De va dap an thi thu THPTQG nam 2019 mon Tieng Anh de so 3 truong NTBH

SỞ GD&ĐT LÀO CAI
TRƯỜNG PTDT NỘI TRÚ
THCS-THPT BẮC HÀ

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2019
Môn: TIẾNG ANH- Đề Số : 003
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions
Question 1: . hit
B. house
C. husband
D. hour
Question 2. A. recorded
B. combined
C. aimed
D. planned
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A.heavy
B. climate
C. severe
D. stormy
Question 4: A. position
B. requirement
C. athletic
D. fingertip
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
Question 5: _______little boy could remenber what he had read from_______ books

A. A/the
B. the/a
C. the / the
D.x / the
Question 6: If I had got up early, I _____ to have breakfast now.
A. have
B.I had
C. would have
D. would have had
Question 7: He was writing to his friend when he __________a noise.
A. was hearing
B. heard
C. had heard
D. hears
Question 8: _______there is a lot of noise in the city, I prefer living there.
A. despite
B. in spite of
C. becacuse of
D. though
Question 9: ____________, the witnesses were taken to an interview room.
A. On arrival at the police station
B. To have arrived at the police station
C. Just arrived at the police station
D. They had arrived at the police station
Question 10: “You’d better apologise for being late,” said my mother.
A. My mother advised me to apologise for being late.
B. My mother suggested me to apologise for being late.
C. My mother suggested apologising for being late.
D. My mother warned me to apologise for being late.
Question 11: A part-time job gives me the freedom to__________my own interests.

A. chase
B. seek
C. pursue
D. catch
Question 12: The faster we walk,………….. we will get there.
A. the soonest
B. the soon
C. the more soon D. the sooner
Question 13 Some people say that in the future the whole world will experience a period of
depression.
A. economics
B. economic
C. economical
D. economy
Question 14: Nobody knows who invited the wheel, ______?
A. do they
B. don’t they
C. does it
D. doesn’t it
Question 15: The scientific study of life and structure of plants and animals is
called__________
A. botany
B. biology
C. zoology
D. technology
Question 16: Born in a rich family, he has
for nothing all his life.
A. required
B. liked
C. needed

D. wanted
Question 17: He was said _________ this building.
A. designing
B. to have designed
C. to design
D. designed
Question 18: It was such a boring speech that I fell _________ .
A. asleep

B. sleep

C. sleepy

D. sleepily


Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word or phrase in each of the following questions.

Question 19: John, could you look after my handbag while I go out for a minute.
A. take part in
B. take over
C. take place
D. take care of
Question 20: A revolution in women's fashion during the second half of the twentieth century
made trousers acceptable for almost all activities.
A. available
B. permissible
C. attractive
D. ideal

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word or phrase in each of the following
questions.
Question 21: I think I don’t have much time to dip into the story.
A. read slowly
B. read carefully
C.read badly
D. read quickly
Question 22: His extravagant ideas were never brought to fruition.
A. impressive
B. exaggerated
C. unacceptable D. feasible
Circle the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable
response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 23: Thanh and Nadia are talking about their classmate. Choose the most suitable
response to fill in the blank in the following exchange.
- Thanh: “Lan’s the best singer in our school.” - Nadia: “__________”
A.I can’t agree with you more!
B.Yes, please.
C.That’s OK!
D.Yes, tell me about it!
Question 24: Matthew is talking about Ann’s new schoolbag.
- Matthew: “You really have a beautiful schoolbag, Ann, I’ve never seen such a perfect thing
on you.
- Ann: “_______”
A. What a shame!
B. Oh, it’s not my favourite choice.
C. I don’t like your compliment.
D. Thanks. That’s nice compliment.
Read the following passage and circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or

phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29.
Our classes take place for three hours every morning from Monday to Friday. The
(25)_________ class size is twelve and the average is ten. We use modern methods
(26)_________ teaching and learning, and the school has a language laboratory, a video
camera and recorders. You will only be successful in improving your English; however, if you
work hard and practise speaking English as much as you can. You will take a short
(27)_________ in English as soon as you arrive. In this way, we can put you in a
(28)_________ at the most suitable level.
The emphasis is on oral communication practice in a wide (29)_________ of situations at the
advanced knowledge. You will learn how to use language correctly and appropriately when
you talk to native speakers. In addition, you will develop such study skills as reading
efficiently, writing articles and reports, and note-taking from books and lectures.
Question 25:
Question 26:
Question 27:
Question 28:
Question 29:

A. maximum
A. in
A. test
A. form
A. variety

B. minimum
B. of
B. exam
B. class
B. amount

C. small
C. on
C. course
C. grade
C. number

D. large
D. for
D. lesson
D. course
D. lot


Read the following passage and circle the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34.
Over the past 600 years, English has grown from a language of few speakers to
become the dominant language of international communication. English as we know it
today emerged around 1350, after having incorporated many elements of French that were
introduced following the Norman invasion off 1066. Until the 1600s, English was, for the most
part, spoken only in England and had not expanded even as far as Wales, Scotland, or Ireland.
However, during the course of the next two century, English began too spread around the
globe as a result of exploration, trade (including slave trade), colonization, and missionary
work. Thus, small enclaves of English, speakers became established and grew in various parts
of the world. As these communities proliferated, English gradually became the primary
language of international business, banking, and diplomacy.
Currently, about 80 percent of the information stored on computer systems worldwide is in
English. Two thirds of the world's science writing is in English, and English is the main
language of technology, advertising, media, international airport, and air traffic controllers.
Today there are more than 700 million English users in the world, and over half of these are
non-native speakers, constituting the largest number of non-native users than any other

language in the world.
Question 30: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. The number of non-native users of English.
B. The French influence on the English language.
C. The expansion of English as an international language.
D. The use of English for science and technology.
Question 31: In the first paragraph, the word "emerged" is closest in meaning to
A. appeared
B. hailed
C. frequented
D. engaged
Question 32: In the first paragraph, the word "elements" is closest in meaning to
A. declaration
B. features
C. curiosities
D. customs
Question 33: Approximately when did English begin to be used beyond England? ____
A. In 1066
B. around 1350
C. before 1600
D. after 1600
Question 34: According to the passage, all of the following contributed to the spread of
English around the world ______
A. the slave trade B. the Norman invasion C. missionaries
D. colonization
Read the following passage and circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
Scientists do not yet thoroughly understand just how the body of an individual
becomes sensitive to a substance that is harmless or even wholesome for the average person.
Milk, wheat, and egg, for example, rank among the most healthful and widely used foods.

Yet these foods can cause persons sensitive to them to suffer greatly. At first, the body of
the individual is not harmed by coming into contact with the substance. After a varying
interval of time, usually longer than a few weeks, the body becomes sensitive to it, and an
allergy has begun to develop.
Sometimes it’s hard to figure out if you have a food allergy, since it can show up in
so many different ways. Your symptoms could be caused by many other problems. You
may have rashes, hives, joint pains mimicking arthritis, headaches, irritability, or
depression. The most common food allergies are to milk, eggs, seafood, wheat, nuts, seeds,
chocolate, oranges, and tomatoes. Many of these allergies will not develop if these foods are
not fed to an infant until her or his intestines mature at around seven months. Breast milk
also tends to be protective.


