TUYỂN TẬP ĐỀ THI THỬ MÔN TIẾNG ANH KỲ THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2015 CÔ MAI PHƯƠNG (KÈM ĐÁP ÁN )

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ĐỀ
THI
THỬ
-‐
KỲ
THI
THPT
QUỐC
GIA
NĂM
2015

(CƠ
MAI
PHƯƠNG)

Mơn:
Tiếng
Anh

Thời
gian
làm
bài:
90
phút
(kể
cả
luận)

Mark

the
letter
A,
B,
C,
or
D
on
your
answer
sheet
to
indicate
the
word
whose

underlined
part
differs
from
the
other
three
in
pronunciation
in
each
of
the

following

questions.

Question
1:
A.
material
B.
crucial

Question
2:
A.
reign

B.
leisure

C.
partial

C.
neighbor

D.
financial

D.
vein

Mark
the
letter
A,
B,
C,
or
D
on
your
answer
sheet
to
indicate
the
word
that
differs

from

the
other
three
in
the
position
of
the
primary
stress
in
each
of
the
following
questions.

Question
3:
A.
equality

B.
available

C.
manufacture

D.
biography

Question
4:
A.
penalty

B.
attendance

C.
opponent

D.
adventure

Question
5:
A.
intensity

B.
congratulate

C.
philosophy

D.
entrepreneur

Mark
the
letter
A,
B,
C
or
D
on

your
answer
sheet
to
indicate
the
correct
answer
to
each

of
the
following
questions.

Question
6:
As
consumers’
response
to
traditional
advertising
techniques
declines,

businesses
are
beginning

____
new
methods
of
reaching
customers.

A.
to
develop

B.
develop

C.
it
developing

D.
the
development
that

Question
7:
Where’s

the
____
dress
that
your
grandma
gave
you?

A.
lovely
long
pink
silk

B.
lovely
pink
long
silk

C.
pink
long
lovely
silk

D.
long
pink
silk
lovely

Question
8:
His
handwriting
is
so
bad
I
can’t
make
____

what
he
has
written.

A.
up

B.
off

C.
out

D.
down

Question
9:
We
were
going
to
go
by
bus
but
in
the
end
we
____
because
Simon
gave
us
a
lift.

A.
needn’t

B.
didn’t
need
to
C.
needn’t
have

D.
needed
not
to

Question
10:
He
was
already
worried
lest
she
____
someone
what
had
happened.

A.
would
tell

B.
told

C.
might
have
told

D.
had
been
telling

Question

11:
____
saying
was
so
important
that
I
asked
everyone
to
stop
talking
and
listen.

A.
What
the
woman
was

B.
That
the
woman
was

C.
The
woman
was

D.
What
was
the
woman

Question
12:
To
plant
rice,
farmers,
____,
set
young
plants
in
the
mud.

A.
whose
bare
feet
wading
in
the
water

B.
water
wading
in
their
feet

C.
wading
in
the
water
in
their

bare
feet

D.
they
wade
with
bare
feet
in
the

water

Question
13:
Not
until
____
home
____
that
he
had
taken
someone
else's

bike.

A.
did
he
get/he
realized

B.
did
he
get/did
he
realize

C.
he
got/did
he
realize

D.
he
got/he
realized

Question
14:
I’d
rather
you
____
anything
for
tonight,
but
I
suppose
it’s
too
late
to
change

things

now.

1

A.
not
arrange

B.
didn’t
arrange

C.
hadn’t
arranged

D.
don’t
arrange

Question
15:
-‐
“Have
you
seen

the
price
of
petrol
these
days?”

-‐
“____”

A.
I’m
amazing,
aren’t
I?

B.
Isn’t
it
great?

C.
It’s
amazing,
isn’t
it?

D.
What
a
lot
of
petrol?

Question
16:

_____,
they
slept
soundly.

A. Hot
though
was
the
night
air

B. Hot
though
the
night
air
was

C. Hot
the
night
air
as
was

D. Hot
although
the
nigh

air
was

Question
17:
-‐
"I
apologize
for
keeping
you
waiting
for
2
hours.
My
car
broke
down
on
the

way."

-‐
"____."

A.
Your
apology
is
accepted

B.
You
are

welcome

C.
Thank
you

D.
It's
my
pleasure

Question
18:
When
the
U.S.
and
England
proclaimed
war
against
Iraq,
the
anti
war
protesters

all

around
the
world
____
practically
all
the
roads
to
the
famous
squares.

A.
set
up

B.
took

over

C.
turned
over

D.
blocked
off

Question
19:

I

don't
think
this
record
will
ever
____.

A.
get
out

B.
run
off

C.
catch
on

D.
put
down

Question
20:

It

was
too
late
to
____
of
the
contract.

A.
back
up

B.
back
down

C.
back
out

D.
back
away

Question
21:

I’m

_____a
complete
loss
to
understand
why
you
reacted
so
violently

A. at

B. in

C. on

D. by

Question
22:
After
hours
of
bargaining
with
the
salesman,
Jake
bought

the
jacket
for
a_____
of

the
original
price.

A. fraction

B. piece

C. part

D. spot

Question
23:
Amelia
Earhart
____history
in1928
when
she
became
the
first
woman

to
fly

across
the
Atlantic

A. fixed

B. made

C. prepared

D. did

Question
24:
The
Avicenna
Partnership
is
a
______
company
with
a
long
and
successful
sales

history.

A. respectable

B. respectful

C. respecting

D. respective

Mark
the
letter
A,
B,
C
or
D
on
your
answer
sheet
to
indicate
the
word(s)
SIMILAR

in

meaning
to
the
underlined
word(s)
in
each
of
the
following
questions.

Question
25:
Living
in
the
central
Australian
desert
has
its
problems,
of
which
obtaining

water

is
not
the
least.

A.
getting

B.
storing

C.
purifying

D.
controlling

Question
26:
The
Industrial
Revolution
marked
the
beginning
of

an
epoch
of
exodus
from

rural
areas
to
cities.

A.
migration

B.
period

C.
episode

D.
story

Question
27:
The
government
is
subsidizing
the

ship
building
industry.

A.
ending

B.
creating

C.
aiding

D.
improving

Question
28:
We
had
to
list
the
chronology
of
events
in
World
War

II
on
our
test.

2

A.
disaster

B.
discrepancy

C.
catastrophe

D.
time
sequence

Question
29:
The
price
of
gasoline
fluctuates
daily.

A.
spin
out

of
control

B.
run
faster

C.
change
frequently

D.

disappear

Mark
the
letter
A,
B
C
or
D
on
your
answer
sheet
to
indicate
the
underlined
part

that
needs
correction
in
each
of
the
following
questions:

Question
30:
Digital
clocks,
however
precise,
(A)
they
cannot
be
(B)
perfectly
accurate

because
(C)
the
earth’s
rotation
changes
(D)
slightly
over
years.

