ground made by animals for them to live in” C. “structures made of metal bars in which animals or birds are kept” D. “places where a particular type of animal or plant is normally found” Question 45: We can infer from the passage that _____ . A. living things adjust to their environment B. water is the basis of desert life C. desert life is colorful and diverse D. healthy animals live longer lives Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from number 46 to 50 Let children learn to judge their own work. A child learning to talk does not learn by being corrected all the time: if corrected too much, he will stop talking. He notices a thousand times a day the difference between the language he uses and the language those around him use. Bit by bit, he makes the necessary changes to make his language like other people’s. In the same way, children learn all the other things they learn to do without being taught – to talk, run, climb, whistle, ride a bicycle – compare their own performances with those of more skilled people, and slowly make the needed changes. But in school we never give a child a chance to find out his mistakes for himself, let alone correct them. We do it all for him. We act as if we thought that he would never notice a mistake unless it was pointed out to him, or correct it unless he was made to. Soon he becomes dependent on the teacher. Let him do it himself. Let him work out, with the help of other children if he wants it, what this word says, what the answer is to that problem, whether this is a good way of saying or doing this or not. If it is a matter of right answers, as it may be in mathematics or science, give him the answer book. Let him correct his own papers. Why should we teachers waste time on such routine work? Our job should be to help the child when he tells us that he can’t find the way to get the right answer. Let’s end all this nonsense of grades, exam, marks. Let us throw them all out, and let the.

(315) children learn what all educated persons must someday learn, how to measure their own understanding, how to know what they know or do not know. Let them get on with this job in the way that seems most sensible to them, with our help as school teachers if they ask for it. The idea that there is a body of knowledge to be learnt at school and used for the rest of one’s life is nonsense in a world as complicated and rapidly changing as ours. Anxious parents and teachers say, “But suppose they fail to learn something essential, something they will need to get on in the world?” Don’t worry! If it is essential, they will go out into the world and learn it. Question 46: What does the author think is the best way for children to learn things? A. by copying what other people do B. by making mistakes and having them corrected C. by listening to explanations from skilled people D. by asking a great many questions Question 47: What does the author think teachers do which they should not do? A. They give children correct answers B. They point out children’s mistakes to them C. They allow children to mark their own work C. They encourage children to copy from one another Question 48: The passage suggests that learning to speak and learning to ride a bicycle are___. A. not really important skills B. more important than other skills C. basically different from learning adult skills D. basically the same as learning other skills Question 49: Exams, grades and marks should be abolished because children’s progress should only be estimated by___. A. educated persons B. the children themselves C. teachers D. parents Question 50: The author fears that children will grow up into adults who are___. A. too independent of others B. too critical of themselves C. unable to think for themselves D. unable to use basic skills Choose the sentence which is closest in meaning to the given one Question 51: The Prime Minister is unlikely to call an early general election. A. It’s likely that the Prime Minister will call an early general election. B. The likelihood is that the Prime Minister will call an early general election C. There is little likelihood of the Prime Minister calling an early general election D. The likelihood is great that the Prime Minister will cal an early general election Question 52: Throughout his life, the fisherman suffered from great poverty A. The fisherman was so poor that he died young B. Although the fisherman was poor, he led a great life C. Poverty prevented the fisherman from enjoying life D. The fisherman’s life was one of great poverty Question 53 Jerry wasn’t in the mood to go to the party A. Jerry didn’t feel like going to the party B. Jerry was very moody C. Jerry would rather go to the party D. Jerry preferred to go to the party Question 54: Bob had better go before it gets dark A. It’s dark now, and Bob ought to have gone before B. Bob had left before it got dark C. It’s better for Bob to leave in darkness D. Bob should go while it’s still daylight Question 55:“All right, Jenny, you may pay for the coffee if you insist” A. Jenny wants to pay for the coffee B. Jenny would pay if she had money C. Jenny is being asked to pay for the coffee D. It’s Jenny’s duty to pay for the coffee Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined pared that needs correction Question 56: The first domesticated (A)bird in (B)earth was probably (C)the goose(D). Question 57: The Concord can fly across (A)the Atlantic without refuelling (B)and carrying (C)11 tons of freight(D) Question 58: Because not food (A)is as nutritious (B)for a baby as (C)its mother’s milk, many women are returning to the practice of breast (D)feeding..

(316) Question 59: The Homestead Act of 1862 granted 160 acres of land for (A)any settler who (B)would (C)spend five years on (D)the land. Question 60: Despite the appearance (A)of the Mayan empire(B), there are (C)still Mayans in the region that they (D)once inhabited Question 61: As soon as (A)800 B. C, people (B)began to experiment with(C) methods of helping the sick.(D). Question 62. All the staff (A)in Tam’s film (B)are expected to do some overtime (C)if the need rises(D) Question 63: The results of our marketing survey show that (A)there will be (B)quite a demand(C) for electric cars in the ahead (D)years Question 64. That (A)cats have (B)nine lives (C) have been believed (D)for centuries Question 65: An organ is(A) a group of tissues(B) capable to perform(C)some special functions, as, for example, the heart, the liver(D)or the lungs. Read the following passage and choose the right answer to each of the questions. Are organically grown foods the best food choices? The advantages claimed for such foods over conventionally grown and marketed food products are now being debated. Advocates of organic foods- a term whose meaning varies greatly- frequently proclaim that such products are safer and more nutritious than others. The growing interest of consumers in the safety and nutritional quality of the typical North American diet is a welcome development. However, much of this interest has been sparked by sweeping claims that the foods supply is unsafe or inadequate in the meeting nutritional needs. Although most of these claims are not supported by scientific evidence, the preponderance of written material advancing such claims makes it difficult for the general public to separate fact from fiction. As a result, claims that eating a diet consisting entirely of organically grown foods prevents or cures disease or provides other benefits to health have become widely publicized and formed the basic for folklore. Almost daily the public is besieged by claims for “no-aging” diets, new vitamins, and other wonder foods. There are numerous unsubstantiated reports that natural vitamins are superior to synthetic ones, that fertilized eggs are nutritionally superior to unfertilized eggs, that untreated grains are better than fumigated grains, and the like. One thing that most organically grown foods products seem to have in common is that they cost more than conventionally grown foods. But in many cases consumers are misled if they believe foods. So there is real cause for concern if consumers, particularly those with limited incomes, distrust the regular food supply and buy expensive organic foods instead. Question 66 The “ welcome development” mentioned in paragraph 2 is an increase in ___. A. interest in food safety and nutrition among North Americans.. B. the nutritional quality of the typical North American diet. C. the amount of healthy foods grown in North America. D. the number of consumers in North America. Question 67. According to the first paragraph, which of the following is true about the term “organic foods”? A. It is accepted by most nutritionists. B. It has been used only in recent years. C. It has no fixed meaning D. It is seldom used by consumers. Question 68. The author implies that there is cause for concern if consumers with limited incomes buy organic foods instead of conventionally grown foods because .. A. organic foods can be more expensive but are often no better than conventionally grown foods. B. many organic foods are actually less nutritious than similar conventionally grown foods. C. conventionally grown foods are more readily available than organic foods. D. too many farmers will stop using conventional methods to grow food crops..

(317) Question 69. According to the last paragraph, consumers who believe that organic foods are better than conventionally grown foods are often___. A. careless B. mistaken C. thrifty D. wealthy Question 70. What is the author’s attitude towards the claims made by advocates of health foods? A. Very enthusiastic B. Skeptical C. Neutral D. Somewhat favorable Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks. Interpreting the feelings of other people is not always easy, as we all know, and we (71)____ as much on what they seem to be telling us, as on the actual words they say. Facial (72)____ and tone of voice are obvious ways of showing our (73)____ to something, and it may well be that we unconsciously express views that we are trying to hide. The art of being (74)____ lies in picking up these signals, realizing what the other person is trying to say, and acting so that they are not embarrassed in any way. For example, we may understand that they are in fact (75)____ to answer our question, and so we stop pressing them. Body movements in general may also indicate feelings, and interviewers often pay particular attention to the way a candidate for a job walks into the room and sits down. However it is not difficult to present the right kind of appearance, while what many employers want to know relates to the candidate’s character traits, and (76)____ stability. This raises the awkward question of whether job candidates should be asked to complete psychological tests, and the further problem of whether such tests actually produce (77)____ results. For many people, being asked to take part in such a test would be an objectionable (78)____ into their private lives. After all, a prospective employer would hardly ask a candidate to run a hundred meters, or expect his or her family doctor to provide (79)____ medical information. Quite apart from this problem, can such tests predict whether a person is likely to be a (80)____ employee or a values colleague? Question 71: A. reckon C. trust D. estimate B. rely Question 72: A. manner B. image D. looks C. expression Question 73: A. notion B. feeling C. view D. reaction Question 74: A. successful B. humble C. good at D. tactful Question 75: A. hesitant C. tending D. used B. reluctant Question 76: B. physical C. similar D. relevant A. psychological Question 77: B. predictable C. faithful D. regular A. reliable Question 78: A. invasion B. infringement D. interference C. intrusion Question 79: B. secretive C. reticent D. classified A. confidential Question 80: A. laborious B. particular C. thorough D. conscientious --------------THE END---------------. ĐỀ SỐ 41: SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC ĐỀ THI THỬ THQG NĂM 2015 TRƯỜNG THPT LIỄN SƠN MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH – ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 182 (ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT) Thời gian: 90 phút Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 1: My cousin obviously didn't _____ much of an impression on you if you can't remember meeting her. A. do B. make C. create D. build Question 2: The tennis match was put off because of the heavy rain. A. damaged B. postponed C. canceled D. destroyed.

(318) Question 3: He got an excellent grade in his examination _____ the fact that he had not worked particularly hard. A. in spite of B. on account of C. although D. because of Question 4: This ring is made of plastic so it’s not valuable. A. worthless B. invaluable C. worthy D. priceless Question 5: He denied _____ there at the time. A. not to be B. that he wasn’t C. wasn’t D. not being Question 6: Out _______ from its tiny cage. A. does the bird fly B. flew the bird C. did the bird fly D. fly the bird Question 7: Have you had much experience _____ computers? A. on B. in C. with D. about Question 8: It was very difficult to understand what he was saying about the noise of the traffic. A. pick up B. make up C. turn out D. make out Question 9: Begin_____ the beginning of the story. A. with B. for C. at D. to Question 10: “I’m tired of the same old routine.” _ “I know how you feel. I get tired of doing the same things day in_____.” A. and day off B. and day on C. and day of D. and day out Question 11: She_____$ 20 out of the bank every Monday. A. pulls B. extracts C. draws D. takes Question 12: The book is written by a famous anthropologist. It’s about the people in Samoa _____ for two years. A. that she lives B. that she lives among them C. among whom she lived D. where she lived among them Question 13: Everyone in our class _____ his suggestion. A. agrees to B. agree with C. agree to D. agrees with Question 14: It is true, then, that a great many people-and a great many people are _____ in the use of English. A. contained B. involved C. included D. taken Question 15: The people at the party were worried about Jane because no one was aware _____ she had gone. A. where that B. the place C. of where D. of the place where Question 16: What do you think of your new bookkeeper?” - “He works ____ his figures never need _____.” A. such efficiently that / to check C. so efficient that / checking B. so efficiently that / to be checked D. such an efficient that / to be checked Question 17: John pretended _____ sick yesterday. A. being B. to be C. be D. to being Question 18: Mary was the last applicant _____ by that interviewer A. to be interviewed B. to interview C. to be interviewing D. to have interviewed Question 19: Not until the Triassic Period _____. A. the first primitive mammals develop B. did develop the first primitive mammals C. the first primitive mammals did develop D. did the first primitive mammals. develop.

(319) Question 20: _____ of bananas are cheap today. A. Bunches B. Blocks C. Packages D. Heads Question 21: Scientists have discovered a close _____ between smoking and several serious diseases. A. connection B. action C. union D. combination Question 22: Which sentence is correct? A. We bought some old lovely German glasses. B. We bought some lovely old German glasses. C. We bought some German old lovely glasses. D. We bought some German lovely old glasses. Question 23: A - You’ve got to be careful next time! B - ___________. A. I will. I will. Trust me! B. Yes, I have. C. Sure. I have. D. I hope so. Question 24: I can't bear thinking back of that time. I'd rather _____ equally. A. treat B. be treated C. have treated D. have been treated Question 25: By the end of next year, George _____ English for 2 years. A. would learn B. will have learnt C. will have D. has learnt Question 26: He was looked _____ by others because of his poverty. A. out for B. up to C. down upon D. into Question 27: Neither Peter nor his parents _______ going to spend the summer abroad. A. is B. are C. was D. has been Question 28: We can’t get everything we want from life; we must just make the best_____ it. A. for B. with C. of D. by Question 29: - Peter: "What a lovely house you have!" - Mike: "__________" A. Of course not, it is not costly B. Thank you. Hope you will drop in C. I think so D. No problem Question 30: Mary _____ lazy preparing her lesson last night. A. should be B. shouldn't be C. should have been D. shouldn't have. been Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions Question 31: A. definition. B. necessity. C. incredible. D. humidity. Question 32: A. computer. B. museum. C. important. D. visitor. Question 33: A. remind. B. discovery. C. magazine. D. inform. Question 34: A. forgettable. B. philosophy. C. humanism. D. objectively. Question 35: A. begin B. kingdom C. mountain D. passage Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions from 36 to 45. Question 36: People donated a lot, so the victims of the tsunami are now able to overcome difficulties. A. To overcome difficulties, the victims of the tsunami needed people's generous donation.. B. But for people's generous donation, the victims of the tsunami wouldn't be able to overcome difficulties now. C. The victims of the tsunami are now able to overcome difficulties but for people's donation. D. Despite people's generous donation, the victims of the tsunami are facing lots of difficulties. Question 37: His parents made him study for his exams..

(320) A. He was obliged to study for the exams by his parents. by his parents.. B. He is made to study for the exams. C. He was made to study for the exams by his parents. D. He was made study for the exams by his parents. Question 38: "I will let you know the answer by the end of this week," Tom said to Janet.. Tom suggested giving Janet the answer by the end of this week. B. Tom promised to give Janet the answer by the end of this week.. A.. C. Tom insisted on letting Janet know the answer by the end of this week. D. Tom offered to give Janet the answer by the end of this week. Question 39: Maria says she’d like to have been put in a higher class. A. Maria wishes she is put in a higher class. B. Maria wishes she had been put in a higher class. C. Maria wishes she were put in a higher class. D. Maria wishes she will be put in a higher class. Question 40: If motorists were to drive carefully, they would have fewer accidents. A. Motorists are careful and there are few accidents. B. Motorists are careful and yet there are many accidents. C. Motorists are not careful and yet there are few accidents. D. Motorists are not careful and there are many accidents. Question 41: You may be very intelligent, but you should be careful about this. A. No matter what intelligent you may be, you should be careful about this. B. No matter whatever intelligent you may be, you should be careful about this. C. No matter why intelligent you may be, you should be careful about this.. D. No matter how intelligent you may be, you should be careful about this. Question 42: Peter said that whatever happened, it was Mary’s fault. A. Peter blamed Mary at what had happened. B. Peter blamed Mary on what had happened. C. Peter blamed Mary for what had happened. D. Peter blamed Mary of what had happened. Question 43: She had only just put the phone down when her boss rang back. A. Hardly she puts the phone down when her boss rang back. B. Hardly did she put the phone down when her boss rang back. C. Hardly had she put the phone down when her boss rang back. D. Hardly she had put the phone down when her boss rang back. Question 44: It isn’t necessary for you to finish the report by Sunday. A. You don’t need to finish the report by Sunday. B. You don’t need finish the report by Sunday. C. You mightn’t finish the report by Sunday. D. You mustn’t finish the report by Sunday. Question 45: I’m like my mum, whereas my brother looks like my dad. A. I’m like my mum, whereas my brother takes after my dad. B. I’m like my mum, whereas my brother takes over my dad. C. I’m like my mum, whereas my brother takes on my dad. D. I’m like my mum, whereas my brother takes in my dad. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction Question 46: She is no longer young to enter a beautiful contest..

(321) A B C D Question 47: Van Cliburn who studied piano from 1951 to 1954 and won multiple awards between 1958 and 1960. A B C D Question 48: Emmy was determined to succeed and final achieved what she wanted. A B C D Question 49: It has been said that laser to be the most miraculous to cure patients. A B C D Question 50: I would rather she is staying at home this time yesterday. A B C D Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 51 to 60. The fertile valleys of the river Nile straddle the hot desert land of Egypt. Rain is relatively scarce, and the summers are scorching hot. Nevertheless the strip of land, known as the Cultivation, on either side of the Nile is reputed to be one of the most fertile places in the world. Its rich black soil is the result of accumulation of silt deposited by the annual flooding of the Nile thousands of years ago. From June to October, the river overflowed its banks. Modern damps were then constructed to control the flooding. The floodwaters left behind a rich sticky black mud which made it suitable for the cultivation of crops. As long as the soil was well irrigated, two or three crops could be grown in one season. Its rich soil led to the growth and rise of the brilliant civilization of the ancient Egyptians on the Nile valley more than 5000 years ago. The earliest Egyptians had acquired the skills to till the land along the banks, drawing along the Nile became wealthy, they embarked on projects of digging ditches and constructing dams to control the floods. In about 3100 BC, the whole Egypt was united under the reign of King Menes. He and his descendants made up Egypt's first ruling family, or dynasty. His rule led to the great development of the arts like writing, painting, architecture, and crafts. Egyptian power and influence were to last for the next 2000 years. The Egyptian kings had absolute powers. The king possesses all the land, and the peasants had to surrender part of their crops to the king. An army of officials and scribes did the task of collecting the exact amount of due from the individual farmers. Crops and livestock were often seen at the storehouses surrounding the royal palaces. In return for their uphill task, the king paid his officials and dishes out funds for huge irrigation projects. Egypt's trade with the outside world stretches far and wide. In return for gold, copper, gemstones, and building stones, it purchases the goods that it did not have. Timber, resins, oils, silver and slaves came from Lebanon. From Deria and Anatolia came horses, while the blue stone called lapis lazuli was imported from Mesopotamia. Strong forts were constructed to protect overland trade routes. Egypt held Nubia in the south for almost 800 years. It served as Egypt's most vital source of gold and slaves. Question 51: The civilization of the ancient Egyptians was brought about by _____. A. Egypt's first ruling family C. Egypt's trade with the outside world B. the rich soil of the Nile D. the highly-developed writing, painting, architecture and crafts Question 52: Egyptian slaves came from _____. A. Syria and Anatolia B. Palestine C. Mesopotamia D. Lebanon Question 53: The king was wealthy because _____. A. he possessed all the land B. huge irrigation projects were set up C. he was in absolute power D. farmers paid him their tribute Question 54: The writer said that the annual flooding of the Nile _____. A. needed to be controlled B. led to the discovery of new mines C. caused an influx of foreign traders D. helped to develop the arts Question 55: According to the passage, the king was wise _____. A. to own slaves and gold B. to pay for huge irrigation projects C. to control the land D. to import the things that Egypt did not have Question 56: In return for, in the first line, last paragraph, refers to _____..