Migraines can be set off by foods containing tyramine, phenathylamnine,
monosodium glutamate, or sodium nitrate. Common foods which contain these are
chocolate, aged cheeses, sour cream, red wine, pickled herring, chicken livers, avocados,
ripe bananas, cured meats, many Oriental and prepared foods (read the labels!). Some
people have been successful in treating their migraines with supplements of B-vitamins,
particularly B6 and niacin. Children who are hyperactive may benefit from eliminating food
additives, especially, colorings, and foods high in salicylates from their diets. A few of
these are almonds, green peppers, peaches, tea, grapes. This is the diet made popular by
Benjamin Feingold, who has written the book “Why your child is Hyperactive.” Other
researchers have had mixed results when testing whether the diet is effective.
Question 35: The topic of the passage is .
A. reactions to foods
B. food and nutrition
C. infants and allergies
D. a good diet
Question 36: According to the passage, the difficulty in diagnosing allergies to foods is due
to ___________.

A. the vast number of different foods we eat
B. the similarity of symptoms of the allergies to other problems
C. lack of a proper treatment plan
D. the use of prepared formula to feed babies
Question 37: The phrase “set off” is closest in meaning to .
A. relieved
B. identified
C. avoided
D. triggered
Question 38: What can be inferred about babies from this passage?
A. They can eat almost anything.
B. They should have a carefully restricted diet as infants.
C. They gain little benefit from being breast fed.
D. They may become hyperactive if fed solid food too early.
Question 39: The author states that the reason that infants need to avoid certain foods
related to allergies has to do with the infant’s___________.
A. lack of teeth
B. poor metabolism
C. underdeveloped intestinal tract
D. inability to swallow solid foods
Question 40: The word “these” refers to___________.
A. food addictives
B. food colorings
C. innutritious foods
D. foods high in salicylates
Question 41: Which of the following was a suggested treatment for migraines in the
passage?
A. Eating more ripe bananas
B. Avoiding all Oriental foods
C. Getting plenty of sodium nitrate

D. Using vitamin B
Question 42: According to the article the Feingold diet is NOT___________.
A. available in book form
B. verified by researchers as being consistently effective
C. beneficial for hyperactive children
D. designed to eliminate foods containing certain food addictives
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: Ocean currents that help transfer heat from the equator to the poles, thereby
A
B
C
creating more balanced global environment.
D


Question 44: Neither his parents nor his teacher are satisfied with his result when he was at
A
B
C
D
high school.
Question 45: She has been searching something in that book all morning, but she still hasn’t
A
B
C
found anything.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions

Question 46: He is poor, but he leads a dignified life.
A. Being poor, he must lead a dignified life B. He lives a dignified life despite his poverty.
C. His poverty leads to a dignified life.
D. He leads the poor to a dignified life.
Question 47: He last had his eyes tested ten months ago.
A. He had tested his eyes ten months before.
B. He had not tested his eyes for ten months then.
C. He hasn't had his eyes tested for ten months.
D. He didn't have any test on his eyes in ten months.
Question 48: He is proud of being the captain of the national football team.
A. He prides himself on being the captain of the national football team.
B. Being the captain of the national football team prides him.
C. He gives a pride in being the captain of the national football team.
D. The captain of the national football team is proud of him.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. Most of the classmates couldn't come. He invited them to the birthday party.
A. Most of the classmates invited to his birthday party couldn't come.
B. Most of the classmates he was invited to the birthday party couldn't come.
C. Most of the classmates that he invited them to the birthday party couldn't come.
D. Most of the classmates whom he invited to the birthday party couldn't come.
Question 50. He spent all his money. He even borrowed some from me.
A. As soon as he borrowed some money from me, he spent it all.
B. Not only did he spend all his money but he borrowed some from me as well.
C. Not only did he spent all his money but also he borrowed some from me.
D. Hardly had he borrowed some money from me when he spent it all.
---------------------________The end________
KEYS
1.D
11C

21D
31A
41C

2A
12D
22B
32B
42C

3C
13B
23A
33D
43B

4D
14C
24D
34B
44C

5C
15B
25A
35C
45B

6C
16D

26B
36A
46B

7B
17B
27A
37B
47C

8D
18A
28B
38A
48A

9A
19D
29A
39A
49D

10A
20B
30C
40C
50C