Question
31:
At
the
Hermitage,
Andrew
Jackson’s
home

in
Tennessee,
even
his
glasses
(A)

have
been
left
(B)
exactly
where
he
(C)
lay
(D)
them.

Question
32:
The
officials
of
the
Board

of
Elections
asked
that
each
voter
(A)
present
(B)
their

registration
card
and
a
valid
Texas
(C)
driver’s
license
before
(D)
receiving
a
ballot.

Question
33:

(A)
Someone
who
has
ever
tried
(B)
to
pick
up
spilled
mercury
will
(C)
agree

that
this
element
is
hard
(D)
to
handle.

Question
34:
Jaguarundis

are
sleek,
(A)
long-‐tailed
creatures
(B)
colored
either
(C)
an

uniform
reddish
brown
(D)
or
dark
grey.

Read
the
following
passage
and
mark
the
letter
A,

B,
C,
or
D
on
your
answer
sheet
to

indicate
the
correct
word
or
phrase
that
best
fits
each
of
the
numbered
blanks.

(35)
____
history,
women
have

always
aimed
for
a
recognized
place
in
(36)
____.
Guided
by
their

own
(37)
____
of
knowledge
and
expertise,
women
like
Marie
Curie
in
science,
Mary

Wollstonecraft
in

literary
writing,
Simone
de
Beauvois
in
philosophical
existentialist
debate,

and
Marie
Stopes
in
medicine,
to
name
a
few,
have
brought
about
(38)____
awareness
of
the

role
of
the

women
in
any
walks
of
life.
These
women
have
helped
redefine
and
(39)____
the

nature
of
women’s
place
in
society.
Today
the
(40)____
of
global
women’s
organizations
and

the
impact
of
women’s
contributions
(41)____
society
show
that
progress
has
been
made
and

the
progress
in
furthering
the
role
of
women
in
society
has
been
some
benefit
to

the
(42)____

woman.
It
is
true
to
say
that
not
all
women
have
the
same
need.
The
need
of
the
woman
who

stays
at
home
and
(43)____
children

will
differ
widely
from
the
woman
who
works
outside.

Nonetheless,
in
the
extensive
field
of
equal
opportunities,
it
would
be
good
to
know
that

access
is
given
to

both
with
equal
measure
according
to
the
true
value
of
respective
abilities.
It

also
would
be
good
to
know
that
the
woman
at
home
is
recognized
as
a
valued

(44)____
of

society
just
as
much
as
the
one
who
deals
on
business
outside
the
home.

Question
35:
A.
Among

B.
Throughout

3

C.
During

D.
Upon

Question
36:
A.
society

B.
social

C.
socialize

D.
socialist

Question

37:
A.
region

B.
farm

C.
field

D.
path

Question
38:
A.
a

B.
an

C.
the

D.
(no
article)

Question
39:
A.
gain

B.
encourage

C.
force

D.
consolidate

Question
40:
A.
right

B.
belief

C.
limit

D.
spread

Question
41:
A.
on

B.
for

C.
to

D.
at

Question
42:
A.
own

B.
private

C.
individual

D.
personal

Question
43:
A.
rises

B.
raises

C.
increases

D.
lift

Question
44:
A.
party

B.
competitor

C.
partner

D.
member

Read
the

following
passage
and
mark
the
letter
A,
B,
C
or
D
on
your
answer
sheet
to

indicate
the
correct
answer
to
each
of
the
questions
from
45
to
54.

Line

1

Music
can
bring
us
to
tears
or
to
our
feet,
drive
us
into
battle
or
lull
us
to
sleep.

Music
is
indeed
remarkable
in
its
power
over
all
humankind,
and
perhaps
for
that

every
reason,
no
human
culture
on
earth
has
ever
lived
without
it.

From
discoveries

made
in
France
and
Slovenia
even
Neanderthal
man,
as
long
as
53,000
years
ago,

5
had
developed
surprisingly
sophisticated,
sweet-‐sounding
flutes
carved
from

animal
bones.
It
is
perhaps
then,
no
accident
that
music
should
strike
such
a
chord

with
the
limbic
system
–
an
ancient
part
of
our

brain,
evolutionarily
speaking,
and

one
that
we
share
with
much
of
the
animal
kingdom.
Some
researchers
even

propose
that
music
came
into
this
world

long
before
the
human
race
ever
did.
For

10
example,
the
fact
that
whale
and
human
music
have
so
much
in
common
even

though
our
evolutionary

paths
have
not
interested
for
nearly
60
million
years

suggests
that
music
may
predate
humans.
They
assert
that
rather
than
being
the

inventors
of

music,
we
are
latecomers
to
the
musical
scene.

Humpback
whale
composers
employ
many
of
the
same
tricks
that
human

15
songwriters

do.
In
addition
to
using
similar
rhythms,
humpbacks
keep
musical

phrases
to
a
few
seconds,
creating
themes
out
of
several
phrases
before
singing
the

next
one.
Whale
songs
in
general
are
no
longer
than
symphony
movements,
perhaps

because
they
have
a
similar
attention
span.
Even
though
they
can
sing
over
a

range

of
seven
octaves,
the
whales
typically
sing
in
key,
spreading
adjacent
notes
no

20
farther
apart
than
a
scale.
They
mix
percussive
and
pure
tones

in
pretty
much
the

same
ratios
as
human
composers
–
and
follow
their
ABA
form,
in
which
a
theme
is

presented,
elaborated
on
and

then
revisited
in
a
slightly
modified
form.
Perhaps

most
amazing,
humpback
whale
songs
include
repeating
refrains
that
rhyme.
It
has

been
suggested
that
whales

might
use
rhymes
for
exactly
the
same
reasons
that
we

25
do:
as
devices
to
help
them
remember.
Whale
songs
can
also
be
rather
catchy.
When

a
few
humpbacks
from
the
Indian
Ocean
strayed
into
the
Pacific,
some
of
the
whales

they
met
there
quickly
changed
their
tunes
–
singing
the
new
whales’

songs
within

three
short
years.
Some
scientists
are
even
tempted
to
speculate
that
a
universal

music
awaits
discovery.

4

Question
45:
Why
did
the
author
write
the
passage?

A.
To
describe
the
music
for
some
animals,
including
humans

B.
To
illustrate
the
importance
of
music

to
whales

C.
To
show
that
music
is
not
a
human
or
even
modern
invention

D.
To
suggest
that
music
is
independent
of
life
forms
that
use
it

Question
46:
The
word
“sophisticated”
in
line
5
is
closest
in
meaning
to:

A.
compound

B.
attractive

C.
well-‐developed

D.
beautiful

Question
47:
The
word
“one”
in
line
7
can
be
replaced
by:

A.
the
chord

B.
the
left
brain

C.
the
right
brain

D.
the
limbic
system

Question
48:
According
to
the
passage,
which
of
the
following
is
true

of
humpback
whales?

A.
Their
tunes
are
distinctively
different
from
human
tunes.

B.
They
can
sing
over
a
range
of
seven
octaves.

C.
They
do
not
use

rhyme,
unlike
humans.