(322) A. what Egypt exported B. how fast the profit came C. the respect Egypt received D. the protection the Egyptian army provided Question 57: A suitable title for this passage is _____. A. The Farming Methods of the Egyptians B. The Landscape of the Egypt C. The Might of the Egyptian Army D. The Civilization of the Ancient. Egyptians Question 58: We know the Egyptian Empire was powerful from the _____. A. long period it extended its power and influence B. way its army fought with other invaders C. number of crops grown in one season D. trade and business done with other nations Question 59: Farm crops would be _____ if there was no water for irrigation. A. harvested B. unavailable C. unprotected D. destroyed Question 60: From June to October, the flood plains would be _____. A. open to the building of new B. left to the sowing of new crops dams C. raised to a higher level D. inundated with floodwaters from the. Nile Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 61 to 70. A useful definition of an air pollutant is a compound added directly or indirectly by humans to the atmosphere in such quantities as to affect humans, animals, vegetations, or materials adversely. Air pollution requires a very flexible definition that permits continuous change. When the first air pollution laws were established in England in the fourteenth century, air pollutants were limited to compounds that could be seen or smelled-a far cry from the extensive list of harmful substances known today. As technology has developed and knowledge of the health aspects of various chemicals has increased, the list of air pollutants has lengthened. In the future, even water vapor might be considered an air pollutant under certain conditions. Many of the more important air pollutants, such as sulfur oxides, carbon monoxide, and nitrogen oxides, are found in nature. As the Earth developed, the concentrations of these pollutants were altered by various chemical reactions; they became components in biogeochemical cycle. These serve as an air purification scheme by allowing the compounds to move from the air to the water or soil on a global basis, nature's output of these compounds dwarfs that resulting form human activities. However, human production usually occurs in a localized area, such as a city. In this localized regions, human output may be dominant and may temporarily overload the natural purification scheme of the cycle. The result is an increased concentration of noxious chemicals in the air. The concentrations at which the adverse effects appear will be greater than the concentrations that the pollutants would have in the absence of human activities. The actual concentration need not be large for a substance to be a pollutant; in fact the numerical value tells us little until we know how much of an increase this represents over the concentration that would occur naturally in the area. For example, sulfur dioxide has detectable health effects at 0.08 parts per million (ppm), which is about 400 times its natural level. Carbon monoxide, however, as a natural level of 0.1 ppm and is not usually a pollutant until its level reaches about 15 ppm. Question 61: What does the passage mainly discuss? A. The economic impact of air pollution B. What constitutes an air pollutant C. How much harm air pollutants can cause D. The effects of compounds added to the atmosphere Question 62: The word "adversely" in line 2 is closest in meaning to ______. A. negatively B. quickly C. admittedly D. considerably Question 63: It can be inferred from the first paragraph that________. A. water vapor is an air pollutant in localized areas B. most air pollutants today can be seen or smelled.

(323) C. the definition of air pollution will continue to change D. a substance becomes an air pollutant only in cities Question 64: The word "altered" in line 10 is closest in meaning to _______. A. eliminated B. caused C. slowed D. changed Question 65 Natural pollutants can play an important role in controlling air pollution for which of the following reasons? A. They function as part of a purification process. B. They occur in greater quantities than other pollutants. C. They are less harmful to living beings than are other pollutants. D. They have existed since the Earth developed. Question 66: According to the passage, which of the following is true about human-generated air pollution in localized regions? A. It can be dwarfed by nature's output of pollutants in the localized region.. B. It can overwhelm the natural system that removes pollutants. C. It will damage areas outside of the localized regions. D. It will react harmfully with naturally occurring pollutants. Question 67: The word "noxious' in line 16 is closest in meaning to _________. A. harmful B. noticeable C. extensive D. weak Question 68: According to the passage, the numerical value of the concentration level of a substance is only useful if ___. A. the other substances in the area are known B. it is in a localized area C. the naturally occurring level is also known D. it can be calculated quickly Question 69: The word "detectable" in line 21 is closest in meaning to ________. A. beneficial B. special C. measurable D. separable Question 70: Which of the following is best supported by the passage? A. To effectively control pollution local government should regularly review their air pollution laws. B. One of the most important steps in preserving natural lands is to better enforce air pollution laws. C. Scientists should be consulted in order to establish uniform limits for all air pollutants.. D. Human activities have been effective in reducing air pollution. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks from 71 to 80. It is estimated the (71)____ number is not known that worldwide some 60,000 newspapers exist with a (72)____ circulation of nearly 500 million. However, the number of readers is (73)____ greater-as many as three times the circulation figure. This is because newspapers are shared, some are posted, and (74)____ placed in libraries and other (75)____ places. Worldwide, about 8,000 of these newspapers are dailies. About a third of all newspapers are published in North America, (76)____ third in Europe, and the (77)____ third in the rest of the world. Countries with the highest newspaper (78) ___ are Britain, Norway, Denmark, Sweden, Japan, and the United States. Europe has nearly half of the world's total newspaper circulation, North America about a quarter, and the rest of the world another quarter. Taking the world (79) ___, the average circulation of dailies per 1,000 persons is about 100, but there are many parts of the world where the modern newspaper is (80) _____ ever seen. Question 71: A. exact. B. correct. C. precise. D. right. Question 72: A. mixed. B. combined. C. connected. D. linked. Question 73: A. even. B. far. C. more. D. very. Question 74: A. another. B. the. C. others. D. the rest. Question 75: A. open. B. common. C. shared. D. public. others.

(324) Question 76: A. the other. B. the next. C. another. D. the. Question 77: A. extra. B. left. C. spare. D. remaining. Question 78: A. readers. B. buyers. C. readership. D. subscribers. Question 79: A. as. B. generally. C. on general. D. in all. a whole Question 80: A. almost. B. not C. seldom ------------------THE END--------------------. last. D. scarcely. ĐỀ SỐ 42: SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC ĐỀ THI THỬ THQG NĂM 2015 TRƯỜNG THPT LIỄN SƠN MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH – ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 183 (ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT) Thời gian: 90 phút I. Chọn phương án (A,B,C hoặc D) có trọng âm chính khác với 3 phương án còn lai: Câu 1:. A. curriculum. B. obstinacy. C. historical. D. tremendous. Câu 2:. A. procedure. B. populous. C. portrayal. D. synonymous. Câu 3:. A. confetti. B. confidence. C. comrade. D. conference. Câu 4:. A. interfere. B. malevolence. C. magnesium. D. machinery. Câu 5: A. mountain B. sustain C. contain D. retain II. Chọn phương án (A,B,C hoặc D) để hoàn thành các câu sau: Câu 6: Did you have any problems__________our house? A. for finding B. find C. finding D. to find Câu 7: Not only__________to assess students’ ability, but it is also used to arrange classes.A A. to use the exam result B. is the exam result used C. the exam result is used D. using the exam result Câu 8: At no time__________I suspect he was a thief. A. did B. 0 C. which D. that Câu 9: I don’t want to sound like I’m__________the law, but if you don’t keep the noise down, you’ll have to leave. A. putting in B. passing over C. laying down D. giving over Câu 10: At first, her father was against her studying abroad, but later on he had a change of____and let her go to Paris. A. mind B. feeling C. thought D. heart Câu 11: Which of the following is not correct? “I can’t come out tonight, I have to___my essay tomorrow morning and I’ve only just started it!” A. give in B. submit C. hand out D. hand in Câu 12: __________you had to find a new job, what would you like to do? A. Provided B. Supposing C. So D. Though Câu 13: __________appears considerably larger at the horizon that it does overhead is merely an optical illusion. A. That the moon B. The moon C. The moon which D. When the moon Câu 14: It was difficult to guess what her________ to the news would be. A. capital B. opinion C. reaction D. felling Câu 15: __________he would be there, I would have never agreed to come.

(325) A. Known had I B. I had known C. Had known I D. Had I known Câu 16: I__________the homework tonight, I promise! A. do B. will do C. will have been doing D. am doing Câu 17: The soldiers were exhausted and couldn’t move back any further so they had no choice but to_____. A. retreat B. surrender C. conquer D. invade Câu 18: ”How do you like your steak done?” “__________” A. I don’t like it much B. Very little C. Well done D. Very much Câu 19: Sara brought in a lot of business last month; she should ask for a pay rise while she’s still on a_____. A. roll B. roam C. run D. rush Câu 20: I’m very lazy. I only go to the gym once in a__________moon. A. black B. blue C. full D. new Câu 21: Don’t__________me, but I think most modern art is a load of rubbish A. quote B. report C. paraphrase D. attribute Câu 22: In two years, many of our school friends____,and then we____no hardship in keeping our international business going. A. have graduated / will have B. are graduating / have had C. will graduate / will have D. graduated / had had Câu 23: It’s ages__________I last saw a decent comedy film on television. A. ago B. since C. that D. when Câu 24: A: Have you heard John’s getting married again? B: Really? Who_________? A. about B. to C. at D. for Câu 25: __________a disabled girl, she was quite confident the first moment she practiced this sport. A. Since B. In spite of C. Despite D. Though Câu 26: I still see my old classmates now and__________. A. sometimes B. then C. occasionally D. here Câu 27: “Did you sleep well?” “Yeah,like a__________”. A. horse B. fish C. drunk D. log Câu 28: Douglas took__________of his meeting with the Prime Minister to argue his case. A. opportunity B. effect C. advantage D. chance Câu 29: I don’t think it would be wise to try to make Max change his mind about divorcing Barbara. Well, in his place I_____her at all. A. would never have married B. needn’t have married C. would never marry D. must never have married Câu 30: Many species of wild life are__________of extinction A. at rish B. on the verge C. on the side D. in dangers Câu 31: I ran after her, but she managed to_________ A. get by B. get over C. get out D. get away Câu 32: Johnny and his girlfriend were fighting again yesterday, really going for it like__________. A. man and woman B. chalk and chese C. cat and dog D. dog and cat Câu 33: That meat is__________for human consumption. A. unfit B. inadequate C. uncompetent D. different.

(326) Câu 34: April is the month when many European trees_______________into leaf. A. burst B. spring C. turn D. jump Câu 35: No one wants to have extra homework tonight,_______? A. don’t they B. do they C. doesn’t he D. does he Câu 36:If you can win his attention_________for you. A. he so much better B. he better so much C. so the much better D. so much. the. better Câu 37: The facilities of the old health centre__________ A. is as good or better than the new centre. B. are as good or better than the new centre. C. are as good as or better than the new centre. D. are as good as or better than those of the new centre. Câu 38: It’s the government’s responsibility to__________for the sick. A. guard B. cure C. care D. treat Câu 39: He bought the cottage__________renovating it and then selling at a large profit. A. with a view to B. with a target of C. his goal being D. aiming to Câu 40: As long as the weather__________good, I’m sure the picnic will be a success. A. would be B. was C. will be D. is Câu 41: I was born in Athens, but I was _________in Thessalokini. A. brought B. brought up C. grown D. grown up Câu 42: __________we’ve been having! A. What a dreadful weather. B.. What dreadful. weather C. How dreadful is the weather D. How dreadful the weather Câu 43: The hotel didn’t__________my expectations. A. get up to B. get down to C. come up to D. come down to Câu 44: The Minister received__________a show of support that it was impossible to think he would resign. A. such B. so C. as D. alike Câu 45: No sooner__________we started the picnic _________the rain began pouring down! A. did / that B. had / when C. did / and D. had / than III. Đọc đoạn văn sau, chọn phương án trả lời phù hợp nhất(A, B, C hoặc D) cho các câu 46 đến 50 Charles A. Lindbergh is remembered as the first person to make a nonstop solo flight across the Atlantic, in 1927. This feat, when Lindbergh was only twenty-five years old, assured him a lifetime of fame and public attention. Charles Augustus Lindbergh was more interested in flying airplanes than he was in studying. He dropped out of the University of Wisconsin after two years to earn a living performing daredevil airplane stunts at country fairs. Two years later, he joined the United States Army so that he could go to the Army Aie Service flight-training school. After completing his training, he was hired to fly mail between St. Louis and Chicago. Then came the historic flight across the Atlantic. In 1919, a New York City hotel owner offered a prize of $25,000 to the first pilot to fly nonstop from New York to Paris. Nine St. Louis business leaders helped pay for the plane Lindbergh designed especially for the flight. Lindbergh tested the plane by flying it from San Diego to New York, with an overnight stop in St. Louis. The flight took only 20hours and 21minutes, a transcontinental record. Nine days later, on May 20, 1927, Lindbergh took off from Long Island, New York, at 7:52 a.m. He landed at Paris on May 21 at 10:21 p.m. He had flown more than 3,600 miles in less than thirty four hours. His flight made news around the world. He was given awards and parades everywhere he went. He was presented with the U.S.Congressional Medal of Honor and the first Distinguished Flying Cross. For a long time, Lindbergh toured the world as a US goodwill.

(327) ambassador. He met his future wife, Anne Morrow, in Mexico, where her father was the United States ambassador. During the 1930s, Charles and Anne Lindbergh worked for various airline companies, charting new commercial air routes. In 1931, for a major airline, they charted a new route from the east coast of the United States to the Orient. The shortest, most efficient route was a great curve across Canada, over Alaska, and down to China and Japan. Most pilots familiar with the Arctic did not believe that such a route was possible. The Lindberghs took on the task of proving that it was. They arranged for fuel and supplies to be set out along the route. On July 29, they took off from Long Island in a specially equipped small seaplane. They flew by day and each night landed on a lake or a river and camped. Near Nome, Alaska, they had their first serious emergency. Out of daylight and nearly out of fuel, they were forced down in a small ocean inlet. In the next morning’s light, they discovered they had landed on barely three feet of water. On September 19, after two more emergency landings and numerous close calls, they landed in China with the maps for a safe airline passenger route. Even while actively engaged as a pioneering flier, Lindbergh was also working as an engineer. In 1935, he and Dr.Alexis Carrel were given a patent for an artificial heart. During World War I in the 1940s, Lindbergh served as a civilian technical advisor in aviation. Although he was a civilian, he flew over fifty combat missions in the Pacific. In the 1950s, Lindbergh helped design the famous 747 jet airliner. In the late 1960s, he spoke widely on conservation issues. He died August 1974, having lived through aviation history from the time of the first powered flight to the first steps on the moon and having influenced a big part of that history himself. Câu 46: What did Lindbergh do before he crossed the Atlantic? A. He acted as a technical advisor during World War II. B. He charted a route to China. C. He graduated from flight-training school. D. He married Anne Morrow. Câu 47: What happened immediately after Lindbergh crossed the Atlantic? A. He left college. B. He flew the mail between St.Louis and Chicago. C. He attended the Army flight-training school. D. He was given the Congressional Medal of Honor. Câu 48: When did Charles meet Anne Morrow? A. after he worked for an airline. B. after he received the first Distinguished Flying Cross. C. before ho took off from Long Island. D. before he was forced down in an ocean inlet. Câu 49: When did the Lindberghs map an air route to China? A. Before they worked for an airline. B. Before Charles worked with Dr.Carrel. C. While designing the 747. D. After World War II. Câu 50: What event happened last? A. Lindbergh patented an artifical heart. B. Lindbergh flew fifty combat missions. C. Lindbergh helped design the 747 airline. D. The Lindberghs mapped a route to the Orient. IV. Đọc kỹ đoạn văn sau và chọn phương án đúng (A, B, C hoặc D) cho mỗi chỗ trống từ câu 51 đến 65: A SUCCESS STORY At 19, Ben Way is(0) already a millionaire, and one of a growing member of teenagers who have (51)____their fortune through the Internet. (52)____make Ben’s story all the more remarkable is that he is dyslexic, and was (53)____by teachers at his junior school that he would never be able to read or write (54)____. ”I wanted to prove them (55)___,” says Ben, creator and director of Waysearch, a net search engine which can be used to find goods in online shopping malls. When he was eight, his local authorities (56)____him with a PC to help with schoolwork. Although he was (57)____to read the manuals, he had a natural ability with the computer, and.

(328) (58)___by his father, he soon began (59)____people $10 an hour for his knowledge and skills. At the age of 15 he (60)___up his own computer consultancy, Quard Computer, which he ran from his bedroom, two years later he left school to (61)___all his time to business. “By the time the company had grown and I needed to take on a (62)___of employees to help me,” says Ben.’That enabled to start (63)___business with bigger companies.’ It was his ability to consistenly (64)___difficult challenges that led him to win the Young Entrepreneur of the Year award in the same year that he formed Waysearch, and he has recently signed a deal (65)___$25 million with a private investment company, which will finance his search engine. 0. A.yet B. just C. already D. even Câu 51:. A. put. B. taken. C. done. D. made. Câu 52:. A. This. B. What. C. Something. D. That. Câu 53:. A. told. B. suggested. C. said. D. reported. Câu 54:. A. thoroughly. B. properly. C. totally. D. absolutely. Câu 55:. A. untrue. B. unfair. C. wrong. D. false. Câu 56:. A. got. B. provided. C. offered. D. gave. Câu 57:. A. impossible. B. unable. C. disabled. D. incapable. Câu 58:. A. encouraged. B. animated. C. invited. D. promised. Câu 59:. A. charging. B. borrowing. C. owing. D. lending. Câu 60:. A. set. B. ran. C. made. D. put. Câu 61:. A. invest. B. spend. C. devote. D. pay. Câu 62:. A. few. B. deal. C. couple. D. little. Câu 63:. A. having. B. bringing. C. making. D. doing. Câu 64:. A. overtake. B. overdo. C. overlook. D. overcome. Câu 65: A. estimated B. valuable C. worth D. priced V. Chọn phương án (A,B,C hoặc D) ứng với từ/ cụm từ có gạch chân cần phải sửa trong các câu sau: Câu 66: The author hasn’t rarely written anything that was not a best-seller. A. anything B. written C. best-seller D. hasn’t Câu 67: Political science, alike the other social sciences, is not an exact science. A. alike B. other C. sciences D. an exact Câu 68: It is said that Eiinstein feels very bad about the application of his theories to the creation of weapons of war. A. It is said B. feels C. bad D. to the creation Câu 69: Chocolate is prepared by a complexity process of cleaning, blending, and roasting cocoa beans, which must be ground and mixed with sugar. A. complexity B. blending C. which D. mixed with Câu 70: Some fishes live at enormous depths that they are almost complete blind. A. some fishes B. enormous depths C. blind D. complete VI. Chọn phương án (A,B,C hoặc D) ứng với câu có nghĩa gần nhất với mỗi câu cho sẵn sau đây. Câu 71: The referee blew his whistle and brought the football game to a halt. A. After a player injured himself, the referee stopped the game. B. The referee called a halt after blowing his whistle. C. The referee started the game by blowing his whistle. D. Blowing his whistle, the referee stopped the play..

(329) Câu 72: The sole survivor of the plane crash was Lucy. A. All of the passengers on the plane were killed. C. None of the plane’s passengers were killed. B. Lucy was the only passenger killed. D. Lucy was the only passenger not killed in the plane crash. Câu 73: She is unqualified to fill the position as executive secretary of the firm. A. The executive secretary position is suitable for her. B. Both she and the executive secretary took a firm position.. C. The job of executive secretary requires more skills than she has. D. She possesses the firm qualities of an executive secretary. Câu 74: In the class of twenty, Jack is the third best student. A. Two students in the class are smarter than Jack. B. The class has only three smart students. C. Jack is not as smart as most of the other students. D. No other students in the class is as mart as Jack. Câu 75: No one but the seven – year – old boy saw the accident. A. No one in the accident saw the seven – year – old boy. B. No one at all saw the seven – year – old’s accident. C. Only the seven – year – old boy saw the accident. D. The seven – year – old boy saw no one in the accident. VII. Chọn phương án (A,B,C hoặc D) ứng với câu tốt nhất được tạo ra từ những từ cho sẵn: Câu 76: People / have / difficult / predict / future A. People have always had difficulty to predict the future. B. People always have difficult predicting the future. C. People have always had difficulty predict future. D. People have always had difficulty predicting the future. Câu 77: I / not see / point / rule / we / not / cycle / school. A. I don’t see the point of this rule which we are not allowed to cycle to school. B. I can’t see the point of this rule which says we can’t cycle to school. C. I can’t see the point of this rule which we don’t cycle to school.. D. I can’t see the point of this rule which says we can’t cycle to school. Câu 78: You / come / box / old books. A. Where did you come to a box of old books? B. Where did you come across a box of old books? C. Did you come across this box with old books? D. Where did you come across this box of old books? Câu 79: They / not find / cause / fire. A. They still haven’t found out what caused the fire. B. They still don’t find out the cause of the fire. C. They still haven’t found what caused of the fire. D. They still haven’t found the cause of the fire. Câu 80: You / things / improve / future? A. Do you think things will improve in the future? B. Do you think things are going to improve in the future? C. Do you think things will improve in future? D. Do you think things are improving in the future? ----------- HẾT ----------.