D.
Whale
songs
of
a
particular
group
cannot
be
learned
by
other
whales.

Question
49:
The
word
“They”
in
line
18
refers
to:

A.

human
composers

B.
whole
songs

C.
octaves

D.
whales

Question
50:
Which
of
the
following
is
NOT
true
about
humpback

whale
music?

A.
It
uses
similar
patterns
to
human
songs.

B.
It’s
comparative
in
length
to
symphony
movements.

C.
It’s
easy
to
learn
by
other
whales.

D.
It’s
in
a
form
of
creating
a
theme,
elaborating
and
revisiting
in
rhyming
refrains.

Question
51:
The
word
“catchy”
in
line
24
is
closest
in
meaning
to:

A.
easy
to
catch

B.
easy
to
remember

C.
easy
to
read

D.
easy

to
think

Question
52:
Which
of
the
following
can
be
inferred
from
the
passage?

A.
The
earliest
human
beings
came
from

France
and
Slovenia.

B.
Music
helped
to
shape
the
whale
brain.

C.
Humpback
whales
imitate
the
way
human
composers
so
in
creating
their
own
music.

D.
The

research
of
musical
brain
will
lead
to
a
discovery
of
a
universal
music.

Question
53:
Where
in
the
passage
does
the
author
first
mention
whales?

A.
Lines
5-‐9

B.
Lines
10-‐14

C.
Lines
15-‐19

D.
Lines
20-‐24

Question
54:
The
word
‘their”
in
line
25
refers
to:

A.
Indian
Ocean
humpbacks

B.
Pacific
Ocean

humpbacks

C.
all
whales

D.
whale
songs

Read
the
following
passage
and
mark
the
letter
A,
B,
C
or
D
on
your
answer
sheet
to

indicate
the
correct

answer
to
each
of
the
questions
from
55
to
64.

The
food
we
eat
seems
to
have
profound
effects

on
our
health.
Although
science
has

made
enormous
steps
in
making
food
more
fit
to
eat,
it
has,
at
the
same
time,
made
many

foods
unfit
to
eat.

Some
research
has
shown
that
perhaps
eighty
percent
of
all
human
illnesses

are
related
to
diet
and
forty
percent
of
cancer
is
related
to
the
diet
as
well.,
especially

cancer
of

the
colon.
People
of
different
cultures
are
more
prone
to
contract
certain
illnesses
because
of

the
characteristic
foods
they
consume.

That
food
is
related
to
illness
is
not
a
new
discovery.
In
1945,
government
researchers

realized
that
nitrates
and
nitrites
(commonly

used
to
preserve
color
in
meat)
as
well
as
other

food
additives
caused
cancer.
Yet,
these
carcinogenic
additives
remain
in
our
food,
and
it

5

becomes
more
difficult
all
the
time
to
know
which
ingredients
on
the
packaging
labels
of

processed
food
are
helpful
or
harmful.

The
additives
that
we
eat
are
not
all
so
direct.
Farmers
often
give
penicillin
to
cattle
and

poultry,
and
because

of
this,
penicillin
has
been
found
in
the
milk
of
treated
cows.

Sometimes
similar
drugs
are
administered
to
animals

not
for
medicinal
purposes,
but
for

financial
reasons.
The
farmers
are
simply
trying
to
fatten
the
animals
in
order
to
obtain
a

higher
price
on
the
market.
Although

the
Food
and
Drug
Administration
(FDA)
has
tried

repeatedly
to
control
these
procedures,
the
practices
continue.

A
healthy
diet
is
directly
related
to
good
health.
Often
we
are
unaware
of
detrimental

substances
we
ingest.
Sometimes
well-‐meaning
farmers
or
others
who
do
not
realize
the

consequences
add
these
substances
to
food
without
our
knowledge.

Question
55.
How
has
science
done
a
disservice
to
people?

A:
The
scientists
have
preserved
the

color
of
meats,
but
not
of
vegetables.

B:
It
caused
a
lack
of
information
concerning
the
value
of
food.

C:
As
a
result
of
scientific
intervention,
some
potentially

harmful
substances
have
been
added

to
our
food

D:
Because
of
science,
disease
caused
by
contaminated
food
has
been
virtually
eradicated.

Question
56.
The
word
“prone”
is

nearest
in
meaning
to
______.

A:
healthy

B:
predisposed

C:
supine

D:
unlikely

Question
57.
What
are

nitrates
used
for?

A:
They
preserve
the
colour
of
meat.

B:
They
preserve
flavor
in
packaged
foods.

C:
They
are
the
objects
of
research.

D:
They
cause
the
animals
to
become

fatter.

Question
58.
FDA
means
______.

A:
Federal
Dairy
Additives

B:
Final
Difficult
Analysis

C:
Food
Direct
Additives

D:
Food
and
Drug
Administration

Question
59.
The
word

“these”
refers
to
______.

A:
nitrates
and
nitrites
B:
researchers

C:
meats

D:
colors

Question
60.
The
word
“carcinogenic”
is

closest
in
meaning
to
______.

A:
cancer-‐causing

B:
trouble-‐making

C:
money-‐making

D:

color-‐
retaining

Question
61.
All
of
the
following
statements

are
TRUE
except
______.

A:
Researchers
have
known
about
the
potential
hazards
of
food
additives
for
more
than
forty-‐
five
years

B:
Drugs
are
always
given
to
animals

for
medical
reasons

C:
Some
of
the
additives
in
our
food
are
added
to
the
food
itself
and
some
are
given
to
the

living
animals

D:
Food

may
cause
forty
percent
of
the
cancer
in
the
world

Question
62.
The
word
“additives”
is
closest
in
meaning
to
______.

A:
benign
substances

B:
added
substances

C:
natural
substances

D:
dangerous

substances

Question
63.
What
is
the
best
title
for
this
passage?

A:
Harmful
and
Harmless
Substances
in
Food.
B:
Avoiding

Injurious
Substances
in
Food.

C:
The
Food
You
Eat
Can
Affect
Your
Health.
D:
Improving
Health
through
a
Natural
Diet.

Question
64.
The
word
“
fit”
is
closest

in
meaning
to
______.

A:
tasty

B:
suitable

C:
athletic

D:
adaptable

6

WRITING

Part
I.
Finish
each
of
the
following
sentences
in
such
a
way
that
it
means
the
same
as
the

sentence
printed

before
it.

Question
65:
I
was
astonished
by
her
confidence.

à
What
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

Question
66:
I
don’t
really
like
her,
even
though
I
admire
her

achievements.

à
Much
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

Question
67:
He
speaks
more
persuasively
than
his
brother.

à
He
is
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

Question
68:

The
only

way
to
eliminate
world
terrorism
is
by
united
opposition.

à
Only
by
………………………………………………………………………………………………..

Question
69:
Someone
has
stolen
the
boss’s
car.

à

The
boss
………………………………………………………………………………………………

Part
II.
In
about
140
words,
write
a
paragraph
about
the
most
important
person
in
your

life.

....................................................................................................................................................................................

....................................................................................................................................................................................

....................................................................................................................................................................................

....................................................................................................................................................................................

....................................................................................................................................................................................

....................................................................................................................................................................................

....................................................................................................................................................................................

ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 2 KỲ THI THPTQG
- CÔ MAI PHƯƠNG Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underline part is
pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following question.
Question 1
A. reformed
B. appointed
C. stayed
D. installed
Question 2
A. banana
B. classmate
C. pagoda
D. camera
Question 3
A. caves
B. days
C. exams
D. marks
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in
the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 4
Question 5

A. mountaineer
A. arrival

B. philosopher
B. fortune

C. responsible
C. impatient

D. productive
D. enjoyable

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 6: We are talking about the writer______ latest book is one of the best-sellers this year
A. who
B. whom
C. which
Question 7: Governments shoud __________ international laws against terrorism.
A: bring about

B: bring in

C: bring up

D. whose
D: bring back

Question 8: “Don’t forget to take______ your shoes when you are in Japanese house.”
A. off
B. apart
C. in

D. up
Question 9: Anyone______ to order the book should send a cheque to the publishers.
A. wishes
B. wishing
C. wish
D. to wish
Question 10: Joe, remember that I’m __________ you to see that there’s no trouble at the party on Sunday.
A: relying on

B: waiting for

C: believing in

D: depending on

Question 11: “Excuse me. I’m your new neighbor. I just moved in.” “__________.”
A: Oh, I don’t think so

B: Where to, sir?

C: Sorry, I don’t know

D: I’m afraid not

Question 12: She had just enough time to __________ the report before the meeting.
A: get through

B: turn round

C: dip into

D: go into

Question 13: My grandmother takes______ for keeping the house.
A. probability
B. ability
Question 14: Last year she earned______ her brother.

C. possibility

D. responsibility

A. twice as much as
B. twice more than
C. twice as many as
Question 15: ______ but he also proves himself a good athlete.

D. twice as more as

A. Not only he showed himself a good student
B. He did not show himself only a good student
C. Not only did he show himself a good student
D. A good student not only showed himself
Question 16: ______ the fifth largest among the nine planets that make up our solar system.
A. The Earth being
B. The Earth is
C. That the Earth is
D. Being the Earth
Question 17: No matter______. Mozart was an accomplished composer while still a child.

A. how it seem remarkable
B. how remarkable it seems
C. it seem remarkable how
D. how seem it remarkable
Question 18: Look! The yard is wet. It______ last night.
A. couldn’t have rained
B. must rain
C. must have rained
D. should have rained
Question 19: There are two small rooms in the beach house, ______ served as a kitchen.
A. the smallest of which
B. the smaller of them
C. smallest of that
D. the smaller of which
Question 20: She was overjoyed because her article______
A. has been published
B. has published
C. had been published
Question 21: He left the country __________ arrest if he returned.
A: with threat of

B: in fear of

C: with fear of

D. had published

D: under threat of

Question 22: The former Olympic______ was invited to speak at a charity dinner.

A. champion
B. victory
C. trophy
Question 23: ______ that some areas may never recover.

D. triumph

A. such devastating were the floods
B. so were devastating the floods
C. It were such devastating the floods
D. so devastating were the floods
Question 24: A cooperative program between China and Germany on building Yangzhow, a famous
ancient city, into a(n) ________ city has proceeded smoothly since it started in September last year.
A: ecological-friendly

B: ecology-friendly

C: friendly-ecological

D: friendly ecology

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 25 . It was in 1971 that transatlantic supersonic transportation became commercially availability.
A: in

B: supersonic

C: became

D: availability

Question 26. My brother attends an university in the Midwest which specializes in astrology.

A: specializes

B: attends

C: an university

D: in astrology

Question 27. This new nice flat looks perfect for a young couple.
A: a

B: looks

C: perfect

D: new nice

Question 28. The most rapid expanding segment of the food industry is the freezing food segment.
A: rapid

B: food industry

C: expanding

D: freezing

Question 29. The Wright brothers, owner of a bicycle shop, used a number of bicycle parts to make
the original motorized plane.
A: owner

B: a number of

C: original

D: motorized

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 30. Staring at other people can sometimes be impolite.
A: Gazing steadily

B: Peeking carefully

C: Glancing briefly

D: Winking privately

Question 31. Thomas A. Edition was a celebrated American inventor in the 19th century.
A: an ingenious

B: an eminent

C: a successful

D: a creative

Question 32. In many parts of the world, talismans are used to ward off evil.
A: seek out

B: transcend

C: keep away

D: describe

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 33. On November 25, 1872, something dreadful happened on board of the brigantine Mary
Celeste, causing all crew members to hastily abandon the ship.
A: stay on

B: take care of

C: hold on

D: save for

Question 34. The motorist felt that the ticket for infraction was unwarranted.
A: conscientious

B: justified

C: inadvertent

D: inevitable

Read the following passage, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase for each of the blanks
Once upon a time, people left school or university, joined a company and stayed with it until they retired.
The concept of a job for life is now long (35) _______, and nowadays many employees find it hard to stay
loyal to their companies for even a relatively short period of time. According to a recent survey, this is
particularly (36) _______ in London, where more than half of those asked said that they constantly (37)
_______ one eye on other job opportunities, (38) _______ they are fairly happy in their existing jobs. A
high number of London workers say that they are always on the (39) _______, although they are content
and
motivated
in
their
current
position.
Job seekers find that the internet (40) _______ them with a quick and easy way to find out what’s
available, and 53 per cent said that they had applied for a job or (41) _______ with an employment agency
in the past 12 months. This proactive (42) _______ means that people can look for a perfect job match
with the (43) _______ of effort. But while this is good for job hunters, the growing lack of company
loyalty could (44) _______ up being a big problem for employers. Perhaps surprisingly, the biggest factor
attracting job seekers was not more money, but challenging and interesting work.
Question 35. A: done

B: finished

C: gone

D: over

Question 36. A: right

B: actual

C: real

D: true

Question 37. A: place

B: hold

C: keep

D: put

Question 38. A: as well

B: even if

C: so that

D: just as

Question 39. A: pursuit

B: lookout

C: watch

D: search

Question 40. A: delivers

B: provides

C: fulfils

D: serves

Question 41. A: recorded

B: engaged

C: registered

D: appointed

Question 42. A: custom

B: manner

C: style

D: approach

Question 43. A: least

B: lowest

C: minimum

D: smallest

Question 44. A: come

B: end

C: run

D: lead

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the question below.
The countryside of Britain is well known for its beauty and many contrasts: it bare mountains and
moorland, its lakes, rivers and woods, and its long, often wild coastline. Many of the most beautiful areas
are national parks and are protected from development. When Britain people think of the countryside they
think of farmland, as well as open spaces. They imagined cows or sheep in greenfield enclosed by hedges
or stone walls and field of wheat and barley. Most farmland is privately owned but is crossed by a network
of public footpaths.