(330) ĐỀ SỐ 43: SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC ĐỀ THI THỬ THQG NĂM 2015 TRƯỜNG THPT LIỄN SƠN MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH – ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 184 (ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT) Thời gian: 90 phút Choose the word which has different stress pattern: 1. A primitive B particular C continuous D connected 2. A intensify B summary C philosophers D instruction 3. A pressure B medical C immortal D lightning 4. A language B lyrical C evidence D disadvantage 5. A sedentary B available C additional D majority Choose the best option: 6. _____ is a time that is supported to be free from worries. A. Child B. Childlike C. Childish D. Childhood 7. Within a couple of hours, a very important _____ on the new tax policy will be made. A. announce B. announcement C. announcer D. announcing 8. One _____ of public transport is its unreliability. A. benefit B. disadvantage C. harm D. drawback 9. _____ accepting your job offer, I'd like to know a bit more about the company. A. In advance B. In order C. Until D. Before 10. Let's have a _____ of tennis after lunch if you're not tired, shall we? A. match B. play C. game D. party 11. He played a very important ______ in politics until he was well over 80. A. scene B. job C. position D. part 12. The noise from the traffic outside stopped me from _____ to sleep. A. falling B. starting C. beginning D. going 13. She _____ down completely on hearing of her friend's death. A. broke B. turned. C. put D. fell 14. Jack can speak two languages. One is English. _____ is Vietnamese. A. Other B. The other C. Another D. Others 15. The manager did not offer her the job because of her untidy _____. A. sight B. view C. appearance D. presence 16. "Is that a new coat?" "Yes, what _____ it?” A. are you thinking of B. do you think of C. is your idea about D. did you think about 17. How do you do? ______. A. I'm very fine, thanks B. Thanks to my mother C. How do you do? D. With my brother. 18. The girl _____ is my neighbor. A. talks to the lady over there. B. is talking to the lady over there C. was talking to the lady over there D. talking to the lady over there 19. ______ with her boyfriend yesterday, she doesn't want to answer his phone call. A. Having quarreled B. Because having quarreled C. Because-of she quarreled D. Had quarreled 20. My daughter often says that she won't get married until she _____ 25 years old. A. is B. will be C. will have been D. has been 21. My father asked me _____ of the film. A. what did I think B. what I think C. what I thought D. what I did thought.

(331) 22. Everyone in both cars _____ injured in the accident last night, ______? A were / weren't they B. was / weren't they C. was / wasn't he? D. were / were they 23. The more he tried to explain, ______ we got A. the much confused B. the many confusing C. the more confusing D.. the more confused 24. Not only _____ us light, but it also gives us heat. A. the sun gives B. the sun has given C. has the sun given D. does the sun give 25. If you hadn't stayed up so late last night, you ______ sleepy now. A. wouldn't have felt B. wouldn't feel C. wouldn't fell D. wouldn't have fallen Read the passage and choose the best answer: Within the last century the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere (26)___ dramatically, largely (27)___ people burn vast amounts of fossil fuels - coal and petroleum and its derivatives. Average global temperature also has increased - by about 0.6 Celsius degree within (28)___ past century. Atmospheric scientists (29)___ found that at least half of that temperature increase (30)____ attributed to human activity. They predict that (31)___ dramatic action is taken, global temperature will continue (32)___ by 1 A to 5.8 Celsius degrees over the next century. Although (33)___ increase may not seem like a great difference, during the last ice age the global temperature (34)___ only 2.2 Celsius degrees cooler than it (35)___ presently. 26. A. has risen B. rose C. has raised D. raised 27. A. because of B. although C. despite D. because 28. A. a B. some C. the D. any 29. A. had B. have C. are D. ought to 30. A. should be B. is being C. had been D. can be 31. A. unless B. if C. provided D. as long as 32. A. be rising B. to rise C. to be risen D. to be rising 33. A. so much B. so C. such an D. such 34. A. had been B. has been C. is D. was 35. A. is B. has been C. was D. will be Read the passage and choose the best answer: Clean freshwater resources are essential for drinking, bathing, cooking, irrigation, industry, and for plant and animal (36) ___. Unfortunately, the global supply of freshwater is (37)___ unevenly. Chronic water shortages (38)___ in most of Africa and drought is common over much of the globe. The (39)____ of most freshwater supplies - groundwater (water located below the soil surface), reservoirs, and rivers - are under severe and (40)___ environmental stress because of overuse, water pollution, and ecosystem degradation. Over 95 percent of urban sewage in (41)___ countries is (42)____ untreated into surface waters such as rivers and harbors; About 65 percent of the global freshwater supply is used in (43)____ and 25 percent is used in industry. Freshwater (44)____ therefore requires a reduction in wasteful practices like (45)___ irrigation, reforms in agriculture and. industry, and strict pollution controls worldwide. 36. A. survive B. survived C. surviving D. survival 37. A. delivered B. distributed C. provided D. given 38. A. exist B. lie C. show D. l:itay 39. A. resources B. springs C. sources D. starting 40. A. increasing B. growing C. climbing D. ascending 41. A. growing B. miserable C. poverty D. developing 42. A. recharged B. discharged C. charged D. discharging.

(332) 43. A. farming B. planting C. agriculture D. growing 44. A. reservation B. conservation C. preservation D. retention 45. A. ineffective B. illogical C. irrational D. inefficient Identify one mistake in the following sentences: 46. (A) Mined over 2,000 years (B) ago, copper is one of (C) the earliest (D) know metals. 47. (A) The average adult (B) has got from two (C) to five (D) colds each year. 48. Computers (A) have made (B) access to information (C) instantly available just (D) by push a few buttons. 49. Some gorillas (A) beat their chests (B) as an (C) express of (D) high spirits. 50. Because vitamins (A) contained (B) in a wide (C) variety of foods, people seldom (D) lack most of them. Choose the best option: 51. Simon physics at all. A. was hardly not interested in B. was hardly interested in C. was hardly not interesting on D. was not hardly interested in 52. If a student ____ it is very unlikely that he will receive a good education. A. behaves badly arid who is lazy, B. who behaves badly and was lazy, C. who behaves badly and is lazy, D. behaves badly and is lazy, 53. The audience, ____ enjoyed the performance. A. most of them were students, B. most of whom were students, C. they were mostly students, D. they themselves were students, 54. The tests .in this. book are arranged ____. A. in order of difficult B. in order of difficulty C. in orderly difficult D. in the order of difficulty 55. The success of the play was due to ____ A. the actors and how it was produced B. the acting and the production C. the actors and its production D. how they acted and the production Choose the correct sentence which has the same meaning as the given one: 56. It is a pity you didn't tell us about this. A. I wish you have told us about this. B. I wish you would tell us about this. C. I wish you had told us about this D. I wish you would have told us about this. 57. I've never gone to the car wash before. A. This is the first time I have had my car washed . B. This is the first time I have washed my car. C. Never have I washed my car before. D. Never has my car been washed. 58. After he had finished the report, he submitted it to the director. A. Finishing the report, it was submitted to the director. B. Having finished the report, it was submitted to the director. C. Having finished the report, he submitted to the director.. D. Having finished the report, he submitted it to the director. 59. Jean could not help weeping when she heard the bad news.. A. Jean could not stop herself from weeping at the bad news. B. Jean could not allow herself to weep at the bad news. C. Jean could not help herself and so she wept at the bad news. D. Jean could not help herself because she was weeping. 60. The best solution was thought of by the monitor. A. The monitor came up with the best solution . B. The monitor was good with the best solution. C. No one could solve the problem except the monitor. D. The best solution was monitored by the thought. Read the passage and choose the best answer:.

(333) In the United States, presidential elections are held in years evenly divisible by four (1888, 1900, 1964, etc.). Since 1840, American presidents elected in years ending with zero have died in office, with one exception. William H. Harrison, the man who served the shortest term, died of pneumonia only several weeks after his inauguration. Abraham Lincoln was one of four presidents who were assassinated. He was elected in 1860, and his untimely death came just five years later. James A. Garfield, a former Union army general from Ohio, was shot during his first year in office (1881) by a man to whom he wouldn't give a job. While in his second term of office (1901), William McKinley, another Ohioan, attended the PanAmerican Exposition in Buffalo, New York. During the reception, he was assassinated while shaking hands with some of the guests. John F. Kennedy was assassinated in 1963 in Dallas only three years after his election. Three years after his election in 1920, Warren G, Harding died in office. Although it was never proved, many believe he was poisoned. Franklin D. Roosevelt was elected four times (1932, 1936, 1940 and 1944), the only man to serve so long a term. He had contracted polio in 1921 and eventually died of the illness in 1945. Ronald Reagan, who was elected in 1980 and reelected four years later, suffered an assassination attempt but did not succumb to the assassin's bullets. He was the first to break the long chain of unfortunate events. Will the candidate in the election of 2020 also be as lucky? 61. All of the following were election years EXCEPT ____. A. 1960 B. 1930 C. 1888 D.1824 62. Which president served the shortest term in office? A. Abraham Lincoln B. Warren G. Harding C. William McKinley D. William H.. Harrison 63. Which of the following is true? A. All presidents elected in years ending in zero have died in office. B. Only presidents from Ohio have died in office. C. Franklin D. Roosevelt completed four terms as president.. D. Four American presidents have been assassinated. 64. How many presidents elected in years ending in zero since 1840 have died in office? A. 7 B. 5 C. 4 D. 3 65. The word "inauguration" in the first paragraph means most nearly the same as ____. A. election B. acceptance speech C. swearing-in ceremony D. campaign 66. All of the following presidents were assassinated EXCEPT ____ A. John F. Kennedy B. Franklin D. Roosevelt C. Abraham Lincoln D. James A. Garfield 67. The word "whom" in the second paragraph refers to ____ A. Garfield B. Garfield's assassin C. a Union army general D. McKinley 68. The word "assassinated" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to A. murdered B. decorated C. honored D. sickened 69. In the third paragraph, "contracted" is closest in meaning to ____ A. communicated about B. developed C. agree about D. notified 70. How long did Warren G, Harding work as a president? A. 2 years B. 3 years C. 4 years D. 4 years Read the passage and choose the best answer: After inventing dynamite, Swedish-born Alfred Nobel became a very rich man. However, he foresaw its universally destructive powers too late. Nobel preferred not to be remembered as the inventor of dynamite, so in 1895, just two weeks before his death·, he created a fund to be used for awarding prizes to people who had made worthwhile contributions to humanity. Originally there were five awards: literature, physics, chemistry, medicine, and peace. Economics was added in 1968, just sixty-seven years after the first awards ceremony. Nobel's original legacy of nine million dollars was invested, and the interest on this sum is used for the awards which vary from $30,000 to $125,000..

(334) Every year on December 10, the anniversary of Nobel's death, the awards (gold medal, illuminated diploma, and money) are presented to the winners. Sometimes politics plays an important role in the judges' decisions. Americans have won numerous science awards, but relatively few literature prizes. No awards were presented from 1940 to 1942 at the beginning of World War 11. Some people have won two prizes, but this is rare; others have shared their prizes. 71. The word "foresaw" in the first paragraph is nearest in meaning to __ . A. prevailed B. postponed C. prevented D. predicted 72. The Nobel prize was established in order to ___. A recognize worthwhile contributions to humanity B. resolve political differences C. honor the inventor of dynamite D. spend money 73. In which area have Americans received the most awards? A Literature B. Peace C. Economics D. Science 74. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT ___. A. Awards vary in monetary value B. ceremonies are held on December 10 to commemorate Nobel's invention C. Politics plays an important role in selecting the winners D. A few individuals have won two awards 75. In how many fields are prizes bestowed? A. 2 B. 5 C.6 D. 10 76. It is implied that Nobel's profession was in ____ A. economics B. medicine C. literature D. science 77. In the first paragraph, "worthwhile" is closest in meaning to ___ A. economic B. prestigious C. trivial D. valuable 78. How much money did Nobel leaves for the prizes? A. $30,000 B. $125,000 C. $155,000 D. $9,000,000 79. What is the main idea of this passage? A. Alfred Nobel became very rich when he invented dynamite. B. Alfred Nobel created awards in six categories for contributions to humanity. C. Alfred Nobel left all of his money to science D. Alfred Nobel made a lasting contribution to humanity 80. The word "legacy" in the second paragraph means most nearly the same as ____ . A. legend B. bequest C. prize D. debt ----- THE END -----. ĐỀ SỐ 44: SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC ĐỀ THI THỬ THQG NĂM 2015 TRƯỜNG THPT LIỄN SƠN MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH – ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 186 (ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT) Thời gian: 90 phút Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks. Interpreting the feelings of other people is not always easy, as we all know, and we (1)___ as much on what they seem to be telling us, as on the actual words they say. Facial (2)___ and tone of voice are obvious ways of showing our (3)___ to something, and it may well be that we unconsciously express views that we are trying to hide. The art of being (4)___ lies in picking up these signals, realizing what the other person is trying to say, and acting so that they are not embarrassed in any way. For example, we may understand that they are in fact (5)___ to answer our question, and so we stop pressing them. Body movements in general may also indicate feelings, and interviewers often pay particular attention to the way a candidate for a job walks into.

(335) the room and sits down. However it is not difficult to present the right kind of appearance, while what many employers want to know relates to the candidate’s character traits, and (6)___ stability. This raises the awkward question of whether job candidates should be asked to complete psychological tests, and the further problem of whether such tests actually produce (7)___ results. For many people, being asked to take part in such a test would be an objectionable (8)___ into their private lives. After all, a prospective employer would hardly ask a candidate to run a hundred meters, or expect his or her family doctor to provide (9)___ medical information. Quite apart from this problem, can such tests predict whether a person is likely to be a (10)___ employee or a values colleague? Question 1: A. reckon C. trust D. estimate B. rely Question 2: A. manner B. image C. expression D. looks Question 3: A. notion B. feeling C. view D. reaction Question 4: A. successful B. humble C. good at D. tactful Question 5: A. hesitant C. tending D. used B. reluctant Question 6: C. similar D. relevant A. psychological B. physical Question 7: B. predictable C. faithful D. regular A. reliable Question 8: A. invasion B. infringement D. interference C. intrusion Question 9: B. secretive C. reticent D. classified A. confidential Question 10: A. laborious B. particular C. thorough D. conscientious Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined pared that needs correction Question 11: The first domesticated (A)bird in (B)earth was probably (C)the goose(D). Question 12: The Concord can fly across (A)the Atlantic without refuelling (B)and carrying (C)11 tons of freight(D) Question13:Because not food (A)is as nutritious (B)for a baby as (C)its mother’s milk, many women are returning to the practice of breast (D)feeding. Question 14: The Homestead Act of 1862 granted 160 acres of land for (A)any settler who (B)would (C)spend five years on (D)the land. Question 15: Despite the appearance (A) of the Mayan empire(B), there are (C)still Mayans in the region that they (D)once inhabited Question 16: As soon as (A)800 B. C, people (B)began to experiment with(C) methods of helping the sick.(D). Question 17: All the staff (A)in Tam’s film (B)are expected to do some overtime (C)if the need rises(D) Question 18: The results of our marketing survey show that (A)there will be (B)quite a demand(C) for electric cars in the ahead (D)years Question 19: That (A)cats have (B)nine lives (C) have been believed (D)for centuries Question 20: An organ is(A) a group of tissues(B) capable to perform(C)some special functions, as, for example, the heart, the liver(D)or the lungs. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions Question 21: There’s a lot more to Willie than one would think: still waters run _____ A. deep B. deeply C. deepness D. depth Question 22: The idea ____to nothing because I couldn’t afford to do it A. went B. came C. turned D. changed Question 23: The players’ protests_____ no difference to the referee’s decision at all A. did B. made C. caused D. created.

(336) Question 24: Peter, Harry and Chuck were first, second, and third ______ in the school crosscountry race A. respectively B. actively C. responsively D. tremendously Question 25: By using all the lastest technology, the yathchman mananged to cross the Atlantic in ____ time. A. record B. lightning C. top D. quickest Question 26: Why ____ Peter to the party? He is always making trouble A. don’t we invite B. don’t you invite C. not invite D. invite Question 27: The speaker fails to get his message ____ to his audience A. around B. in C. across D. out Question 28: You are under no obligation _____ to accept this offer A. whatsoever B. Eventually C. Apart D. indeed Question 29: ______ no money would be wasted, we will use energy more efficiently A. so that B. in order that C in order to D. A and. B Question 30: Interpreting is not a mechanical process of converting a sentence in language A in to a sentence in language B. ____, it is a complex art. A. But B. In addition. C. Rather. D. However. Question 31: You can always _____Ann to give you sound advice A. bank of B. bank for C. bank at D. bank on Question 32: His emotional problems _____from the attitudes he encountered as a child, I think A. stem B. flourish C. root D. sprout Question 33:There should be an international law encouraging_____ A. afforestation B. deforestation C. forestry D. reforestation Question 34: I’m not keen on _____ control of the project to a relatively newcomer A. undertaking B. charging C. entrusting D. allotting Question 35: : Unfortunately, the company closed down because it couldn’t keep___with rapidly changing technology A. speed B. time C. fast D. pace Question 36. He is not under arrest, nor have the police placed any _____ on his movements A. obstacle B. veto C. restriction D. regulation Question 37: He was very taken ___ by her aggressive attitude A. about B. aside C. apart D. aback Question 38: Most crimes that are committed are no more than ____theft A. slight B. small C. unimportant D. petty Question 39:John was asked to _____ before the judge A. wit B. testify C. execute D. prejudice Question 40: She is extremely competent and ______ A. industrial B. industrious C. industry D. industrialized Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from number 41 to 50. Since water is the basis of life, composing the greater part of the tissues of all living things, the crucial problem of desert animals is to survive in a world where.

(337) sources of flowing water are rare. And since man’s inexorable necessity is to absorb large quantities of water at frequent intervals, he can scarcely comprehend that many creatures of the desert pass their entire lives without a single drop. Uncompromising as it is, the desert has not eliminated life but only those forms unable to withstand its desiccating effects. No moist-skinned, water-loving animals can exist there. Few large animals are found. The giants of the North American desert are the deer, the coyote, and the bobcat. Since desert country is open, it holds more swift-footed running and leaping creatures than the tangled forest. Its population is largely nocturnal, silent, filled with reticence, and ruled by stealth. Yet they are not emaciated. Having adapted to their austere environment, they are as healthy as animals anywhere else in the word. The secret of their adjustment lies in the combination of behavior and physiology. None could survive if, like mad dogs and Englishmen, they went out in the midday sun; many would die in a matter of minutes. So most of them pass the burning hours asleep in cool, humid burrows underneath the ground, emerging to hunt only by night. The surface of the sun-baked desert averages around 150 degrees, but 18 inches down the temperature is only 60 degrees. Question 41: The title for this passage could be _____ . A. “Desert Plants” B. “Life Underground” C. “Animal Life in a Desert Environment” D. “Man’s Life in a Desert Environment” Question 42: The word “inexorable” in the passage mostly means _____ . A. relentless B. full C. demanding D. essential Question 43: Man can hardly understand why many animals live their whole life in the desert, as _____ . A. sources of flowing water are rare in a desert B. water is an essential part of his existence C. water composes the greater part of the tissues of living things D. very few large animals are found in the desert Question 44: The phrase “those forms” in the passage refers to all of the following EXCEPT _____. A. water-loving animals B. the coyote and the bobcat C. moist-skinned animals D. many large animals Question 45: According to the passage, creatures in the desert _____. A. are smaller and fleeter than forest animals C. are more active during the day than those in the tangled forest B. live in an accommodating environment D. are not as healthy as those anywhere else in the world Question 46: The author mentions all the following as examples of the behavior of desert animals EXCEPT _____. A. they sleep during the day B. they dig home underground C. they are noisy and aggressive D. they are watchful and quiet.