Many people associate the countryside with peace and relaxation. They spend their free time walking
or cycling there, or go to the country for a picnic or a pub lunch. In summer people go to fruit farms and
pick strawberries and other fruit. Only a few people who live in the country work on farms. Many
commute to work in towns. Many others dream of living in the country, where they believe they would
have a better and healthier lifestyle.
The countryside faces many threats. Some are associated with modern farming practices, and the use of
chemical harmful to plants and wildlife. Land is also needed for new houses. The green belt, an area of
land around many cities, is under increasing pressure. Plans to build new roads are strongly opposed by

organizations trying to protect the countryside. Protesters set up camps to prevent, or at least delay the
building work.
America has many areas of wild and beautiful scenery, and there are many areas, especially in the West
in States like Montana and Wyoming, where few people living. In the New England states, such as
Vermont and New Hampshire, it is common to see small farm surrounded by hills and green areas. In
Ohio, Indianan, Illinoisan and other Midwestern states, field of corns or wheat reach to the horizon and
there are many miles between towns.
Only about 20% of Americans live outside cities and towns. Life may be difficult for people who live in
the country. Services like hospitals and schools may be further away and going shopping can mean
driving long distances. Some people even have to drive from their homes to the main road where their
mail is left in a box. In spite of the disadvantaged, many people who live in the country say that they like
the safe, clean, attractive environment. But their children often move to a town or city as soon as they can.
Question 45: We can see from the passage that in the countryside of Britain ______
A. none of the areas face the sea
B. most beautiful areas are not well preserved
C. only a few farms are publicly owned
D. it is difficult to travel from one farm to another.
Question 46: The word “enclosed” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to______
A. rotated
B. blocked
C. surrounded
D. embraced
Question 47: Which is NOT mentioned as an activity of relaxation in the countryside of Britain?
A. Riding a bicycle
B. Going swimming
C. Picking fruit
Question 48: What does the word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to______?

D. Going for a walk

A. Those who dream of living in the country
B. Those who go to fruit farm in summer
C. Those who go to country for a picnic
D. Those who commute to work in towns.
Question 49: Which of the following threatens the countryside in Britain?
A. The green belt around cities
B. Protest against building work.
C. Modern farming practices
D. Plants and wildlife
Question 50: The phrase “associated with” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to______
A. supported by
B. separated from
C. related to
D. referred to
Question 51: According to the passage, all of the following are true EXCEPT______
A. The green belt is under pressure because of the need for land.

B. The use of chemicals harms the environment of the countryside.
C. Camps are set up by protesters to stop the constructions of work.
D. All organizations strongly oppose plans for road construction.
Question 52: The phrase “reach to the horizon in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to______
A. are limited
B. are endless
C. are varied
D. are horizontal
Question 53: According to the passage, some Americans choose to live in country because______
A. Life there may be easier for them.
B. Hospitals, schools, shops are conveniently located there.
C. Their children enjoyed country life.

D. They enjoy the safe, clean, attractive environment there.
Question 54: Which of the following in NOT mentioned in the passage?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Towns in some Midwestern states in US are separated by long distances.
The majority of American people live in cities and towns.
Both British and American people are thinking of moving to the countryside.
Many British people think of the country as a place of peace and relaxation.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the question below.
Fleas are perfectly designed by nature to feast on anything containing blood. Like a shark in the water or a
wolf in the woods, fleas are ideally equipped to do what they do, making them very difficult to defeat. The
bodies of these tiny parasites are extremely hardy and well-suited for their job. A flea has a very hard
exoskeleton, which means the body is covered by a tough, tile-like plate called a sclerite. Because of these
plates, fleas are almost impossible to squish. The exoskeletons of fleas are also waterproof and shock
resistant, and therefore fleas are highly resistant to the sprays and chemicals used to kill them. Little
spines are attached to this plate. The spines lie flat against the flea’s thin, narrow body as the flea scurries
through an animal’s fur in search of food. However, if anything (like fingers or a self- grooming pet) tries
to pull a flea off through the hair coat, these spines will extend and stick to the fur like Velcro. Fleas are
some of the best jumpers in the natural world. A flea can jump seven inches, or 150 times its own length,
either vertically or horizontally. An equivalent jump for a person would be 555 feet, the height of the
Washington Monument. Fleas can jump 30,000 times in a row without stopping, and they are able to
accelerate through the air at an incredibly high rate—a rate which is over ten times what humans can
withstand in an airplane. Fleas have very long rear legs with huge thigh muscles and multiple joints. When
they get ready to jump, they fold their long legs up and crouch like a runner on a starting block. Several of
their joints contain a protein called resilin, which helps catapult fleas into the air as they jump, similar to

the way a rubber band provides momentum to a slingshot. Outward facing claws on the bottom of their
legs grip anything they touch when they land. The adult female flea mates after her first blood meal and
begins producing eggs in just 1 to 2 days. One flea can lay up to 50 eggs in one day and over 2,000 in her
lifetime. Flea eggs can be seen with the naked eye, but they are about the size of a grain of salt. Shortly
after being laid, the eggs begin to transform into cocoons. In the cocoon state, fleas are fully developed
adults, and will hatch immediately if conditions are favorable. Fleas can detect warmth, movement, and
carbon dioxide in exhaled breath, and these three factors stimulate them to emerge as new adults. If the
flea does not detect appropriate conditions, it can remain dormant in the cocoon state for extended periods.

Under ideal conditions, the entire life cycle may only take 3 weeks, so in no time at all, pets and homes
can become infested. Because of these characteristics, fleas are intimidating opponents. The best way to
control fleas, therefore, is to take steps to prevent an infestation from ever occurring.
Question 55. The primary purpose of the passage is to
A: educate the reader about the physical characteristics of fleas
B: explain why a flea infestation is hard to get rid of
C: compare fleas to other members of the animal kingdom
D: relate the problems that can result from a flea infestation
Question 56. The author’s tone in the passage is best described as
A: concerned

B: informative

C: opinionated

D: passionate

Question 57. According to the passage, fleas are resistant to sprays and chemicals because they
A: are excellent jumpers

B: can stick to fur like Velcro

C: have waterproof sclerites

D: reproduce very rapidly

Question 58. Fleas are difficult to squish because they have
A: resilin in their joints

B: sclerites

C: tough spines

D: All of the above

Question 59. According to the passage, which of the following statements is true?
A: The resilin found in fleas is used to make rubber bands.
B: Humans can jump higher if they consume foods containing resilin.
C: Fleas have the ability to jump higher than humans.
D: Fleas extend their little spines if threatened.
Question 60. According to the passage, fleas are able to jump
A: with a high rate of acceleration and up and down and from side to side
B: up and down and from side to side and because the blood they eat contains resilin
C: because the blood they eat contains resilin
D: with a high rate of acceleration
Question 61. Based on information in the passage, the reader can understand that
A: fleas will die without access to blood