(338) Question 47: The word “emaciated” in the passage mostly means _____. A. wild B. cunning C. unmanageable D. unhealthy Question 48: the word “Them” means___. A. animals B. people C. water D. minutes. Question 49: The word “burrows” in the passage mostly means _____. A. “places where insects or other small creatures live and produce their young” B. “holes or tunnels in the ground made by animals for them to live in” C. “structures made of metal bars in which animals or birds are kept” D. “places where a particular type of animal or plant is normally found” Question 50: We can infer from the passage that _____ . A. living things adjust to their environment B. water is the basis of desert life C. desert life is colorful and diverse D. healthy animals live longer lives Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from number 51 to 55 Let children learn to judge their own work. A child learning to talk does not learn by being corrected all the time: if corrected too much, he will stop talking. He notices a thousand times a day the difference between the language he uses and the language those around him use. Bit by bit, he makes the necessary changes to make his language like other people’s. In the same way, children learn all the other things they learn to do without being taught – to talk, run, climb, whistle, ride a bicycle – compare their own performances with those of more skilled people, and slowly make the needed changes. But in school we never give a child a chance to find out his mistakes for himself, let alone correct them. We do it all for him. We act as if we thought that he would never notice a mistake unless it was pointed out to him, or correct it unless he was made to. Soon he becomes dependent on the teacher. Let him do it himself. Let him work out, with the help of other children if he wants it, what this word says, what the answer is to that problem, whether this is a good way of saying or doing this or not. If it is a matter of right answers, as it may be in mathematics or science, give him the answer book. Let him correct his own papers. Why should we teachers waste time on such routine work? Our job should be to help the child when he tells us that he can’t find the way to get the right answer. Let’s end all this nonsense of grades, exam, marks. Let us throw them all out, and let the children learn what all educated persons must someday learn, how to measure their own understanding, how to know what they know or do not know. Let them get on with this job in the way that seems most sensible to them, with our help as school teachers if they ask for it. The idea that there is a body of knowledge to be learnt at school and used for the rest of one’s life is nonsense in a world as complicated and rapidly changing as ours. Anxious parents and teachers say, “But suppose they fail to learn something essential, something they will need to get on in the world?” Don’t worry! If it is essential, they will go out into the world and learn it. Question 51: What does the author think is the best way for children to learn things? A. by copying what other people do B. by making mistakes and having them corrected C. by listening to explanations from skilled people D. by asking a great many questions Question 52: What does the author think teachers do which they should not do? A. They give children correct answers B. They point out children’s mistakes to them C. They allow children to mark their own work D. They encourage children to copy from one another Question 53: The passage suggests that learning to speak and learning to ride a bicycle are____..

(339) A. not really important skills B. more important than other skills C. basically different from learning adult skills D. basically the same as learning other skills Question 54: Exams, grades and marks should be abolished because children’s progress should only be estimated by__. A. educated persons B. the children themselves C. teachers D. parents Question 55: The author fears that children will grow up into adults who are____. A. too independent of others B. too critical of themselves C. unable to think for themselves D. unable to use basic skills From the four words or phrases(A, B, C or D) choose the one that best completes the sentences Question 56: The first movie- length cartoon, _____ , “Snow White and the Seven Dwarfs” set the standard for later full length features such as “ The Lion King” and “Pocahotas” A. that released ever B. which ever released C. ever released D. released whatever. Question 57: _____, such as banking and travel, computers are not a convenience: they are a necessity. A. where some industries B. there are some industries C. in some industries D. some industries Question 58: Only in the Civil war _____killed or wounded. A. soldiers in America B. so many American soldiers were C. many in America D. were so many American soldiers Question 59: Studies have shown that the elderly who are pet owners have lower blood pressure than_____ who live without pets. A . do the elderly B. elderly C. for the elderly to do D. to the elderly Question 60:______, Harry was the thirty – third President of the United States A. He was born and raised in Missori B. That he was born and raised in Missori C. Because he was born and raised in Missouri D. Born and raised in Missouri Question 61: ___ the fifth largest among the nine planets that make up our solar system A. The Earth being B. The Earth is C. That the Earth is D. Being the Earth. Question 62: All the way along the wind street ____ A. he came B. came he C. did he came. D. comes he. Question 63: Both liquids and gases flow freely from a container because they have ____ A. not definite shape B. none definite shape C. no definite shape D. nothing definite shape Question 64: Environmentalists are earnestly trying to determine ______ of the ozone layer over the poles. A. what is causing the deterioration B. what the cause of the deterioration C. is causing the deterioration D. the deterioration is causing Question 65: The bank sent a notice to its customers which contained____ Ạ. A remembrance that interest rates were to rise the following month B. A reminder that a raise in interest rates was the month following C. To remember that the interest rates was going up next month. D. A reminder that the interest rates would raise the following month Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others Question 66: A. contents B. dismal C. discontent D. decent Question 67: A. hygiene B. appointment C. remember D. neglect Question 68: A. competence B. comfortable C. compliment D. companion Question 69: A. delicious B. theory C. attractive D. alleviate Question 70: A. inevitable B. innovate C. innocent D. insecticide.

(340) Choose the sentence which is closest in meaning to the given one Question 71: The Prime Minister is unlikely to call an early general election. A. It’s likely that the Prime Minister will call an early general election. B. The likelihood is that the Prime Minister will call an early general election C. There is little likelihood of the Prime Minister calling an early general election D. The likelihood is great that the Prime Minister will cal an early general election Question 72: Throughout his life, the fisherman suffered from great poverty A. The fisherman was so poor that he died young B. Although the fisherman was poor, he led a great life C. Poverty prevented the fisherman from enjoying life D. The fisherman’s life was one of great poverty Question 73 Jerry wasn’t in the mood to go to the party A. Jerry didn’t feel like going to the party B. Jerry was very moody C. Jerry would rather go to the party D. Jerry preferred to go to the party Question 74: Bob had better go before it gets dark A. It’s dark now, and Bob ought to have gone before B. Bob had left before it got dark C. It’s better for Bob to leave in darkness D. Bob should go while it’s still daylight Question 75:“All right, Jenny, you may pay for the coffee if you insist” A. Jenny wants to pay for the coffee B. Jenny would pay if she had money C. Jenny is being asked to pay for the coffee D. It’s Jenny’s duty to pay for the coffee Read the following passage and choose the right answer to each of the questions. Are organically grown foods the best food choices? The advantages claimed for such foods over conventionally grown and marketed food products are now being debated. Advocates of organic foods- a term whose meaning varies greatly- frequently proclaim that such products are safer and more nutritious than others. The growing interest of consumers in the safety and nutritional quality of the typical North American diet is a welcome development. However, much of this interest has been sparked by sweeping claims that the foods supply is unsafe or inadequate in the meeting nutritional needs. Although most of these claims are not supported by scientific evidence, the preponderance of written material advancing such claims makes it difficult for the general public to separate fact from fiction. As a result, claims that eating a diet consisting entirely of organically grown foods prevents or cures disease or provides other benefits to health have become widely publicized and formed the basic for folklore. Almost daily the public is besieged by claims for “no-aging” diets, new vitamins, and other wonder foods. There are numerous unsubstantiated reports that natural vitamins are superior to synthetic ones, that fertilized eggs are nutritionally superior to unfertilized eggs, that untreated grains are better than fumigated grains, and the like. One thing that most organically grown foods products seem to have in common is that they cost more than conventionally grown foods. But in many cases consumers are misled if they believe foods. So there is real cause for concern if consumers, particularly those with limited incomes, distrust the regular food supply and buy expensive organic foods instead. Question 76 The “ welcome development” mentioned in paragraph 2 is an increase in___. A. interest in food safety and nutrition among North Americans. C. the amount of healthy foods grown in North America. B. the nutritional quality of the typical North American diet. D. the number of consumers in North America. Question 77. According to the first paragraph, which of the following is true about the term “organic foods”? A. It is accepted by most nutritionists. B. It has been used only in recent years. C. It has no fixed meaning D. It is seldom used by consumers. Question 78. The author implies that there is cause for concern if consumers with limited incomes buy organic foods instead of conventionally grown foods because ..

(341) A. organic foods can be more expensive but are often no better than conventionally grown foods. B. many organic foods are actually less nutritious than similar conventionally grown foods. C. conventionally grown foods are more readily available than organic foods. D. too many farmers will stop using conventional methods to grow food crops. Question 79. According to the last paragraph, consumers who believe that organic foods are better than conventionally grown foods are often . A. careless B. mistaken C. thrifty D. wealthy Question 80. What is the author’s attitude towards the claims made by advocates of health foods? A. Very enthusiastic B. Skeptical C. Neutral D. Somewhat favorable. ---------------THE END------------------. ĐỀ SỐ 45: SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC ĐỀ THI THỬ THQG NĂM 2015 TRƯỜNG THPT LIỄN SƠN MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH – ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 187 (ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT) Thời gian: 90 phút Chọn phương án (A, B, C hoặc D) ứng với từ có phần gạch chân có cách phát âm khác với ba từ còn lại trong mỗi câu: Câu 1: A. knocked B. danced C. wasted D. helped Câu 2: A. shower B. allow C. shout D. arrow Câu 3: A. increase B. creation C. mean D. cheat Câu 4: A. danger B. exchange C. blame D. anger Câu 5: A. these B. theory C. worth D. threaten Chọn phương án (A, B, C hoặc D) ứng với từ có trọng âm chính rơi vào âm tiết có vị trí khác với ba từ còn lại: Câu 6: A. encourage B. financial C. departure D. average Câu 7: A. career B. request C. ancient D. machine Câu 8: A. creative B. sensitive C. ambitious D. attentive Câu 9: A. professor B. manager C. reporter D. director Câu 10: A. exercise B. refusal C. collective D. abundant Chọn phương án (A, B, C hoặc D) để hoàn thành các câu sau: Câu 11: The city centre was crowded________tourists. A. of B. up C. with D. in Câu 12: ________Mr John Smith is old, he still goes jogging everyday. A. Although B. In spite of C. So that D. Because Câu 13: Jack London wrote several________novels on adventure. A. interest B. interesting C. interested D. interestingly Câu 14: She didn’t tell me why she_______to school the day before. A. didn’t come B. hadn’t come C. doesn’t come D. hasn’t come Câu 15: Don’t worry. They will do the job as_________as possible..

(342) A. economic B. economical C. economically economy Câu 16: “Have you________traveled to New York” - “Yes, ________” A. once/ once B. ever/once C. never/never yet/ never Câu 17: The government have tried to_______the price of petro, but they failed. A. bring down B. bring on C. put in get over Câu 18:Never_________such a magnificient firework display. A. have I seen before B. have before I seen C. have before seen I D. before. D.. D.. D.. have I. seen Câu 19: The mother is very ________about the health of her little son. A. confused B. concerned C. nervous D. careful Câu 20:I have had such important decisions_______for the last three months. A. to do B. to make C. to give D. to put Câu 21:________back to her home town, Julia Robert found everything new and attractive. A. When arrived B.As she arrives C. On arriving D. On arrival Câu 22: If you book in advance you will_______certainly have a better table at our restaurant. A. mostly B. the most C. most D.. almost Câu 23: Mexico is the most popular vacation_______for people from the United States. A. connection B. departure C. target D. destination Câu 24: David: “Thanks for your help, Mary”. Mary: “__________” A. With all my heart B. It’s my pleasure C. Never remind me D. Wish you Câu 25:Although _________satisfied with the the contract, the officials hesitatingly agreed to sign it. A. completed B. complete C. completion D.. completely Câu 26: My uncle took______photography when he retired from work. A. after B. over C. up D. on Câu 27: It is necessary to be careful________your career. A. when choosing B. when you will choose C. when you chose D. when you have chosen Câu 28: Although the coach had not thought her a good tennis player at first, she _______to be a champion. A. came out B. turned out C. turned up D. came round Câu 29:I’ll make some sandwiches_______we get hungry. A. in case B.in case of C. so that D. unless Câu 30:There is always_______traffic in the city centre in the rush hour. A. big B. strong C. full D. heavy Câu 31: Smoke, dirt and noise are all kinds of _________. A. pollute B. polluted C. pollution D. pollutant Câu 32: Jimmy was late this morning, _______was unusual for him. A. which B. who C. whom D. what.

(343) Câu 33: She had changed so much that________anyone recognized her. A. not B. hardly C. almost Câu 34: Have you read this article ___ our competitor? A. over . B. for C. by. D. nearly D.. about Câu 35: _________my complaint to the manager, the waiter was sacked. A. Because of B. Thanks to C. Despite D. Without Đọc kỹ đoạn văn và chọn phương án đúng (A, B, C hoặc D) cho mỗi chỗ trống: In the world today, particularly in the two most induatrialized areas, North America and Europe, recycling is big news. People are talking about it, practicing it, and discovering new ways to be sensitive to the environment. Recycling means finding was to use products a second time. The motto of the recycling movement is “Reduce, Reuse, Recycle”. The first step is to reduce garbage. In stories, a shopper has to buy products in blisters packs, boxes and expensive plastic wrappings. A humburger from a fast food restaurant comes in lots of packaging: usually paper, a box and a bag. All that packaging is wasted resources. People should try to buy things that are wrapped simply, and reuse cups and utensils. Another way to reduce waste is to buy high-quality products. When low quality appliances break, many customers throw them away and buy new ones- a loss of more resources and more energy. For example, if a customer buys high-quality appliance that can be easily repaired, the manufacturer receives an important message. In the same way, if a customer chooses a product with less packaging, that customer sends an important message to manufacturers. To reduce garbage, the throwaway must stop. The second step is to reuse. It is better to buy juices and soft drinks in returnable bottles. After customers empty the bottles, they can return them to the store. The manufacturers of the drinks collect the bottles, wash them, and then fill them again. The energy that is necessary to make new bottles is saved. In some parts of the world, returning bottles for money is a common practice. In those places, the garbage dumps have relatively little glass and plastic from throwaway bottles. The third step is being environmentally sensitive is to recycle. Spent motor oil can be cleaned and used again. Aluminum cans are expensive to make. It takes the same amount of energy to make one aluminum can as it does to run a color TV set for three hours. When people collect and recycle aluminum (for new cans), they help save one of the world’s precious resources. Câu 36: What is the main topic of the passage? A. how to reduce garbage disposal B. what people often understand about the term “recycle” C. what is involved in the recycling movement. D. how to live sensitive to the environment. Câu 37: What does the word “sensitive” in the phrase “sensitive to the environment” mean: A. cautious B. logical C. friendly D. responding Câu 38: People can do the following to reduce waste EXCEPT____. A. buy high-quality product B. buy simply-wrapped things C. reuse cups D. buy fewer hamburgers Câu 39: Why is it waste and customers buy low-quality products? A. Because people will soon throw them away B. Because they have to be repaired many times C. Because customers change their ideas all the time. D. Because they produce less energy. Câu 40: What is the best describes the process of reuse? A. The bottles are collected, washed, returned and filled again. B. The bottles are filled agian after being returned, collected and washed. C. The bottles are washed, returned, filled again and collected. D. The bottles are collected, returned filled again and washed..

(344) Câu 41: The garbage dumps in some areas have relatively little glass and plastic because: A. people are ordered to return bottles B. returned bottles are few C. not many bottles are made of glass or plastic D. each returned bottle is paid. Câu 42: The word “practice” is closest in meaning to _________ A. drill B. exercise C. deed D. belief Câu 43: What are the two things mentioned as examples of recyling? A. Aluminum cans and plastic wrappings B. Hamburgers wrappings and spent motor oil. C. Aluminum cans and spent motor oil. D. TV set and aluminum cans. Câu 44: The energy used to make a can is _______the energy used to run a color TV set for 3 hours. A. as much as B. less than C. more than D. not worth being compared to. Câu 45: The word “precious” is closest in meaning to_______. A. natural B. sustantial C. first D. invaluable Đọc kỹ đoạn văn và chọn phương án đúng (A, B, C hoặc D)cho mỗi chỗ trống: Our eyes and ears might be called transformers because they sense the light and sound around us and turn them into electrical impulses that the brain can interpret. These electrical impulses that have been transformed by the eyes and ears reach the brain and are turned into messages that we can interpret. For the eye, the process begins as the eye admits light waves, bends them at the cornea and lens, and then focuses them on the retina. At the back of each eye, nerve fibers bundle together to form optic nerves, which join and then split into two optic tracts. Some of the fibers cross so that part of the input from the right visual field goes into the left side of the brain, and vice versa. The process in the ear is carried out through sensory cells that are carried in fluid- filled canals and that are extremely sensitive to vibration. Sound that is transformed into electricity travels along nerve fibers in the auditory never. These fibers form a synapse with neurons that carry the messages to the auditory cortex on each side of the brain. Câu 46. According to the author, we might call our eyes and ears “transformers” because____. A. They sense light and sound B. The create electrical impulses. C. The brain can interpret the input D. The messages travel in the brain. Câu 47. Which of the following is closet in meaning to the word “admits” ? A. Selects B. Interprets C. Lets in D. Focuses on Câu 48. What does the word ‘ them” in line 2 refer to ____.? A. Eyes and ears B. Light and sound C. Transformers D. Electrical impulses Câu 49. The word “bundle” could best be replaced by which of the following____.? A. Group B. Grow C. Branch D. Settle Câu 50. The word “split” is closest in meaning to which of the following____.? A. Tear B. Fracture C. Separate D. Crack Câu 51. What does the word “them” in line 6 refer to____.? A. Light waves B. vessels C. Eyes D. Messages Câu 52. According to the passage, when input from the right visual field goes into the left side of the brain , what happen? A. The nerve fibers bundle together B. The optic nerves split C. The retina receives light waves D. Input from the left field goes to the right side. Câu 53. The phrase “carried out” could be best be replaced by which of the following? A. Brought over B. Taken away C. Accomplished D. Maintained.