B: fleas will die after they produce 2,000 eggs

C: fleas survive at a higher rate in outdoor habitats
D: newly hatched fleas are the size of a grain of salt
Question 62. The author mentions the Washington Monument in order to
A: illustrate a comparison made between fleas and humans
B: estimate the extreme distance that a flea is able to jump
C: demonstrate the superiority of fleas over humans
D: clarify a point made regarding fleas and acceleration
Question 63. It can be inferred that fleas will emerge from eggs as adults
A: if there is too much carbon dioxide in the cocoon
B: when they outgrow the cocoon
C: when they sense there is access to blood
D: after a period of 3 weeks
Question 64. Using the information in the passage as a guide, it can be concluded that
A: fleas have many physical advantages, although these are outweighed by their many disadvantages
B: humans do not pay much attention to fleas because they do not pose a serious threat
C: humans do not possess the physical characteristics of the flea because they have no use for them
D:fleas are designed in such a way as to give them unique physical advantages in life
WRITING
Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence
printed before it.
Question 65: “If I were you, I would take this chance for further study” he said to her.
à He ________________________________________________________________
Question 66: If I had worked harder, I would have passed the exam.
à As I _______________________________________________________________
Question 67: I used to have Peter mow the lawn on Saturday mornings.
à Peter often __________________________________________________________

Question 68: “I was not there at the time”, he said.
à He denied ___________________________________________________________

Question 69: “Sure, I will lend you my car this afternoon” Richard said to me.
à Richard agreed ___________________________________

__________________

Part II. In about 140 words, write a paragraph about the advantages of using public
transportation
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MOON.VN

–
CÔ
VŨ
MAI
PHƯƠNG
-‐

Mã
đề
thi:
175

ĐỀ
THI
THỬ
KỲ
THI
THPTQG
NĂM
2015

MÔN:
TIẾNG
ANH

LỚP:
12

Thời
gian
làm
bài:
90

phút,
không
kể
thời
gian
phát
đề

Đề
thi
có
6
trang,
gồm
64
câu
trắc
nghiệm
và
phần
tự
luận

Mark
the
letter
A,
B,
C,
or
D

on
your
answer
sheet
to
indicate
the
word
that
differs
from

the
rest
in
the
position
of
the
main
stress
in
each
of
the
following
questions.

Question
1.

A.
message

B.
device

C.
recent

D.
cherish

Question
2.

A.
agriculture

B.
architecture

C.
literature

D.
manufacture

Question
3.

A.
photography

B.
managerial

C.
discourteous

D.
incredible

Mark
the
letter
A,
B,

C,
or
D
on
your
answer
sheet
to
indicate
the
word
whose

underlined
part
differs
from
the
other
three
in
pronunciation
in
each
of
the
following

questions.

Question
4.

A.
markedly

B.
allegedly

C.
needed

D.
walked

Question
5.

A.
miles

B.
words

C.
accidents

D.
names

Mark
the
letter
A,
B,
C
or
D
on
your
answer
sheet
to
indicate
the
underline
part
that

needs
correcting.

Question
6:
Pollution
makes
streams,
lakes
and
(A)
coastal
water
(B)
unpleasant
to
look
at,

to
smell,
and
to
swim
in.
Fish
and
shellfish
(C)

harvested
from
polluted
waters
may
be

unsafe
(D)
to
eat.

Question
7:
A
(A)
finishing
(B)
motion
picture
is
(C)
the
work
of
the
collaboration
of
many

(D)
individuals.

Question
8:
Educational
films
are
(A)
made
for
schools,
training
films
for
industry;

documentary
films

(B)
present
(C)
fact
events
or
circumstances
of
social,

political,
or
(D)
historical
nature.

Question
9:
The
train
to
Ho
Chi
Minh
city
left
at
(A)
precisely
7
o’clock
(B)
as
usually,
but

the
train
to
Ha

Noi
capital
left
at
half
past
six
o’clock
,
(C)
which
was
(D)
exactly
20
minutes

late.

Question
10:
(A)
Whether
life
in
the
countryside

is
better
than
(B)
that
in
the
city
(C)

depend
on
each
individual’s
(D)
point
of
view.

Mark
the
letter
A,
B,
C,
or

D
on
your
answer
sheet
to
indicate
the
correct
answer
to
each
of

the
following
questions.

Question
11:
Many
an
environmentalist,
in
addition
to
many
economists,
_____
that

if
oil

supplies
_____
in
the
near
future,
we
would
find
it
hard
to
fulfil
our
energy
needs.

A.
believe
/
were
running
out

B.
believed
/

had
run
out

C.
believes
/
were
to
run
out

D.
believing
/
would
run
out

Question
12:
-‐
“What
do
you
think
of
football?”

-‐
"________"

A.
I
am
crazy
about
it.

B.
Well,
it's
beyond
my
expectation

C.
It's
none

of
my
business.

D.
Of
course,
football
players
are
excellent

Trang 1/7

Question
13:
______there
should
be
more
control
over
handguns
has
long
been
a
topic
of

debate
in
the
United
States.

A.
Whether

B.
If

C.
That

D.
Considering

Question
14:
The
professor,
along
with
his
students,
_____
the
meeting

held
in
Toronto
next

week.

A.
attends

B.
attend

C.
is
attending

D.
are
attending

Question
15
_____
ten
people
came
forward
of
their

own
accord.
Despite
this,
we
decided

not
to
recruit
more
participants.

A.
As
many
as

B.
Even
more
than
C.
Not
many
as

D.
As
few

as

Question
16:
The
thieves
may
have
made
their
_____
in
a
white
Mercedes
van.

A.
get-‐together

B.
get-‐out

C.
get-‐up

D.
getaway

Question

17:
One
of
their
two
sons
is
studying
to
be
a
doctor;
but_____
wants
to
be
a

musician.

A.
other

B.
another

C.
the
other

D.
others

Question
18:
The
UN
demanded

_____
from
Vietnamese
Eastern
waters.

A.
that
all
Chinese
troops
be
of
withdrawing

B.
all
Chinese
troops
to
withdraw

C.
that
all
Chinese
troops
withdraw

D.
all
Chinese
troops
that
they
withdraw

Question
19:
Jason
was
wearing
_____
at
the
party.

A.
a
yellow,
wide,

silk,
ridiculous
tie

B.
very
ridiculous
wide,
yellow,
silk
tie

C.
the
most
ridiculous
wide,
yellow,
silk
tie
D.
a
ridiculous
silk,
wide,
yellow
tie

Question
20:

Jim:
“You
really
have
a
good
game
today,
Jack!”

Jack:
“
________”.

A.
You

must
be
kidding.
It’s
terrible.

B.
Say
it
again.
I
like
to
hear
your
words.

C.
I
think
so.
I
am
proud
of
myself.

D.
Thank
you

too
much
for
saying
so.
That
is
a
nice
compliment.

Question
21:
I’m
afraid
I
can’t
help
you.
I
am
completely
_____
astrophysics.