(345) Câu 54. Which of the following is most similar to the word “vibration” ____.? A. Sound B. Movement C. Light D. Heat Câu 55. According to the passage, optic nerves eventually____. A. Bend B. Split C. Admit light waves D. Become messages Đọc kỹ đoạn văn và chọn phương án đúng (A, B, C hoặc D)cho mỗi chỗ trống: Scientists are making new (51)___ about the universe all the time. Every day, we read about new (52)___ that they say will have a huge (53)___ on our everyday lives. In a few year’s time, everyone will (54)___ a mobile phone, have an email (55)___ and know (56)___ to surf the Internet. The jobs of people like postmen and even teachers will (57)___ change completely or disappear. Most (58)___ will be computer based. One of the most basic (59)___ for getting a job is to be able to use computer. In the future, if you can’t use a computer you will be (60)___. Câu 56. A. discoveries B. creations C. inventions D. journeys Câu 57. A. techniques B. inventions C. facts D. finds Câu 58. A. result B. different C. change D. effect Câu 59. A. hold B. own C. take D. owe Câu 60. A. computer B. letter C. address D. direction Câu 61. A. what B. how C. which D. whose Câu 62. A. neither B. also C. not D. either Câu 63. A. lessons B. classrooms C. studying D. educations Câu 64. A. qualifications B. experiences C. training D. occupations Câu 65. A. illegal B. illiterate C. illegible D. illogical Chọn phương án (A, B, C hoặc D) ứng với từ/ cụm từ có gạch chân cần phải sửa trong các câu sau: Câu 66: These Japanese cars are all too expensive for we to buy at this time. A B C D Câu 67:People are not allowed to enter the park after midnight because lack of security. A B C D Câu 68.Every country has their own traditions, some of which have existed for centuries. A B C D Câu 69: Lights can travels from the Sun to the Earth in eight minutes and twenty seconds. A B C D Câu 70: It’s difficult to find others workers who are willing to work such long hours. A B C D Chọn phương án (A, B, C hoặc D) ứng với câu có nghĩa gần nhất với mỗi câu cho sẵn sau đây: Câu 71: John is fat because he eats so many chips. A. If John doesn’t eat so many chips, he will not be fat. B. If John didn’t eat so many chips, he would not be fat. C. John is fat though he eats so many chips. D. Being fat, John eats so many chips. Câu 72: People say he won a lot of money on the lottery..

(346) A. He is said that he won a lot of money on the lottery. B. He won a lot of money on the lottery, it is said. C. He is said to have won a lot of money on the lottery . D. He was said to win a lot of money on the lottery. Câu 73: He asked me where I had bought those English books. A. He asked me “Where had I bought those English books?” B. He said to me “Where did you buy these English books?” C. He said to me “Where I bought these English books?” D. He asked me “Where did I buy those English books?” Câu 74: No sooner had he been appointed to the post than the new director fell ill. A. Immediately after his appointment to the post, the new director fell ill. B. Because he had been appointed to the post, the new director fell ill. C. After the new director fell ill, he had been appointed to the new post. D. The new director had no sooner been appointed to the post when he fell ill. Câu 75: She would have sung for us if he had asked her. A. He didn’t ask her to sing, and she didn’t sing. B. She sang for us although he didn’t ask her. C. She was going to sing for us but then changed her mind. D. He asked her to sing but she refused. Câu 76. “Let’s go on a walking holiday!” said Jane. A. Jane suggested going on a walking holiday. B. Jane wanted us to go on a walking holiday. C. Jane invited us to go on a walking holiday. D. Jane allowed us to go on a walking holiday. Câu 77: It was difficult for us not to laugh at Tom’s joke. A. Tom’s joke made us laugh. B. Tom’s joke was funny so we laughed. C. We couldn’t help laughing at Tom’s joke. D. We laughed because Tom’s joke was funny. Câu 78: She had only just begun to speak when people started interrupting. A. She hardly had begun to speak when people started interrupting. B. Hardly she had begun to speak when people started interrupting.. C. Hardly had she begun to speak when people started interrupting. D.She hadn’t begun to speak when people started interrupting. Câu 79: “Do you believe in what the boy says, Mary?” said Peter. A. Peter asked Mary to believe in what the boy said. B.Peter asked Mary if she believed in what the boy said. C. Peter said that Mary believed in what thw boy said. D.Peter asked Mary whether she believes in what the boy says. Câu 80: It’s not worth in trying to make her change her mind. A. It’s no point in trying to make her change her mind. B. There’s no point to try to make her change her mind. C. It’s no point for trying to make her change her mind. D. There’s no point in trying to make her change her mind. ________THE END_________. ĐỀ SỐ 46: SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC TRƯỜNG THPT LIỄN SƠN. ĐỀ THI THỬ THQG NĂM 2015 MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH – ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 188.

(347) (ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT). Thời gian: 90 phút. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct sentence which is built from the words and phrases given: 1. No one / know / answer / teacher / question. A. No one knows the answer of the teacher’s question. B. No one knows how to answer of teacher’s question. C. No one knows the answer to the teacher’s question. D. No one knows to answer the teacher’s question. 2. patient / he / be / have / intention / wait / three / hours. A. He was so patient to have intention of waiting for three hours. B. Patient as he was, he had no intention of waiting for three hours. C. So patient was he that he had intention for waiting for three hours. D. So patient he was to have no intention to wait for three hours. 3. I / get / refund / change / another / sweater. A. I would like to get the refund if you can change me another sweater. B. I would like to get the refund or you can change me another sweater. C. I would like to get the refund; consequently, you can change me another sweater. D. Unless I would like to get the refund or you can change me another sweater. 4. Henry / suggested / Anna / the doctor. A. Henry suggested Anna to go to the doctor. B. Henry suggested to Anna that she goes to the doctor. C. Henry suggested to Anna that she go to the doctor. D. Henry suggested Anna that she should go to the doctor. 5. do / cooking / she / look / after / garden. A. As soon as she did the cooking, she looks after the garden. B. Apart from to do the cooking, she looked after the garden. C. In addition to do the cooking, she also looked after the garden. D. Besides doing the cooking, she looks after the garden. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions: 6. This is his fifth day on the tour. He___ four countries. A. already visited B. visited C. has already visited D. is visiting 7. “I think the teacher should give us more exercises. – “____________ .” A. That’s rubbish. B. Yes, let’s. C. Ok. D. That’s just what I was thinking. 8. There is fog at Heathrow; the plane, ___, has been delayed. A. otherwise B. or C. therefore D. so 9. “Excuse me, is anybody sitting here?” – “____________ .” A. Yes, I am so glad. B. No, thanks. C. Sorry, the seat is taken. D. Yes, yes. You can sit here. 10. ___, he would have been able to pass the exam..

(348) A. Studying more B. If he were studying to a greater degree C. If he studied more D. Had he studied more 11 The manager was very pleased with her last business trip, which had been a ___ success. A. full B. complete C. whole D. high 12. The man you saw yesterday ___ Mr. Brown, because he went to London on business last week. A. can’t have been B. mustn’t be C. can’t be D. mustn’t have been 13. “Why don’t you go to the zoo?” – “____________ .” A. That’s a good idea. B. Because we don’t have enough money. C. I couldn’t agree more. D. Yes, I’d love to. 14. She went___ a bad cold just before Christmas. A. through B. over C. in for D. down with 15. In every country, there are ___ between different regions, especially between the North and the South, which result in unfriendliness, even hatred. A. quarrels B. conflicts C. differences D. disputes 16. The house that we used to live in is in a very ___ state. A. negligent B. neglected C. negligible D. neglectful 17. ___ the bad weather, he could get to the airport in time. A. Despite B. Though C. However D. Although 18. One of the great ___ to the students when they go on a mountain walk is that they learn a lot about wild flowers. A. supports B. returns C. benefits D. profits 19. Imagination ___ facts. A. outlays B. outruns C. outplays D. outlives 20. “ Were there many people waiting in line at the stadium?” – “ Yes, I saw ____________.” A. quite many B. quite much C. quite a few D. quite some 21. He is decorating the house with a view ___ it. A. to selling B. to be sold C. for selling D. to sell 22. I tried to talk her ___ joining our trip, but she refused. A. on B. in C. out of D. into 23. The boss ___ him because his mother had just passed away. A. made up B. made use of C. made fun of D. made allowance for.

(349) 24. “Must we do it now?” – “No, you ____________ .” A. won’t B. needn’t C. can’t D. mustn’t 25.The fact is , doctor, I just cannot ___ this dreadful cough. A. get down to B. get rid of C. get out of D. get round to 26. The Home – Loan Company ___ the right to cancel this agreement. A. serves B. conserves C. reserves D. deserves 27. After Joe’s mother died, he was ___ up by his grandmother. A. drawn B. taken C. grown D. brought 28. It ___ me as strange that my front door was open when I got home. A. occurred B. seemed C. struck D. appeared 29.The music aroused an ___ feeling of homesickness in him. A. intentional B. intense C. intended D. intensive 30. ___ regards sport and leisure activities, our two countries appear to have little in common. A. With B. What C. As D. How 31. Jane is plain, but her sister is very ___. A. complex B. attractive C. sympathetic D. sophisticated 32. On the street : “ Have you found a good place to eat yet? “Yes, there’s a wonderful restaurant right down the street from the school.” “____________ ?” “ Yes. And the food is good too.” A. Is it really like that B. Do you like good food C. Are the prices reasonable D. Do they often go there 33. Although we argued with him for a long time, he stood his ground. A. changed his decision B. refused to change his decision C. felt sorry for us D. wanted to continue 34. Of all the factors ___ agricultural products, weather is the one that influences farmers the most. A. affecting B. to effect C. to affect D. effecting 35. I like the idea of becoming your partner and which is more, this business really ___ me. A. adjusts B. conforms C. suits D. likes Mark the letter A, B, C ,or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer which completes each of the following sentences : 36. Most psychologists agree that the basic structure of an individual’s personality is__________. A. well established extremely by the age of five. B. by the age of five and extremely well established..

(350) C. extremely well established by the age of five. D. by the age of five it is extremely well established. 37. Civil rights are the freedoms and rights ______ as a member of a community, state, or nation. A. may have a person who B. may have a person C. and a person may have D. a person may have 38. The Internet ____ access to current news, political articles, business statistics, and software for practically any purpose. A. can be provided readily B. can provide ready C. ready and can be providing D. is ready and can provide 39. Fibers of hair and wool are not continuous and must normally be spun into thread ____ woven into textile fabrics. A. when to be B. as are they C. if they are to be D. that they are 40. Franklin D. Roosevelt was _____ the great force of radio and the opportunity it provided for taking government policies directly to the people. A. as the first President he understood fully B. the first President to understand fully C. the first President fully understood D. the first President that, to fully understand Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C ,or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer for each of the questions This rapid transcontinental settlement and these new urban industrial circumstances of the la half of the 19th century were accompanied by the development of a national literature of gre abundance and variety. New themes, new forms, new subjects, new regions, new authors, ne audiences all emerged in the literature of this half century. As a result, at the onset of World War I, the spirit and substance of American literature h evolved remarkably, just as its center of production had shifted from Boston to New York in t late 1880s and the sources of its energy to Chicago and the Midwest. No longer was it produce at least in its popular forms, in the main by solemn, typically moralistic men from New Engla and the Old South; no longer were polite, well-dressed, grammatically correct, middle-cla young people the only central characters in its narratives; no longer were these narratives to be in exotic places and remote times; no longer, indeed, were fiction, poetry, drama, and form history the chief acceptable forms of literary expression; no longer, finally, was literature re primarily by young, middle class women. In sum, American literature in these years fulfilled in considerable measure the condition W Whitman called for in 1867 in describing Leaves of Grass: it treats, he said of his own maj work, each state and region as peers "and expands from them, and includes the world connecting an American citizen with the citizens of all nations." At the same time, these yea saw the emergence of what has been designated "the literature of argument," powerful works sociology, philosophy, psychology, many of them impelled by the spirit of exposure and refor Just as America learned to play a role in this half century as an autonomous internation political, economic, and military power, so did its literature establish itself as a producer of maj works..

(351) 41. The word evolved in line 7 is closest in meaning to ______ . A. became famous B. turned back C. changed D. diminished 42. The word it in line 9 refers to _______ . A. American literature B. the energy C. the population D. the manufacturing 43. The author uses the word indeed in line 13 for what purpose? A. For variety in a lengthy paragraph B. To emphasize the contrast he is making C. To wind down his argument D. To show a favorable attitude to these forms of literature 44. The word exotic in line 12 is closest in meaning to _____. A. well-known B. unusual C. urban D. oldfashioned 45. The phrase these years in line 16 refers to _______ . A. the present B. the 1900s C. the early 1800s D. 18501900 46. All of the following can be inferred from the passage about the new literature EXCEPT ______ . A. It was not highly regarded internationally B. It broke with many literary traditions of the past C. It introduced new American themes, characters, and settings D. It spoke to the issue of reform and change 47. It can be inferred from lines 1-3 that the previous passage probably discussed _________. A. the limitations of American literature to this time B. the importance of tradition to writers C. new developments in industrialization and population shifts D. the fashions and values of 19th century America 48. It can be inferred from the passage that Walt Whitman _____________ . A. disliked urban life C. was an international diplomat B. wrote Leaves of Grass D. was disapproving of the new literature 49. The main idea of this passage is _____. A. that the new American literature was less provincial than the old B. that most people were wary of the new literature C. that World War I caused a dramatic change in America D. that centers of culture shifted from East to West 50. This passage would probably be read in which of the following academic courses? A. International affairs B. Current events C. American literature D. European history Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C ,or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks..

(352) Ask anyone over forty to make a comparison (51)____ the past and the present and nine (52)____ ten people will tell you that things have been getting (53)____ worse for as long as they can remember. Take the weather for example, which has been behaving rather strangely lately. Everyone remembers that in their childhood the summers were (54)____ hotter, and that winter always included abundant falls of snow just when the school holidays had started. Of course, the food in those days was far superior too, as nothing was imported and everything was fresh. Unemployment was negligible, the pound really was worth something, and you could buy a sizeable house even if your means were limited. And above all, people were (55)____ better in those days, far more friendly, not inclined to crime or violence, and spent their free time making model boats and tending their stamp collections (56)____ than gazing at the television screen for hours on end. As we know that this picture of the past (57)____ cannot be true, and there are plenty of statistics dealing with health and prosperity which prove that it is not true, why is it that we all have a (58)____ to idealize the past ? Is this simply nostalgia? Or is it rather that we need to believe in an image of the world which is (59)____ the opposite of what we see around us? Whichever it is, at least it leaves us with a nagging feeling that the present could be better, and perhaps (60)____ us to be a little more critical about the way we live. 51. A. between B. from C. with D. in 52. A. to B. out of C. or D. from 53. A. virtually B. so C. steadily D. out 54. A. considerably B. at least C. rarely D. not only 55. A. more B. somehow C. whatsoever D. as 56. A. usually B. different C. other D. rather 57. A. especially B. hardly C. simply D. specifically 58. A. tendency B. custom C. habit D. practice 59. A. utterly B. widely C. quite D. rather 60. A. makes B. encourages C. reassures D. supports Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction. 61. For centuries, philosophers and artists alike have debated the meaning of beauty and questioned whether it real or only perceived. A B C D 62. The purpose of the United Nations, broad speaking, is to maintain peace and security and to encourage respect for human rights. A B C D 63. There will always be a job for Mike if he change his mind. A B C D 64. Owing to their superior skill, highly competitive athletes have been known to win contests and break records even when suffered from injuries, physical disorders, and infections. A B C D 65. Language is important factor in the accumulation of culture. A B C D.

(353) Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions: Question 66:A. contribute B. compliment C. bacteria D. procedure Question 67: A. stagnant B. desert C. interest D. install Question 68: A. sacrifice B. maintenance C. disaster D. overview Question 69: A. rhinoceros B. curriculum C. kindergarten D. discriminate Question 70: A. millennium B. incredible C. fascinating D. philosopher Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C ,or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer for each of the questions. Aging is the process of growing old. It occurs eventually in every living thing provided, of course, that an illness or accident does not kill it prematurely. The most familiar outward signs of aging may be seen in old people, such as the graying of the hair and the wrinkling of the skin. Signs of aging in a pet dog or cat include loss of playfulness and energy, a decline in hearing and eyesight, or even a slight graying of the coat. Plants age too, but the signs are much harder to detect. Most body plants grow bigger and stronger, and function more efficiently during childhood. They reach their peak at the time of maturity, or early adulthood. After that they begin to decline. Bones, for example, gradually become lighter and more brittle. In the aged, the joints between the bones also become rigid and more flexible. This can make moving very painful. All the major organs of the body show signs aging. The brain, for example, works less efficiently, and even gets smaller in size. Thinking processes of all sorts are slowed down. Old people often have trouble in remembering recent events. One of the most serious changes of old age occurs in the arteries, the blood vessels that lead from the heart. They become thickened and constricted, allowing less blood to flow to the rest of body. This condition accounts, directly or indirectly, for many of the diseases of the aged. It may, for example, result in heart attack. Aging is not a uniform process. Different parts of the body wear out at different rates. There are great differences among people in their rate of aging. Even the cells of the body differ in the way they age. The majority of cells are capable of reproducing themselves many times during the course of a lifetime. Nerve cells and muscle fibers can never be replaced once they wear out. Gerontologists - scientists who study the process of aging - believe the wearing out of the body is controlled by a built - in biological time - clock. They are trying to discover how this clock works so that they can slow down the process. This could give man a longer life and a great number of productive years. 71. What is the main idea in the first paragraph? A. Signs of aging are easier to detect in animals than in plants. B. The outward signs of aging may be seen in old people..

(354) C. Aging occurs in every living thing after it has reached maturity. D. Not all signs of aging are visible. 72. Which piece of information is given in the passage? A. Gerontologists can give man a longer life. B. Gerontologists are studying how they can slow down the process of aging. C. Gerontologists have discovered that aging is controlled by a built- in biological time- clock. D. Gerontologists can prevent diseases connected with aging. 73. The human body begins to lose vigor and the ability to function efficiently ________ . A. soon after reaching adulthood B. before reaching adulthood C. during childhood D. in old age 74. In old age , the bones ___________ A. become more flexible B. become heavier C. cause much pain D. break easily 75. According to the passage, what condition is responsible for many of the diseases of the old? A. Their trouble in remembering recent events B. The blood vessels that have become thickened and constricted C. The rigid and inflexible joints between the bones D. The worn - out nerve cells and muscle- fibers 76. Many of the diseases of old people are the results of __________. A. lack of blood B. poor blood circulation C. the thickening of the blood vessels D. low blood pressure 77.The statement Aging is not a uniform process in line 19 means that __________ A. old people do not have the same outward signs of aging C. not all people age at the same age B. nerve cells and muscle fibers do not age simultaneously D. the process of aging is slow 78. The word arteries in line 15 refers to __________ . A. vessels that are thickened and constricted B. the paths along which blood flows to all parts of the body C. the tubes carrying blood back to the heartD. such heart diseases as suffered by old people 79. When the brain begins to age, _________. A. eyesight will begin too B. it becomes lighter C. memorization declines D. the thinking processes stop 80. Which of the statements about aging is false? A. People vary in their rates of aging. B. All body cells once worn out can never be replaced. C. The cells of the body age in different ways. D. The various parts of the body do not wear out at the same rate. ---------------THE END-----------------.

(355) ĐỀ SỐ 47: SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC ĐỀ THI THỬ THQG NĂM 2015 TRƯỜNG THPT LIỄN SƠN MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH – ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 189 (ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT) Thời gian: 90 phút Find the word with stress pattern different from that of the other three words in each question. 1. A. compulsory B. objective C. publication D. statistical 2. A. reaction B. miserable C. knowledge D. accident 3. A. pleasure B. sanguine C. guaranty D. 4. 5.. optimistic A. generous A. explosion. B. pagoda B. expectation. C. address D. control C. calculation D.. disappear Choose the best options to complete the sentences. 6. Never in my life _____such a beautiful sunset. A. I have seen B. I do see C. have I seen D. do I see . 7. We intend to ____with the old system as soon as we have developed a better one A. do up B. do away C. do in D. do down 8. ______did Tom realise there was a danger. A. Upon entering the store B. When he entered the store C. After he had entered the store D. Only after entering the. store 9. My lillte children _________to the water park every Sunday. A. enjoy taking B. enjoy to be taken C. enjoy being taken D. are enjoyed to take 10. Rarely ____to work on her own. A. she is seen B. does she seen C. is she seen D. does she 11. There was nothing special about him _____from his bright eyes. A. but B. except C. for D. apart 12. The shop assistant said that he would check to see if he had anymore copies of the book in ___. A. surplus B. supply C. stock D. store 13. The conference had to be put ____until a later date. A. on B. away C. off D. up 14. "Is Nigel still here?" - " Yes , but hurry up , he is just ____" A. to leave B.about leaving C. to be leaving D. about to leave 15. The whole situation is getting out of ____.Let's do something before it turns into a bitter row. A. capacity B. charge C. hand D. discipline 16. "Why don't we go to the cinema?" - " It's too late; the film ____started by now." A. will be B. is going to be C. shall have D. will have 17. The United States consists of 50 states, __________has its own government..