A.
disinterested
in
B.
unfamiliar

to

C.
unaware
of

D.
ignorant
about

Question
22:
When
I
borrowed
his
book,
he
was
angry
as
if
_____
the
most
precious
thing
in

this

world.

A.
robbed
of

B.
he
had
been
robbed
from

C.
having
been
stolen

D.
to
have
been
stolen
of

Question
23:
The
reason
for

her
late
arrival
at
the
meeting
was
_____
a
traffic
jam.

A.
owing
to

B.
due
to

C.
a
result
of

D.
as
to

Question

24:
The
little
boy
did
nothing
but
_____
during
the
party.

A.
crying

B.
cry

C.
to
cry

D.
for
crying

Question
25:
One
of

the
areas
of
multimedia
that
is
growing
quickly______is
sound.

A.
yet
is
easily
overlooked

B.
it
is
easily
overlooked

C.
is
easily
overlooked

D.
that
is

easily
overlooked

Question
26:
Passengers
are
kindly
requested
to______smoking
in
the
gangways.

A.
refrain
from

B.
put
out
their

C.
give
up

D.
keep
out

of

Question
27:
Nobody
has
told
Jack
about
his
sack
yet,
________
?

A.
hasn’t
he

B.
have
they

C.
haven’t
they

D.
has
he

Question
28:
When
taking
the
exam,
make
sure
you
_____
the
same
amount
of
time
to
each

question.

A.
allocate

B.
appoint

C.
disperse

D.
distribute

Question
29:
Her
career
really
_____
after
she
was
spotted
by
a
talent
scout.

A.
came
about

B.
fell
through

C.
stretched
out

D.
took
off

Trang 2/7

Question
30:
Mark
the
letter
A,
B,
C,
or
D
on
your
answer
sheet
to
indicate
the
word
or

phrase

that
is
CLOSEST
in
meaning
to
the
underlined
part
in
each
of
the
following

questions.

Two
small
toy
manufacturers
consolidated
to
form
a
new
business.

A.
divided

B.
advertised

C.
united

D.
assembled

Question
31:
That
the
government
ought
to
develop
a
job
program
seemed
to
Congress
an

indisputable
fact.

A.

indispensible

B.
irresponsible

C.
undeniable

D.
indefinite

Question
32:
Do
we
have
enough
people
on
hand
to
help
us
move
our
stuff
into
the
house?

A. nearby

B. indisposed

C. available

D. confident

Mark
the
letter
A,
B,
C,
or
D
on
your
answer
sheet
to
indicate
the
word
or
phrase
that
is

OPPOSITE
in
meaning
to
the
underlined
part
in
each
of
the
following
questions.

Question
33:
Lakes
occupy
less
than
two
percent
of
the
Earth’s
surface,
yet
they
help

sustain
life.

A.
prolong

B.
obstruct

C.
support

D.
destroy

Question
34:
He
had
never
experienced
such
discourtesy
towards
the
president
as
it

occurred
at
the
annual
meeting
in
May.

A.
politeness

B.
rudeness

C.
measurement

D.
encouragement

Read
the
following
passage
and
mark
the
letter

A,
B,
C
or
D
on
your
answer
sheet
to

indicate
the
best
option
for
each
of
the
blanks.

People’s
fingernails
and
toenails,
according
to
a

recent
study,
are
nowadays
growing

more
quickly.
Research
(35)
_____
out
at
the
University
of
North
Carolina
indicates
that
the

speed
at
which
human
nails
are
growing
has

increased
by
(36)
_____
25
per
cent
over
the

last
70
years.
The
results
of
the
study
show
that
the
(37)_____
human
fingernail
now
grows

about
3.5
mm

a
month,
(38)
_____
just
3
mm
seven
decades
ago.
Toenail
growth,
(39)
_____

only
about
2
mm
per
month,
was
also
up
on
the
figure
(40)
_____
in

a
similar
survey
done
70

years
ago.

Researchers
(41)
_____
the
rapid
increase
down
to
changes
in
lifestyle,
particularly

the
greater
awareness
of

the
importance
of
regular
exercise
and
a
healthy
diet.
This,
they

point
out,
is
in
(42)
_____with
similar
trends
in
the
height
and
weight
of
present-‐day
adults.

Interestingly,

it
appears
that
nails
have
a
propensity
to
grow
fastest
(43)
_____
warmer

conditions,
with
the
quickest
growth
rate
among
young
people,
and
men.
The
fastest-‐
growing
nail
is

on
the
middle
finger
while
that
on
the
little
finger
is
(44)
_____
the
slowest,
at

only
a
fraction
over
3
mm
each
month.

Question

35.

A.
carried

B.
studied

C.
taken

D.
worked

Question
36.

A.
few

B.
some

C.
little

D.
near
to

Question
37.

A.
average

B.
common

C.
medium

D.
standard

Question
38.

A.
comparative
with

B.
on
comparing
to

C.
comparable
to

D.
by

comparison

with

Question
39.

A.
although

B.
despite

C.
however

D.

nevertheless

Question
40.

A.
achieved

B.
arrived

C.
concluded

D.

obtained

Question
41.

A.
set

B.
say

C.
put

D.
write

Trang 3/7

Question
42.

A.
alignment

B.
harmony

C.
line

D.

compliance

Question
43.

A.
in

B.
at

C.
on

D.
under

Question
44.

A.
by
far

B.
in
so
far
as

C.
far
and
wide

D.
far
from

Read
the
following
passage
and
mark
the
letter
A,
B,
C,
or
D
on
your
answer
sheet
to

indicate
the
correct
answer
to
each
of
the
questions.

We
are
descendents
of
the
ice
age.
Periods
of
glaciation
have
spanned
the
whole
of

human
existence
for

the
past
2
million
years.
The
rapid
melting
of
the
continental
glaciers
at

the
end
of
the
last
ice
age
spurred
one
of
the
most
dramatic
climate
changes
in

the
history
of

the
planet.
During
this
interglacial
time,
people
were
caught
up
in
a
cataclysm
of
human

accomplishment,
including
the
development
of
agriculture
and
animal
husbandry.
Over

the

past
few
thousand
years,
the
Earth’s
climate
has
been
extraordinarily
beneficial,
and

humans
have
prospered
exceedingly
well
under
a
benign
atmosphere.

Ice
ages
have
dramatically
affected

life
on
Earth
almost
from
the
very
beginning.
It
is

even
possible
that
life
itself
significantly
changed
the
climate.
All
living
organisms
pull

carbon
dioxide
out
of
the

atmosphere
and
eventually
store
it
in
sedimentary
rocks
within

the
Earth’s
crust.
If
too
much
carbon
dioxide
is
lost,
too
much
heat
escapes
out
into
the

atmosphere.
This

can
cause
the
Earth
to
cool
enough
for
glacial
ice
to
spread
across
the

land.