(356) A. each of which B. hence each C. they each D. each of that 18. _________entering the hall, she found everyone waiting for her. A. At B. Of C. With D. On 19. We try to _____to see our parents at least twice a month. A. call up B. go up C. come on D. drop in 20. That machine ought _____before it left the factory but it apparently was not . A. to test B. to be testing C. to have tested D. to have. been tested 21. Did you understand ______? A. what he said B. what did he say C. what has he said D. what he is saying 22. When her father died I wrote her a letter to express my _____ A. generosity B. appreciation C. sympathy D. gratitude 23. Luckily , by the time we got there , the painting ______ A. didn't sell B. hadn't sold C. wasn't sold D. hadn't been. sold 24. He had to leave his family ____when he went abroad to work. A. at a loss B. behind C. out D. at all costs 25. The situation was further complicated by John 's _____ A. decision B. undecidedness C. indecision D. indecisiveness 26. I do not think that purple shirt ____with your yellow skirt. A. suits B. fits C. goes D. wears 27. I passed the test .I ______it without your help. A. would not pass B. wouldn't have passed C. didn't pass D. had not passed 28. To take off her boots or to put them on was an agony to her, but it ____an agony for years. A. was B. were C. had been D. has been 29. I am under the weather today. Under the weather means ____ A. sick B. happy C. sad D. disappointed 30. ____the commitee, I'd like to thank you for your generous donation. A. According to B. On behalf of C. In addition to D. Thanks to 31. If the business was bad , they had to ___some of their staff . A. put down B. lay off C. take on D.hang up 32. There's no _____in applying for the job unless you have the right qualificaations. A. point B. reason C. use D. worth 33. We live in a village _____in a small wooded valley. A. lying B. placing C. putting D. laying 34. Different conservation ______have been made so as to save endangered species. A. products B. efforts C. priorities D. impacts 35. With that bad temper he certainly _____after his father .He's exactly the same. A. takes B. looks C. goes D. puts 36. Can you tell me the __________of these shoes? A. charge B. price C. amount D. expense 37. Don't invite Tom to dinner ; I can't stand his bad _____ A. mood B. mind C. character D. temper.

(357) Choose the sentence ( A, B, C or D ) which is closest in meaning to the one in bold. 38. You should have persuaded him to change his mind. A. It was essential to persuade him to change his mind. B. You should persuade him to change his mind. C. You persuaded him to change his mind but he didn’t listen.. D. You didn’t persuade him to change because of his mind. 39. Do you have a good relationship with your boss? A. Are you getting along with your boss? B. Are you geting along to your boss? C. Are you geting along with your boss? D. Are you getting along to your boss? 40. They haven't heard any news from him so far. A. No news has been heard from him so farB. No news is heard from him so far. C. No news have been heard from him so far. D. Any news has been heard from him so far. 41. Though she was very tired, she agreed to help her son with his homework. A. She would have helped her child with his homework if she hadn’t been tired. B. Despite of her tiredness, she was eager to help her son with his homework. C. Even if feeling tired, she agreed to help her son with his homework. D. Tired as she was, she agreed to help her son with his homework. 42. What he did came as no surprise to me. A. He told me that he was not surprise. B. He was surprised when I came. C. I was not surprised by his actions. D. His behaviour surprised me. Read the paragraph carefully and choose the best options.. In the twentieth century, people depend on unlimited energy to power their everyday lives. A wide range of energy -run devices and modern coveniences are taken for granted, and although it may seem that we will never in danger of living without thoses coveniences, the fact is that many supplies of energy are dwindling rapidly. Scientists are constantly searching for new sources of power to keep modern society running. Whether future populations will continue to enjoy the benefits of abundant energy will depend on this sesearch. Coal, oil, and natural gas supply modern civilization with most of its power. However, not only are supplies of these fuels limited, but they are a major source of pollution. If the energy demands of the future are to be met without seriously harming the environment, existing alternative energy sources must be improved or further explored and developed. These include nuclear, water, solar, wind, and geothermal power, as well as energy from new, nonpolluting types of fuels. Each of these alternatives, however, has advantages and disadvantages. Nuclear power plants efficiently produce large amounts of electricity without polluting the atmosphere; however, they are costly to build and maintain, and they pose the daunting problem of what to do with nuclear wastes. Hydroelectricity power is inexpensive nd environmentally safe, but impractical for communities located far from moving water .Harnessing energy from tides and waves has similar drawbacks. Solar power holds great promise for the future but methods of collecting and concentrating sunlight are as yet inefficient, as are mothods of harnessing wind power..

(358) Every source of energy has its disadvantages. One way to minimize them is to use less energy. Conservation efforts coupled with renewable energy resourses, such as combination of solar, water, wind and geothermal energy and alternative fuels, such as alcohol and hydrogen, wil ensure supplies of clean, affordable energy for humanity's future. 43. The passage suggests that ___________________ A. people use energy without giving great thought to where it's coming from. B. the search for energy sourses is mainly a problem for future . C. sientists believe we will never go have to without our modern conveniences . D. modern society requires a minimum amount of energy to keep it running . 44. It can be inferred from the passage that _______________ A. most alternative enrgy sources have proven to be impractical . B. many alternative enrgy sources are environmatlly hazadous. C. nuclear power solves one problem while creating others. D. solar and wind power are not promising for the future. 45. From the passage , It can be inferred that to solve our energy problems __________ A. we will have to stop using many our modern conveniences. B. scientists will have to find one major source of nonpolluting energy. C. scientists will have to find ways to increase our supplies of coal, oil and gas. D. a combination of conservation and invention will be needed. 46. The word "dwindling " in the 1st paragraph is closest in meaning to _____. A. increasing B. diminishing C. changing D. limiting 47. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? A. The search for alternative energy sources is not over. B. Our present energy sources must be eliminated and replaced with alternative sources. C. Alternative sources of energy on this planet are very limited. D. Demand for energy in the future are likely to decrease. Read the following passage, choose the best answer ( A, B, C, or D) to complete the passage. SOME GOLDEN TIPS FOR MANAGING STRESS + Notice what (48)____you feel very anxious .Face your anxieties. + See what you can change in those areas (49)____you are doing too much. + Are you (50)____to things? Is it neccessary to get upset / anxious / angry? + Are you breathing too fast? Slow, deep (51)____helps you relax. + Try using some relaxation techniques (52)____yoga or biofeedback .They can be very useful in helping you relax. + Get strong! (53)____you are not too fat. Don't (54)____tooo much coffee or alcohol .Do you need to smoke so much or even at all? Exercise threee or four times a week, but don't exercise too much .It can be bad for you. + Don't forget your friends.They can give you very (55)____support and help, as you can to them. 48. A. causes B. makes C. has D. drives 49. A. where B. there C. which D. while 50. A. exaggerating B. overestimating C. overcareful D. overreacting 51. A. breathing B. inhaling C. breath D. blowing 52. A. similar B. such as C. liking D. the same as 53. A. Remember B. Ensure C. Make sure D. Reassure 54. A. Swallow B. consuming C. eat D. drink 55. A. trustworthy B. valuable C. endless D. exceptional.

(359) Read the paragraph carefully and choose the best options. POLES APART Many are surprised to learn that Antarctica is nearly twice the size of the United States. The name Antarctica was coined to mean "opposite to the Artic". It is just that in many ways. Antarctica is a high, ice-covered land-mass. In the Artic the landmass are grouped around the ice-covered Artic Ocean. Largely because of this difference, the climate of the two areas is very different. Antarctica is the coldest area in the world .On the average it is about 30 degrees colder than the Artic .At the South Pole, nearly 10,000 feet high, monthly mean temperature run well below rezo .Only in coastal regions do temperatures sometimes rise about freezing in the summer (December to March) In contrast, near the North Pole monthly mean temperatures often rise above freezing. At both poles, daily temperatures may drop far below the monthly mean. At the American South Pole Station, winter temperatures sometimes fall below - 100 degrees Fahrenheit. Elsewhere, on higher parts of the south polar plateau, even lower temperatures are recorded .A temperature of -127 degrees Fahrenheit was measured in August 1960 .It is the world's record low temperature. Partly because of this climatic difference, the land animals and plants of the two regions are very different. On the continent of Antarctica, there are very few plants .In the Artic there are many plants .In some of the few ice-free areas of Antarctica, mosses, lichens, and algae are found .Penguins polulate Antarctic coastlines but do not exist in the Artic. The land animals of the Artic are foxes, bears, reindeer, and lemmings. These animals are unknown in the Antarctic. Old rock layers show that this "oppositeness" between north and south extends far back into the early chapters of earth history. Ice is the great feature of Antarctica. More than 4.5 million square miles of ice sheet cover the area. Great rivers of ice, called glaciers push down the mountains. Antarctica is the storehouse of about 85 percent of the total world supply of ice. The ice cap is very thick, averaging nearly 8,000 feet .At one spot. Scientists have found the distance from the surface to the rock undertneath the ice to be more than 13,000 feet. 56. The coldest area in the world is ________ A. the Artic B. Antarctica C. Siberia D. the Noth Pole 57. The world's record low temperature was recorded in _____ A. 1950 B. 1960 C. 1970 D. the 19th century . 58. How much of the world 's ice is located in Antarctaca ? A. 15 % B. 55 % C. 85 % D. 4.5 % 59. Compared to the US , Antarctica is ______________ A. the same size B. twice the size C. 4 times the size D. half the size 60. Some areas of Antarctica are _______ A. ice free B. very humid C. quite mild D. very warm 61. One type of animal found in the Artic is the ______________ A. fox B wolf C opossum D penguin. 62. The author develops his point through _______________ A. comparison and contrast B. theories and proof C. characters and actions D. definitions and examples 63. The author implies that if Antarctica 's ice melted _______________ A. coatal areas of the world would be flooded B.ocean currents would shift direction C. climate would change drastically everywhere. D. there would be more oceans 64. The name Antarctica, meaning " opposite to the artic", was based on __________ A. insufficient exploration B. inaccurate infermation C. adequate knowledge D. traditional beliefs 65. It may be concluded that _____________A. life at the North Pole is more tolerable than at the South Pole. B. The Artic is a solid land mass.

(360) C. penguins could not live at the North Pole D. there are no animals on the two poles A recent investigation by scientists at the US Geological Survey shows that strange animal behaviour might help predict future earthquake. Investigators found such (73)____about ten kilomotres from where a fairly recent earthquake (74)____. Some birds made strange sounds and flew about wildly; dogs barked and ran around (75)____. Scientists believe that animals (76)____these environmental changes as early as several days before (77)____disaster In 1976, after (78)____animal behaviour, the Chinese scientists were able to predict a (79)____earthquake. Although hundreds of thousands people were killed, the government was able to (80)____millions of other people and thus keep the death too at a lower level. 66. A. occurences B. destinations C. problems D. concerns 67. A. was held B. took place C. was happened D. was occurring 68. A. under control B. uncontrollably C. out of control D. uncontrolledly 69. A. can sense B. could hear C. are able to feel D. can recognise 70. A. a B. the C. their D. these 71. A. they have noticed B. having looked C. having obtained D. observing 72. A. terrified B. terrific C. terribly D. terrifying 73. A. evaporate B. eliminate C. evacuate D. excavate Read the following passage, choose the best answer ( A, B, C, or D) to complete the passage. Choose the underlined part among A, B, C Or D which needs correcting. 74. The professor was considering postponing the examination until the following week because the students’ confusion. A B C D 75. Having finished his term paper before the deadline, it was delivered to the professor before the class. A B C D 76. In my opinion, I think the problem should be solved as soon as possible. A B C D 77. Lack of sanitation in restaurants are a major cause of disease in some areas of the country. A B C D 78. Animals and man use the energy finding in the food to operate their body and muscles. A B C D 79. Some of them will probably want to dance during they are listening to the records. A B C D 80. Due to the company’s growth has been slow, the workforce is to be reduced. A B C D -----------------------THE END-----------------------. ĐỀ SỐ 48: SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC ĐỀ THI THỬ THQG NĂM 2015 TRƯỜNG THPT LIỄN SƠN MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH – ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 190 (ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT) Thời gian: 90 phút Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question 1: I can’t stand people who treat animals cruelly. A. cleverly B. reasonably C. gently D. brutally Question 2: Names of people in the book were changed to preserve anonymity..

(361) A. reveal B. conserve C. cover D. presume Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. magnificent B. appliances C. potentially D. preservation Question 4: A. architect B. electric C. mineral D. luxury Question 5: A. photochemical B. trigonometry C. dramatically D. alphabetical Question 6: A. imagine B. horizon C. property D. computer Question 7: A. assassinate B. contributor C. agriculture D. arithmetic Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.. Question 8: My father is in charge when Mr. Smith is ______. He took over from him on June 1st. A. off B. away C. out D. in Question 9: It is a biological fact that children ______ their parents. A. take after B. take to C. look up. D. care for. Question 10: I can’t ______ who it is. He is too far away. A. take in B. stand for C. make out. D. look for Question 11: Looking down at the coral reef, we saw ______ of tiny, multi-coloured fish. A. teams B. flocks C. shoals D. swarms Question 12: ______ bacteria in foods are killed, as they are during baking or stewing, decay is slowed down. A. If B. Should C. What D. Unless Question 13: - "Well, cats are very good at catching mice around the house." - “______.” A. Nothing more to say B. You can say that again C. Yes, I hope so D. No, dogs are very good, too Question 14: A bridge must be strong enough to support its own weight _____ the weight of the people and vehicles that use it. A. as far as B. as long as C. so well as D. as well as Question 15: I must take this watch to be repaired as it ______ over 20 minutes a day. A. accelerates B. increases C. progresses D. gains Question 16: The hall was very crowded with over a hundred people ______ into it. A. stuck B. packed C. pushed D. stuffed Question 17: The operating principles of the telephone are ______ they were in the nineteenth century. A. the same today B. the same as today C. the same today as D. today what the same Question 18: - “Shall we go for a swim?” - “______” A. Yes, please B. Yes, we shall C. Yes, we will D. Yes, let’s, shall. we? Question 19: - "Can I get you something to drink?" - “______” A. I'd like some Coke, thanks. B. Thank you. You're welcome. C. Yes, why not? D. Yes, you can, of course. Question 20: The move to a different environment brought about a significant ____ in my cousin’s state of mind. A. change B. impact C. effect D. influence Question 21: - “Can I carry these suitcases into the room for you?” - “______” A. Can you? That’s very kind. B. You can’t, I think! C. No, you can’t. D. Yes, you can..

(362) Question 22: Although the new library service has been very successful, its future is ______ certain. A. by all means B. by no means C. at any rate D. by any chance Question 23: It was with a ______ heart that she said goodbye to all her classmates. A. solemn B. heavy C. dismal D. grim Question 24: The forecast predicted __ weather with snow, sunshine, wind and thunder and that is just what we have had. A. variable B. differing C. fluctuating D. various Question 25: Most of _____ archaeologists know about prehistoric cultures is based on studies of material remains. A. what B. these C. which D. their Question 26: - “Mrs. Brown passed away yesterday.” - “David has told me that. ______.” A. By God B. God rest her C. God save the Queen D. God bless Question 27: My mother ______ me against staying late night after night to prepare for exams. A. warned B. encouraged C. recommended D. reprimanded Question 28: That's a nice coat, and the colour ______ you well. A. fits B. matches C. couples D. suits Question 29: The man who was driving the truck would not admit that he had been at fault, and ______.. A. neither had the other driver C. neither the other driver. B. neither would the other driver D. the other driver neither. Question 30: We walk in streets where the noise of traffic is almost ______. A. deafened B. deafness C. deaf D. deafening Question 31: All members of my family are ______ aware of the need to obey the family rules. A. well B. much C. greatly D. far Question 32: The number of homeless people after the flood ______ dramatically. A. are increasing B. has increased C. increase D. had increased Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is closest in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question 33: Dissemination of information is frequently carried out via satellite - through local or national TV networks. A. Dedication B. Compilation C. Condensing D. Dispersal Question 34: Trees have to be pruned seasonally or annually to ensure that they continue to bear fruit. A. weeded B. fertilized C. harvested D. trimmed Question 35: In rural Midwestern towns of the USA, the decisions that affect most residents are made at general assemblies in schools and churches. A. concerts B. public libraries C. gatherings D. prayer services Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks from 36 to 45. Easter Easter is a holiday in late March or early April, the first Sunday after the first full moon after 21 March. Many people (36)____ it with their family or have a short holiday/ vacation. It is also an important Christian (37)____. Easter Sunday, the day of the Resurrection, is the end of Lent (38)____ the most important date in the Christian year. Many people who do not go to church at other times go on Easter Sunday. It was once (39)____ for people to wear new clothes to church on this day. Women (40)____new hats, called Easter bonnets. Today, people sometimes make elaborately decorated Easter bonnets for fun. A few people send Easter (41)____with religious symbols on them or pictures of small chickens, lambs, rabbits and spring flowers, all traditionally associated (42)____Easter..

(363) The Friday before Easter Sunday is called Good Friday and is (43)____ as the day Christ was crucified (= hanged on a cross to die). On Good Friday many people eat hot cross buns (= fruit buns decorated with a simple cross). The Monday after Easter is called Easter Monday. In Britain, Good Friday and Easter Monday are both (44)____ holidays. In the US, each company decides for itself (45)____ to close or remain open on those days. Question 36: A. take B. use C. spend D. expend Question 37: A. fair B. festival C. parade D. carnival Question 38: A. for B. as C. and D. nor Question 39: A. familiar B. ordinary C. common D. regular Question 40: A. put on B. take on C. bore D. wore Question 41: A. letters B. envelopes C. cards D. notes Question 42: A. toward B. with C. to D. from Question 43: A. missed B. recalled C. reminded D. remembered Question 44: A. family B. nation C. school D. bank Question 45: A. if B. how C. why D. whether Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction. Question 46: The basic elements of public-opinion research are interviewers, questionnaires, tabulating equipment, and to sample population. A B C D Question 47: The twins have the same identical birthmarks on their backs A B C D Question 48: Beaten by Holyfield, his position was not highly appreciated in world boxing. A B C D Question 49: Abraham Lincoln's boyhood home resembled that of many other mid-western pioneers, with its dirt floor, sleeping loft, and crude fireplace. A B C D Question 50: Members of a nation's foreign service represent that country's interests abroad and report on the conditions, trends, and policies of the country which they are stationed. A B C D Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 51 to 60. At 7pm on a dark, cold November evening, thousands of people are making their way across a vast car park. They're not here to see a film, or the ballet, or even the circus. They are all here for what is, bizarrely, a global phenomenon: they are here to see Holiday on Ice. Given that most people don't seem to be acquainted with anyone who's ever been, the show's statistics are extraordinary: nearly 300 million people have seen Holiday on Ice since it began in 1943; it is the most popular live entertainment in the world. But what does the production involve? And why are so many people prepared to spend their lives travelling round Europe in caravans in order to appear in it? It can't be glamorous, and it's undoubtedly hard work. The backstage atmosphere is an odd mix of gym class and workplace. A curtained-off section at the back of the arena is laughably referred to as the girls' dressing room, but is more accurately described as a corridor, with beige, cracked walls and cheap temporary tables set up along the length of it. Each girl has a small area littered with pots of orange make-up, tubes of mascara and long false eyelashes. As a place to work, it must rank pretty low down the scale: the area round the ice-rink is grey and mucky with rows of dirty blue and brown plastic seating and red carpet tiles. It's an unimpressive picture, but the show itself is an unquestionably vast, polished global enterprise: the lights come from a firm in Texas, the people who make the audio system are in California, but Montreal supplies the smoke effects; former British Olympic skater Robin Cousins is now creative.

(364) director for the company and conducts a vast master class to make sure they're ready for the show's next performance. The next day, as the music blares out from the sound system, the cast start to go through their routines under Cousins' direction. Cousins says, The aim is to make sure they're all still getting to exactly the right place on the ice at the right time - largely because the banks of lights in the ceiling are set to those places, and if the skaters are all half a metre out they'll be illuminating empty ice. Our challenge,' he continues, 'is to produce something they can sell in a number of countries at the same time. My theory is that you take those things that people want to see and you give it to them, but not in the way they expect to see it. You try to twist it. And you have to find music that is challenging to the skaters, because they have to do it every night.' It may be a job which he took to pay the rent, but you can't doubt his enthusiasm. 'The only place you'll see certain skating moves is an ice show,' he says, 'because you're not allowed to do them in competition. It's not in the rules. So the ice show world has things to offer which the competitive world just doesn't. 'Cousins knows what he's talking about because he skated for the show himself when he stopped competing - he was financially unable to retire. He learnt the hard way that you can't put on an Olympic performance every night. 'I'd be thinking, these people have paid their money, now do your stuff, and I suddenly thought, "I really can't cope. I'm not enjoying it".' The solution, he realised, was to give 75 per cent every night, rather than striving for the sort of twice-ayear excellence which won him medals. To be honest, for those of us whose only experience of ice-skating is watching top-class Olympic skaters, some of the movements can look a bit amateurish, but then, who are we to judge? Equally, it's impossible not to be swept up in the whole thing; well, you'd have to try pretty hard not to enjoy it. Question 51: According to paragraph 1 the writer is surprised to see that although Holiday on Ice is popular ______. A. people often prefer other types of show B. people prefer to see a film, the ballet, or the circus C. most people consider it as a holiday D. few people know someone who has seen it Question 52: From the phrase "it must rank pretty low down the scale" in paragraph 3 we can infer that ______. A. Holiday on Ice has rather poor working condition B. Holiday on Ice has a very dirty place to work C. skaters do not enjoy working in this place D. skaters do not earn much money from the job Question 53: Which of the following adjectives can be used to describe the backstage area? A. glamorous B. relaxing C. messy D. old Question 54: It is mentioned in paragraph 3 that ______. A. many companies are involved in the production B. it is difficult to find suitable equipment C. the show needs financial support D. the show has been staged in many places Question 55: For Robin Cousins, the aim of the rehearsal is ______. A. to keep in time with the music B. to adjust the spotlights C. to be acquainted with the stage D. to position the skaters on the ice Question 56: Cousins's theory on how to produce shows for different audiences is that ______. A. he adapts movements to suit everyone B. he selects suitable music C. he presents performances in an unexpected way D. he varies the routines every night Question 57: It is suggested in paragraph 5 that skating in shows ______. A. enables skaters to visit a variety of places B. is as competitive as other forms of skating C. can be particularly well paid D. allows skaters to try out original skating moves Question 58: The pronoun "them" in paragraph 5 refers to ______. A. certain skating moves B. some famous skaters C. some live performances D. certain ice shows Question 59: The phrase "the hard way" in paragraph 5 most likely means ______. A. by working very hard B. by having expectations of others C. through personal experience D. through doing things again and again Question 60: Which of the following is the writer's conclusion of Holiday on Ice?.

(365) A. Olympic ice-skating is more enjoyable than Holiday on Ice.. B.. Everyone should enjoy watching Holiday. on Ice.. C. Holiday on Ice requires more skills than Olympic ice-skating. D. It is hard to know who really enjoys Holiday on Ice. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 61 to 70. Being aware of one’s own emotions – recognizing and acknowledging feelings as they happen – is at the very heart of Emotional Intelligence. And this awareness encompasses not only moods but also thoughts about those moods. People who are able to monitor their feelings as they arise are less likely to be ruled by them and are thus better able to manage their emotions. Managing emotions does not mean suppressing them; nor does it mean giving free rein to every feeling. Psychologist Daniel Goleman, one of several authors who have popularized the notion of Emotional Intelligence, insisted that the goal is balance and that every feeling has value and significance. As Goleman said, “A life without passion would be a dull wasteland of neutrality, cut off and isolated from the richness of life itself.” Thus, we manage our emotions by expressing them in an appropriate manner. Emotions can also be managed by engaging in activities that cheer us up, soothe our hurts, or reassure us when we feel anxious. Clearly, awareness and management of emotions are not independent. For instance, you might think that individuals who seem to experience their feelings more intensely than others would be less able to manage them. However, a critical component of awareness of emotions is the ability to assign meaning to them – to know why we are experiencing a particular feeling or mood. Psychologists have found that, among individuals who experience intense emotions, individual differences in the ability to assign meaning to those feelings predict differences in the ability to manage them. In other words, if two individuals are intensely angry, the one who is better able to understand why he or she is angry will also be better able to manage the anger. Self-motivation refers to strong emotional self-control, which enables a person to get moving and pursue worthy goals, persist at tasks even when frustrated, and resist the temptation to act on impulse. Resisting impulsive behavior is, according to Goleman, “the root of all emotional selfcontrol.” Of all the attributes of Emotional Intelligence, the ability to postpone immediate gratification and to persist in working toward some greater future gain is most closely related to success – whether one is trying to build a business, get a college degree, or even stay on a diet. One researcher examined whether this trait can predict a child’s success in school. The study showed that 4-yearold children who can delay instant gratification in order to advance toward some future goal will be “far superior as students” when they graduate from high school than will 4-year-olds who are not able to resist the impulse to satisfy their immediate wishes. Question 61: Which of the following can we infer from paragraph 1? A. If people pay attention to their feelings, they will not be able to manage them.. B. If people pay attention to their feelings, they can control their emotions better. C. People who can manage their emotions will be controlled by them. D. Some people can understand their feelings better than others. Question 62: The word “soothe” in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by ______. A. worsen B. reduce C. weaken D. relieve Question 63: According to paragraphs 1 to 3, people should be aware of their emotions so that they can ______. A. stop feeling angry B. manage their emotions appropriately C. experience feelings more intensively D. explain their emotions to others Question 64: From paragraph 2, we can see that Daniel Goleman ______. A. wrote about Emotional Intelligence B. studied how people manage their emotions C. trained people to increase their Emotional Intelligence D. treated patients who had emotional problems Question 65: All of the following are mentioned in paragraph 2 about our emotions EXCEPT ______..

(366) A. we can manage our emotions B. we should ignore some feelings C. every feeling is important D. emotions are part of a satisfying life Question 66: The word “critical” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______. A. indecisive B. inessential C. dynamic D. important Question 67: The word “them” in paragraph 3 refers to ______. A. intense emotions B. psychologists C. individuals D. individual differences Question 68: In paragraph 3, the author explains the concept of awareness and management of emotions by ______. A. giving an example of why people get angry B. describing how people learn to control their emotions. C. comparing how two people might respond to an intense emotion D. explaining why some people are not aware of their emotions Question 69: The word “pursue” in paragraph 4 mostly means ______. A. be involved in something B. improve or develop something C. try to achieve something D. find out about something Question 70: According to paragraph 5, children might be more successful in school if they can resist impulses because they can ____. A. have more friends at school B. easily understand new information C. focus on their work and not get distracted D. be more popular with their teachers Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is DIFFERENT in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 71: I am sure it was by mistake that he took your calculator. A. It is a mistake that he took your calculator. B. He must have taken your calculator by mistake. C. I am sure he didn’t take your calculator deliberately. D. It is certain he didn’t take your calculator on purpose. Question 72: It would be a good idea if you went and asked her yourself. A. I advise you to go and ask her yourself. B. You went and asked her yourself and that. was good. C. I suggest you go and ask her yourself. D. Why don’t you go and ask her yourself? Question 73: For fear of waking up the family, Trung tiptoed upstairs. A. The family feared when Trung tiptoed upstairs. B. Trung tiptoed upstairs so as not to wake up the family. C. Trung tiptoed upstairs lest the family should be woken up. D. Trung tiptoed upstairs because he didn’t want to wake up the family. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 74: Phillip snored all night. I didn't sleep a wink. A. I didn't sleep a wink, which made Philip snore all night. B. Philip snored all night as a result of my sleeplessness. C. What with Philip snoring all night, I didn't sleep a wink. D. What made Philip snore all night was my sleeplessness. Question 75: You’d better take the keys. It’s possible I’ll come home late. A. You’d better take the keys as I possibly come home late. B. You’d better take the keys. in case I come home late. C. I’ll probably come home late so that you’d better take the keys. D. If I come home late, you’d better take the keys. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 76: “You don’t appreciate me,” she said..

(367) A. She complained that he took her for granted. B. She said that he didn’t take her for granted. C. She suggested that he shouldn’t appreciate her. D. She told him not to appreciate her. Question 77: “Be careful! The knife is sharp!” she shouted. A. Because the knife was sharp, she ordered me to be careful. C. Being careful, she asked me if the knife was sharp. B. Because of the sharp knife, she shouted to me to be careful. D. She told me to be careful. as the knife was sharp. Question 78: Ann is not really cut out for teaching. A. Teaching does not really suit Ann. B. Ann does not want to become a teacher. C. Ann cannot give up her career as teacher. D. Ann does not like teaching at all. Question 79: “I will pay back the money, Linda,” said Helen. A. Helen apologized to Linda for borrowing her money. B. Helen offered to pay Linda the money back. C. Helen suggested paying back the money to Linda. D. Helen promised to pay back. Linda’s money. Question 80: He is an authority on primitive religion.. A. He is famous for his vast knowledge. of primitive religion. B. He has authority over the people who practise primitive religion. C. He has a great influence on the people who practise primitive religion. D. He has official permission to practice primitive religion. ----------- THE END ----------. ĐỀ SỐ 49: SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC TRƯỜNG THPT LIỄN SƠN (ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT). ĐỀ THI THỬ THQG NĂM 2015 MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH – ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 192 Thời gian: 90 phút. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following word. Question 1: A. committee B. referee C. employee D. refugee Question 2: A. alcohol B. comment C. chemical D. proceed Question 3: A. company B. atmosphere C. customer D. employment Question 4: A. apprehension B. preferential C. conventional D. calculation Question 5: A. satisfactory B. alter C. military D. generously Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 6: Not until the end of the 19th century ______ become a scientific discipline. A. plant breeding has B. did plant breeding C. plant breeding had D. has plant breeding Question 7: When friends insist on ______ expensive gifts, it makes most people. uncomfortable. A. them to accept accept. B. they accepting. Question 8: _________ that she burst into tears. A. Such was angry girl B. So angry she was. was such. C. their accepting D. they C. She was angry so D. Her. anger.

(368) Question 9: They always kept on good ______ with their next-door neighbors for the children’s sake. A. will B. friendship C. terms D. relations Question 10: They stayed for hours, ______ my mother was very annoyed about.. A. that. B. which. C. this. D. whom. Question 11: The vase is definitely not_______, but just a very good imitation. A. real B. factual C. genuine D. true Question 12: I walked away as calmly as I could. __________, they would have. thought I was a thief. A. In case Owing to. B. If so. C. Or else. D.. Question 13: Please answer the phone for me. I don't want to speak to ______ it is A. whoever B. whatever C. whenever D. wherever Question 14: By the time Brown’s daughter graduates, __________ retired. A. he B. he has C. he’ll being D. he’ll have Question 15: __________the storm, the ship couldn't reach its destination on time. A. Because of B. Incase of C. In spite of D. But for Question 16: While ___ to help Tim with his math, I got impatient because he. wouldn’t pay attention to what I was saying. A. I am trying B. having tried trying. C. I try. Question 17: The problem is difficult, therefore ______ students could answer it. A. a great number of B. a lot of C. few Question 18: I was in a such hurry that I left one of my bags _________ A. out. behind. D. D. a few B. C.. on D. aside Question 19: Do you think you can meet the _________ given by our teacher ?. A. deadline B. line C. dead D face Question 20: The twins look so much alike that almost no one can____them____ A. take/apart B. tell/away C. tell/apart D. take/on Question 21: Everyone can join our club, _____________ age and sex. A. not mention B. in case of C. in place of D. regardless of Question 22: The strike was caused by the_________ of two workers. A. dismiss B. dismissing C. dismissed D. dismissal Question 23: Look! The yard is wet. It______ last night. A. must rain B. couldn't have rained C. must have rained D. should have rained Question 24: There was a terrible storm on the night we first stayed at the campsite but we were alright with our tent and were dry as a_____. A. bone B. cover C. coat D. sheet Question 25: James Cook,______ , also discovered tje Hawaiian Islands. A. by exploring the South Sea he reached Australia. B. explored the South Sea and reaching Australia. C. who explored the South Sea and reached Australia. D. explored the South Sea then reached Australia. Question 26: The factory was _________ so the management tried to cut costs by making some workers redundant. A. competition B. competitive C. uncompetitive D. competed Question 27: 'These tablets really are ______. My headache’s much better now.'.

(369) A. affective B. effective C. efficient D. affected Question 28: “I understand you don’t like opera. _____ I go at least once a month.” A. On contrast B. In contrast C. In the contrast D. On the contrast Question 29: He has always looked _______ his elder brother. A. up to B. back on C. into D. up and down Question 30: A: Do you mind if we schedule the meeting for 11 o’clock? B: Well, actually, I __________ earlier A. will prefer it B. would prefer it to be C. am preferring D. should prefer it will be Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions or the correct question to each of the following answers . Question 31: “Would you mind closing the window?” – “______________” A. Not at all. I will close it now. B. Yes, very soon. C. Yes, certainly. D. Yes, I would. Go ahead. Question 32: Ellen : "_________________?" - Tom : "He's tall and thin with blue. eyes." A. What does John look like C. How is John doing. B. Who does John look like D. What does John like. Question 33: “Your parents must be proud of your result at school”. – “______________” A. Sorry to hear that. B. Thanks. It’s certainly encouraging. C. Of course D. I am glad you like it. Question 34: Customer: Can I have a look at that pullover, please? Salesgirl: “__________.” A. It's much cheaper B. Which one? This one? C. Sorry, it is out of stock. D. Can I help you? Question 35: A: I had a really good weekend at my uncle’s. B: “__________.” A. Oh, that’s very nice of you B. Congratulations C. It’s pleasure D. Oh,. I’m glad to hear that Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction. Question 36: In very early times, people around the fire were entertained by storytellers. with stories of heroes’ victory and wonderful actions. A B C D Question 37: When I got home, Irene was lying in bed thinking about the wonderful time she has had. A B C D Question 38: People tend to make a lot of shopping at Xmas time. A Question 39: Question 40:. B. C. D. Stuart stopped to write his letter because he had to leave for the hospital. A B C D A fully grown male mountain lion may be eight long feet. A B C D. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the original sentence in each of the following questions. Question 41: There were over two hundred people at Carl's trial, most of whom believed that he was not guilty of the crime. A. Carl had not committed the crime, and so more than 200 people came to his trial to show their support..

(370) B. When it was announced that Carl had been found not guilty of the crime, there were over 200 people in the audience at his trial. C. Over 200 people coming to Carl’s trial must have influenced the fact that he was not found guilty of the crime.. D. The majority of the more than 200 people at Carl’s trial didn’t think that he had committed the crime. Question 42: Ann had the TV on when her parents entered the room. A. The TV was on a table in Anne’s room. B. Anne’s parents told her to turn on the TV. C. Anne noticed her parents watching TV. D. Anne’s parents found her watching TV. Question 43: “You should have finished the report by now.” John told his secretary.. A. John reproached his secretary for not having finished the report. B. John said that his secretary had not finished the report. C. John reminded his secretary of finishing the report on time. D. John scolded to his secretary for not having finished the report. Question 44: Madeleine wears high heels to look taller. A. In order to look taller, Madeleine wears high heels. B. So that to look taller, Madeleine wears high heels. C. Madeleine wants high heels to make her taller. D. Madeleine buys high heels to look taller. Question 45: Even though some events were cancelled, thousands of people attended the festival. A. No matter how many people attended the festival, some events were cancelled B. In spite some cancelled events, thousands of people attended the festival. C. As some events were cancelled, thousands of people attended the festival.. D. Despite the cancellation of some events, thousands of people attended the festival. Question 46: It couldn’t have been Mary that you heard shouting last night, as she is vacationing in Vermont at the moment. A. I think Mary is on holiday in Vermont now, so you may be wrong in thinking that you heard her yelling last night.. B. Right now, Mary is having a holiday in Vermont, so it is impossible that it was she whose shouting you heard last night. C. Are you sure it was Mary who shouted to you last night, because, as far as I know, she is on vacation in Vermont at the moment? D. If it was Mary that you heard yelling last night, then she can’t be taking a vacation in Vermont at the moment. Question 47: Both of the lifts were out of order. A. Either of the lifts was not in right order. B. The order of the two lifts was wrong C. Neither. of the lifts was working.. D. Neither of the lifts was in. order. Question 48: He was sentenced to six months in prison for his part in the robbery A. He received a six months in prison for his part in the robbery.. B. He received a six-month sentence for his part in the robbery. C. For his participation in the robbery, he had been in prison for six months. D. For his participation in the robbery, a prison had been given to him for six months. Question 49: It is possible that we won't have to take an entrance exam this year.. A. Perhaps we don't have to take an entrance exam this year. B. We must take an entrance exam this year. C. We mightn't take an entrance exam this year. D. It is very likely that we will take an entrance exam this year. Question 50: The crowd became increasingly angry at the long delay..

(371) A. The crowd became very angry because the delay was so long. B. The more increasingly the crowd became, the longer the delay was. C. The longer the delay was, the angrier the crowd became.. D. The more the crowd became angry at the delay, the longer they feel. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 51 to 60 The goal of Internet-based encyclopedia Wikipedia (www.wikipedia.org) is to give everyone on the planet access to information. Like other encyclopedias, Wikipedia contains lots of information: more than 2.5 million articles in 200 different languages covering just about every subject. Unlike other encyclopedias, however, Wikipedia is not written by experts, but by ordinary people. These writers are not paid and their names are not published. They contribute to Wikipedia simply because they want to share their knowledge. Encyclopedias began in ancient times as collections of writings about all aspects of human knowledge. The word itself comes from ancient Greek, and means “a complete general education”. Real popularity for encyclopedias came in the nineteenth century in Europe and the United States, with the publication of encyclopedias written for ordinary readers. With the invention of the CDROM, the same amount of information could be put on a few computer discs. Then with the Internet, it became possible to create an online encyclopedia that could be constantly updated, like Microsoft’s Encarta. However, even Internet-based encyclopedias like Encarta were written by paid experts. At first, Wikipedia, the brainchild of Jimmy Wales, a businessman in Chicago, was not so different from these. In 2001, he had the idea for an Internet-based encyclopedia that would provide information quickly and easily to everyone. Furthermore, that information would be available free, unlike other Internet encyclopedias at that time. But Wales, like everyone else, believed that people with special knowledge were needed to write the articles, and so he began by hiring experts. He soon changed his approach, however, as it took them a long time to finish their work. He decided to open up the encyclopedia in a radical new way, so that everyone would have access not only to the information, but also to the process of putting this information online. To do this, he used what is known as “Wiki” software (from the Hawaiian word for “fast”), which allows users to create or alter content on web page. The system is very simple: When you open the web site, you can simply search for information or you can log on to become a writer or editor of articles. If you find an article that interests you – about your hometown, for example – you can correct it or expand it. This process goes on until no one is interested in making any more changes. Question 51: Wikipedia is a(n) ___________ . A. book B. journal C. article D. dictionary Question 52: Wikipedia is written by___________. A. paid written B. millionaires C. normal people D. world experts Question 53: The phrase “these writers” in the first paragraph refers to _______. A. ordinary readers B. ordinary people C. encyclopedia experts D. every subject Question 54: The phrase “the word” in the second paragraph refers to ________. A. knowledge B. encyclopedia C. writing D. collection Question 55: Microsoft’s Encarta is cited in the passage as an example of _______. A. CD-ROM dicitonary B. printed encyclopedia C. online encyclopedia D. updateable online encyclopedia Question 56: The word “brainchild” in the 2nd paragraph of the passage can be best replaced by_____. A. born B. child C. product D. father Question 57: The word “approach” in the third paragraph of the passage means________..

(372) A. idea B. time C. method writing Question 58: The user of Wikipedia can do all of the following EXCEPT__________. A. have access to information B. determinate the website C. modify information edit information Question 59: We can say that Jimmy Wales _______. A. became very famous after the formation of Wikipedia B. is the father of. D.. D.. Wikipedia C. made a great profit from Wikipedia D. decides who can use Wikipedia Question 60: Wiki software enables _______. A. exchanging articles B. a purchase of information C. limited access D. editing Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 61 to 70 Fiberscopes are one of the most are one of the most important outcomes of he science of fiber optics. Fibers made of glass and transparent acrylic plastic are capable of conveying light energy, and when thousands of these fibers are combined in what is called a fiberscope, they can transmit images. The most common fiberscopes contain about 750,000 fibers, each 0.001 centimeter, or 10 microns, in diameter. For certain uses, the diameter of the fiber may be as small as 5 microns. Fiberscopes have a wide range of applications. In the medical field, physicians use fiberscopes to examine internal organs and as an aid in delicate surgeries. Miniature probes have also been developed to view muscle fiber, skin tissue, and blood cells. Fiberscopes have also found varied uses in industry, particularly to inspect or control operations in inaccessible areas. Bundles of fiberscopes fused together in a solid plate, called a faceplate, are being used in the manufacture of television tubes and other cathode-ray tube devices. The most far reaching applications of fiber-optic technology are in communication. Optical fibers carry voice messages for telephone service. The sound of the voice is electronically broken down into thousands of pulses per second, which causes a transmitting laser to send coordinated pulses of light through the optical fibers. At the receiving end, the light pulses are converted to electrical signals and the voice message is reconstructed. Light-wave communication systems can handle an immensely greater number of telephone calls and television programs than the current system, and they will form the basis of the “electronic superhighway” expected to crisscross the nation in the near future of the information age. Question 61: How do optical fibers carry voice message? A. By fusing bundles of fiberscopes into a faceplate B. By converting electrical signals to light pulses C. By sending coordinated electrical pulses through optical fibers D. By using cathode-ray tube devices. Question 62: The word inaccessible in line 9 means____. A. difficult to find B. extremely small C. hard to reach D. impossible to climb Question 63: It can be inferred from the passage that fiberscopes____. A. have more uses in industry than in medicine B. will play a major role in the information age C. will decrease in importance as they become more common D. have reached the peak of their development Question 64: Where in the passage does the author discuss the uses of miniature probes in medicine? A. lines 2-7 B. lines 6-8 C. lines 14-16 D. lines 17-19 Question 65: The main topic of the passage is____..

(373) A. The birth of the “electronic superhighway” B. The various applications of fiber-optic technology C. How fiberscopes have enhanced the field of medicine D. How sound may be transformed into light Question 66: As used in line 18, the word they refers to____. A. fiberscopes B. light-wave communication systems C. television programs D. television calls Question 67: The word converted in line 15 is closest in meaning to____. A. transferred B. transformed C. transmitted D. changed Question 68: The word coordinated in line 14 is closest in meaning to____. A. separated B. organized C. transformed D. deconstructed Question 69: Fiberscopes are being used to do all of the following EXCEPT____. A. assist in delicate surgeries B. control operations in inaccessible areas C. convert light pulses to electrical signals D. transmit images Question 70: The passage will most likely be followed by a discussion of____. A. homes and businesses of the future B. the structure of fiberscopes C. additional uses of fiberscopes in industry D. the use of fiber optics in the electronic superhighway. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase to fill in the blank in the following passage from 71 to 80. Why do people like to chew gum? Some people say they like the taste (71)___ say they can think better if they chew gum. Some people chew it when they have some boring work to (72)___.Others chew gum when they are nervous. Gum is a (73)___ of things. For many years gum companies made gum from chicle. Chicle is a natural gum from a tree in Mexico and Central America. Now companies use plastic and rubber made from petroleum (74)___ of chicle. Gum must be soft (75)___ you can chew it. A softener keeps it soft. The gum company makes the softener from vegetable oil. A sweetener makes the gum sweet. The sweetener is usually sugar. Then the company (76)___ the flavor. Thomas Adams made the first gum from chicle in 1836. (77)___, chewing gum was not new. The Greeks chewed gum from a tree (78)___ 2,000 years ago. Mayan Indians in Mexico chewed chicle. Indians in the Northeastern United States taught Europeans to chew gum from a tree there. People first made bubble gum in 1928. Children like to (79)___ bubble with bubble gum. Some university students do (80)___. Question 71: A. The other B. Others C. The others D. Other Question 72: A. make B. get C. do D. carry Question 73: A. mixture B. roll C. fix D. connection Question 74: A. aside B. apart C. inside D.. instead Question 75: A. so that that Question 76: A. puts Question 77: A. However Question 78: A. more D. than. B. then B. places B. More B. over. C. for C. adds C. But. D. D. fits D. Though C. above.

(374) Question 79: A. turn. B. set. C. pass. D.. blow Question 80: A. so. B. too C. then ----THE END---. D. same. ĐỀ SỐ 50: SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC ĐỀ THI THỬ THQG NĂM 2015 TRƯỜNG THPT LIỄN SƠN MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH – ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 193 (ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT) Thời gian: 90 phút I. Read the following text then answer the questions that follow by marking its corresponding letter A, B, C, or D in your answer sheet. Upon the creation of the United States, one of the core concepts which the hopes for the new democracy were pinned was the ideal that its citizens would be enlightened individuals with clearly articulated rights and the opportunity for individual achievement and education. It was believed that in a free nation where the power belongs to the people, the commitment to education defines the progress of that democracy and is the catalyst for future progress. This core value has not only stood the test of time but has also grown in importance. In this new Information Era and international economy, education is an increasingly vital commodity, a precursor of potential success and a driving force of chance. It is important to recognize, however, that we approach education today differently than in the past, partly because the kinds of jobs people had didn’t require the kind of basic education and specialized training that is often required in the workforce today. In the 1950s, for instance, only 20 percent of American jobs were classified as professional, 20 percent as skilled; and 60 percent as unskilled. Today, our world has changed. The proportion of unskilled jobs has fallen to 20 percent, while jobs now account for at least 60 percent of the workforce. Even more important, almost every job today increasingly requires a combination of academic knowledge and practical skills that require learning throughout a lifetime. 01. The passage shows the percentage of jobs that require higher training in the US____ between 1950s and now. A. has changed dramatically B. has been reversed C. has changed slightly D. has remained the same 02. Which of the following titles would be best for the passage?. A. The Significant Role of Education in American Citizens’ Careers. B. Education and Jobs in the Past and at Present in the United States. C. Recent Changes of Educational and Vocational Systems in America. D. Academic Knowledge and Practical Skills in American Professions. 03. In order to become a good American citizen today, in the author’s point of view, any individual must ____. A. move actively forward in the new Information Era and international economy with a prestigious diploma. B. understand thoroughly the combination of academic knowledge and practical skills.. C. know well all his/her rights and be ready to grasp his/her opportunity of success in life. D. study carefully the history of American educational and vocational systems even since their creation. 04. The phrase “enlightened individuals” in the first sentence most likely means “people who _____.”.

(375) A.. bring light to anywhere they go public C. have often been well-exposed to light. B.. always appear brilliant-looking in. D. have acquired an adequate level. of education 05. Education is defined in this passage as a driving force of chance because _________. A. education has helped to bring about and orient most changes in the American workforce. B. the government of the United States wants to drive social changes in their own ways. C. any American citizen who wants to changes his driving license must be very well-educated. D. without education, no changes could have happened in American society so far. II. Choose from the four options given (marked A, B, C, and D) one best answer to complete each of the following incomplete sentences by marking its corresponding letter A, B, C, or D in your answer sheet. 06. Never before ______ as accelerated as they are now during the technological age. A. have been historical changes B. historical changes have been C. have historical changes been D. historical have changes been 07. The police wanted to know _____. A. what was into the parcel. B. that was in the parcel. C. that in the parcel was. D. what was in the parcel. 08. ______, he felt so unhappy and lonely. A. Rich as he was B. Despite of his wealth C. Rich as was he D. Despite he was so rich 09. Peter asked me ______. A. what time the film started B. what time does the film start C. what time did the film start D. what time the film starts 10. She never ate or slept properly _____. A. after her husband dies. B. when her husband died. C. after her husband died. D. at her husband’s death 11. I didn’t know that _____. A. do you appeal by classical music. B. you appealed to classical music. C. classical music appealed to you D. did you appeal to classical music. 12. She will be ill ______. A. unless she takes a few days’ rest B. provided she takes a few days’ rest C. in case she takes a few days’ rest D. if she takes a few days’ rest 13. _____, I have continued to work on my thesis. A. Even though there are problems. B. In spite of there are problems. C. Although all these problems. D. Despite all these problems. 14. ______ as taste is really a composite sense made up of both taste and smell. A. What we refer to B. What do we refer to C. That we refer to it D. To which we refer 15. _____ but he also wants to marry her. A. Not only does he love her, B. Not he only loves her, C. Not only he loves her, D. He not only loves her, III. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions..

(376) Telling the Whole Food Truth As a teacher of whole-food vegetarian cookery, I do feel a certain sympathy with the ‘Men for Meat’ group. There is both confusion and just plain, unappetizing cooking in this area, when a whole-food/ vegetable diet should and can be highly nutritious and utterly delicious. The words ‘whole-food’ and ‘vegetarian’ are not synonymous: vegetarians do not eat any ‘fish, flesh or fowl’. Most eat dairy products. Those who don’t are called vegans. I tell students not to turn vegetarian until they have become knowledgeable about nutrition, and especially about protein. It’s very easy to become a sick vegetarian. And a whole-food diet just consists of eating the whole of food, with nothing added, and nothing taken away. For example, you eat whole-wheat flour, not white flour, which has had had bleach added. In all, no refined carbohydrates are eaten and very fatty and additive-laden foods are avoided and the stress is on fresh products of the best quality. And that’s all - except you must then find recipes which are both healthy and delicious because you’ll have to cook it all yourself. Very few ready-bought meals fulfill both requirements. 16. ‘Men for Meat’ is a _____. A. group that eat all kinds of food B. group of vegetarians C. cookery group D. group of men 17. A whole food diet _____. A. has a lot of nutrition B. is often fresh C. is easy to eat D. is added with flour. 18. The writer of this article feels a ‘certain sympathy’ for this group because _____. A. They don’t know much about vegetarian cooking B. “whole food” and “vegetarian” are not the same. C. She is a vegetarian. D. her students do not eat meat. 19. According to the writer, what is wrong with ready bought meals for vegetarians? A. They can’t be both healthy and delicious. B. They can be cooked easily. C. They contain some additives. D. They have best quality. 20. What is NOT true about the writer? A. She supports the whole food. B. She is a teacher. C. She is a vegetarian. D. She dislikes ready bought meal IV. Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest of the same group. Identify your answer by marking its corresponding letter A, B, C, or D in your answer sheet. 21. A. sacred B. hatred C. looked D. crooked 22. A. wicked B. washed C. laughed D. booked 23. A. tables B. forks C. beds D. windows V. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 24. The children were playing last night outdoors when it began to rain very hard. A. were playing B. last night outdoors C. began D. very hard 25. Despite his smiling face, the second-place contestant is more sadder than the winner. A. more sadder B. Despite C. smiling D. the second-place contestant 26. Children enjoy telling and listening to ghosts stories, especially on Halloween night. A. ghosts stories B. telling and listening C. especially D. on Halloween night.

(377) 27. The work performed by these people are not worth our paying them any longer. A. by these people B. worth our paying C. any longer D. are 28. We wish today was sunny so that we could spend the day in the country communing with nature.. A. was. B. could spend C. so that D. in the country 29. Catherine is studying law at the university, and so does John. A. so does John B. at the university C. law D. studying 30. The food that Mark is cooking in the kitchen is smelling delicious. A. is smelling B. The food C. is cooking D. delicious VI. Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from the rest of the group. Identify your answer by marking its corresponding letter A, B, C, or D in your answer sheet. 31. A. recent B. prevent C. remote D. receive 32. A. opposite B. endanger C. geography D. geometry 33. A. community B. considerate C. circumstance D. photographer 34. A. anthem B. attend C. appear D. apply 35. A. scenery B. festival C. location D. atmosphere VII. Choose from the four options given (marked A, B, C, and D) the one that is the nearest meaning to each of the given sentences by marking its corresponding letter A, B, C, or D in your answer sheet. 36. David drove so fast; it was very dangerous. A. David drove so fast, which was very dangerous. B. David drove so fast that was very dangerous. C. David drove so fast and was very dangerous. D. David drove so fast, then was very dangerous. 37. “Shall I make you a coffee?” the girl said to the lady. A. The girl promised to make a coffee for the lady. B. The girl wanted to make a coffee for the lady. C. The girl offered to make a coffee for the lady. D. The girl refused to make a coffee for the lady. 38. The captain to his men: “Abandon the ship immediately!” A. The captain suggested his men abandon the ship immediately. B. The captain ordered his men to abandon the ship immediately. C. The captain requested his men to abandon the ship immediately. D. The captain invited his men to abandon the ship immediately. 39. No sooner had she put the telephone down than her boss rang back. A. Hardly she had hung up, she rang her boss immediately. B. She had hardly put the telephone down without her boss rang back. C. As soon as her boss rang back, she put down the telephone. D. Scarcely had she put the telephone down when her boss rang back 40. The critics undervalued his new book. A. The critics had a low opinion of his new book. B. critics turned down his new book.. The.

(378) C.. The critics rejected his new book. D. The critics were fed up with his new book. VIII. Choose from the four options given (marked A, B, C, and D) one best answer to complete each of the gaps in the text below by marking its corresponding letter A, B, C, or D in your answer sheet. Ever since humans have inhabited the earth, they have made (41)_____ of various forms of communication. Generally, this expression of thoughts and feelings has been in the form of oral (42)_____. When there is a language (43)_____, communication is accomplished through sign language in which motions (44)_____ for letters, words, and ideas. Tourists, the deaf, and the mute have had to (45)____ to this form of expression. Many of these symbols of whole words are very picturesque and exact and can be used internationally; spelling, however, cannot. Body language (46)_____ ideas or thoughts by certain actions, either intentionally or unintentionally. A wink can be a way of flirting or indicating that the party is only joking. A nod (47)____ approval, while shaking the head (48)____ a negative reaction. Other forms of nonlinguistic language can be (49)____ in Braille (a system of raised dots read with the fingertips), signal flags, Morse code, and smoke signals. Road maps and picture signs also guide, warn, and instruct people. (50)_____ verbalization is the most common form of language, other systems and techniques also express human thoughts and feelings. 41. A. usage B. use C. utility D. employment 42. A. speech B. claims C. utterance D. address 43. A. separation B. barrier C. divisions D. obstacles 44. A. imply B. signify C. stand D. point 45. A. resort B. rotate C. revolve D. refer 46. A. progresses B. transmits C. remits D. emits 47. A. presents B. signs C. signifies D. registers 48. A. predicates B. indicates C. abdicates D. implicates 49. A. found B. trailed C. explored D. traced 50. A. Until B. While C. Because D. As IX. Choose from the four options given (marked A, B, C, and D) one best answer to complete each of the following incomplete sentences. Identify your answer by marking its corresponding letter A, B, C, or D in your answer sheet. 51. According to a recent survey, most people are on good_____ with their neighbours. A. terms B. relations C. acquaintance D. relationships 52. - “Today’s my 20th birthday.” - “______”. A.. I don’t understand. B. Many happy returns! C. Have a good time! care! 53. - “Is it all right if I use your bike?” - “______” A. Oh, forget it. B. I accept it. C. Sure, go ahead. care. 54. Don’t touch that wire or you’ll get an electric ______. A. current B. shock C. charge 55. An eyewitness described how ten people_____ in the fire. A. had been killed B. had killed C. were killed been being killed. D.. Take. D.. I don’t. D.. fire. D.. had.

(379) 56. _____ provided a living for nearly 90 percent of the population of the American colonies. A. What farming B. Farming was what C. Farming was D. What was farming 57. “Can you ______ me a favor, Bill?” Peter said. A. do B. make C. get D. put 58. I can’t go with you today; I have_____ things to do. A. a great deal B. a great many C. great many D. many a great 59. But for their help, he_____. A. wouldn’t have failed B. has not failed C. would have failed D. has failed 60. There’s little ______ of foreign news in today’s paper. A. information B. coverage C. column D. article 61. Car crashes are almost always accidental, but on rare occasions they may be ______. A. deliberate B. determined C. aware D. meant 62. Nowadays children would prefer history ______ in more practical ways. A. be taught B. teach C. to be taught D. to teach 63. "______" - "What happened?" A. I had a bad day. B. How was your day? C. What did you do today? D. Have a nice day. 64. The old houses were ______ down to make way for a block of flats. A. knocked B. put C. banged D. hit 65. That pipe ______ for ages - we must get it mended. A. has been leaking B. had been leaking C. is leaking D. leaks 66. My car is getting unreliable; I think I'll trade it ______ for a new one. A. away B. off C. up D. in 67. My father hasn't had much ______ with my family since he moved to New York. A. connection B. meeting C. contact D. business 68. She was so frightened that she was shaking like_____. A. a leaf B. a flag C. jelly D. the wind 69. Ensure there is at least a 3cm space ______ allow adequate ventilation. A. in view of B. so as to C. so that D. with a view to 70. Anne: “Thanks for the nice gift!” John: “______” A. But do you know how much it costs? B. In fact, I myself don’t like it. C. I’m glad you like it. D. You’re welcomed. 71. The car had a(n) ______ tyre, so we had to change the wheel. A. cracked B. injured C. bent D. flat 72. I hadn’t realized she was English ______ she spoke. A. when B. only after C. in case D. until 73. Why don’t you ask the man where ______ to stay? A. he would like B. would he like C. he feels like D. he would rather 74. My brother ______ his driving test when he was 18..

(380) A.. has passed B. passes C. passed D. was passing 75. - “You look nervous! ______” - “This thunder scares me to death.” A. Why’s that? B. Come on! C. What’s wrong? D. How are you? 76. - “Would you like beer or wine?” - “______” A. I'd prefer beer, please. B. Yes, I'd love to. C. I couldn’t agree more. D. No, I've no choice. 77. _____ will Mr. Thanh be able to regain control of the company. A. Only with hard work B. Only if he works hardly C. Not until his work hard D. No matter how does he work hardly 78. You need more exercise - you should ______ jogging. A. carry out B. hold up C. take up D. try on 79. _______ that she burst into tears. A. She was so anger B. Her anger was such C. Such her anger was D. So angry she was 80. You should make a(n) ______ to overcome this problem. A. impression B. effort C. apology D. trial. ---------------THE END--------------.

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