In
general
the
reduction
of
the
level
of
carbon
dioxide
in
the
atmosphere

has
been

equalized
by
the
input
of
carbon
dioxide
from
such
events
as
volcanic
eruptions.
Man,

however,
is
upsetting
the
equation
by
burning
fossil
fuels
and
destroying
tropical

rain

forests,
both
of
which
release
stored
carbon
dioxide.
This
energizes
the
greenhouse
effect

and
causes
the
Earth
to
warm.
If
the
warming
is
significant
enough,
the
polar

ice
caps

eventually
melt.

The
polar
ice
caps
drive
the
atmospheric
and
oceanic
circulation
systems.
Should
the

ice
caps
melt,
warm
tropical
waters
could
circle
the
globe

and
make
this
a
very
warm,

inhospitable
planet.

Over
the
past
century,
the
global
sea
level
has
apparently
risen
upwards
of
6
inches,

mainly
because
of
the

melting
of
glacial
ice.
If
present
warming
trends
continue,
the
seas

could
rise
as
much
as
6
feet
by
the
next
century.
This
could
flood
coastal
cities
and
fertile

river
deltas,
where
half
the
human
population
lives.
Delicate
wetlands,
where
many
marine

species
breed,
also
would
be
reclaimed
by
the
sea.
In
addition,
more
frequent
and
severe

storms
would
batter
coastal
areas,
adding
to
the
disaster
of
the
higher
seas.

The
continued
melting
of
the
great
ice
sheets
in
polar
regions
could
cause
massive

amounts
of
ice
to
crash
into
the
ocean.
This
would
further
raise
the
sea
level
and
release

more
ice,
which
could
more
than
double
the
area
of
sea
ice

and
increase
correspondingly

the
amount
of
sunlight
reflected
back
into
space.
The
cycle
would
then
be
complete
as
this

could
cause
global
temperatures
to
drop
enough
to
initiate

another
ice
age.

Question
45.
According
to
the
passage,
carbon
dioxide
is
stored
in
each
of
the
following

EXCEPT

A.
polar
ice
caps

B.
sedimentary
rocks
C.
rain
forests

D.
fossil
fuel

Question
46.
What
does
the
final
paragraph
of
the
passage
mainly
discuss?

A.
The

relationship
between
the
ocean
and
the
sun

B.
The
amount
of
sunlight
reflected
into
space

C.
A
rise
in
global
temperatures

D.
The

conditions
that
could
lead
to
an
ice
age

Question
47.
The
word
beneficial
in
the
first
paragraph
is
closest
in
meaning
to

A.
calm

B.
inviting

C.
thoughtful

D.
favorable

Trang 4/7

Question
48.
Which
of
the
following
does
the
author

NOT
mention
as
a
consequence
of
a

large
rise
in
global
sea
level?

A.
The
destruction
of
wetlands

B.
The
flooding
of
cities

C.
A
more
diverse
marine
population

D.
Severe
storms

Question
49.
According
to
the
passage,
what
is
the
relationship
between
carbon
dioxide

and
the

Earth’s
climate?

A.
Carbon
dioxide,
which
is
trapped
in
glacial
ice,
is
released
when
warm
temperatures

cause
the
ice
melt.

B.
The
greenhouse
effect,
which

leads
to
the
warming
of
the
climate,
is
result
of
too
much

carbon
stored
in
the
Earth’s
crust.

C.
Rain
causes
carbon
dioxide
to
be
washed
out

of
the
atmosphere
and
into
the
ocean.

D.
An
increase
in
atmospheric
carbon
dioxide
results
in
the
warming
of
the
climate.

Question
50.
The
word
“this”
in

the
third
paragraph
refers
to

A.
man’s
upsetting
the
equation

B.
the
reduction
of
the
level
of
carbon
dioxide.

C.
a
volcanic

eruption

D.
the
melting
of
the
polar
ice
caps

Question
51.
The
word
“inhospitable”
is
closest
in
meaning
to

A.
imperfect

B.
uninhabitable

C.
unlikable

D.
cruel

Question
52.
It
can
be
inferred
from
the
passage
that
the

development
of
agriculture

A.
preceded
the
development
of
animal
husbandry.

B.
withstood
vast
changes
in
the
Earth’s
climate.

C.
did
not
take
place
during

an
ice
age.

D.
was
unaffected
by
the
greenhouse
effect.

Question
53.
The
word
“massive”
can
be
replaced
to

A.
wide

B.
huge

C.
dense

D.
thick

Question
54.
What
is
the
main
topic
of
the

passage?

A.
The
possibility
that
the
popular
ice
caps
will
melt

B.
The
coming
of
another
ice
age

C.
Man’s
effect
on
the
carbon

dioxide
level
in
the
atmosphere

D.
The
climate
of
the
Earth
over
the
years

Read
the
following
passage
and
mark
the
letter

A,
B,
C,
or
D
on
your
answer
sheet
to

indicate
the
correct
answer
to
each
of
the
questions.

Everyone
loves
Jane
Austen’s
novels-‐
scientists,
feminists,
college
freshmen,

traditionalists,
even
readers
who
think
they
don’t
like
fiction.
After
Shakespeare
and

perhaps
Dickens,
Austen
is
the
most
universally
admired
writer
in
the
English
language.
Her

popularity

is
extraordinary
when
one
considers
that
she
deals
with
neither
death
nor

religion
nor
great
moments
in
history.
Her
subject
is
courtship,
and
her
stories
all
end
the

same
way-‐
in
happy
marriage.
Yet
no
one
has
ever
accused
Austen
of
being
shallow
or

suggested
that
her
novels
appeal
because
of
their
escapism.
Quite
the
contrary-‐
her

work
is

usually
characterized
as
wise,
witty
and
realistic.

In
many
ways,
Austen’s
novels
resemble
Shakespeare’s
comedies,
which
also
end
in

marriage.
Both
the
novels
and
the

comedies
demonstrate
how
much
human
nature
may
be

revealed
within
the
confines
of
a
circumscribed
environment
and
a
limited
plot.
Like

Shakespeare,
Austen
makes
women
her
central
characters.

By
using
their
wits
and
their
moral
sensibilities
as
a
substitute
for
the
power
they
do
not

have,
they
bring
about
a
desired
end.
This
element
in

itself
-‐
the
success
of
the
weak

over
the
powerful
-‐
may
account
for
some
part
of
Austen’s
popularity.

The
greater
part
of
Austen’s
appeal,
however,
is
rooted

in
her
ability
to
combine
the

seemingly
incompatible
qualities
of
romance
and
irony,
engagement
and
detachment.

Rational
though
she
may
initially
appear
from
the
beauty
of
her
balanced

sentences,
there
is

Trang 5/7

much
in
Austen’s
work
that
is
firmly
rooted
in
the
realm
of
the
feelings.
Despite
her

elevation
of
civility,
restraint,
good
manners,

good
sense,
and
duty,
Austen’s
novels
are

essentially
fairy
tales-‐fantasies.
They
are
grounded
in
realism
and
made
credible
by
careful

observation
and
sound
precepts
of
moral
behaviour,
but

they
are
fantasies
nevertheless.

Question
55.
What
is
the
best
title
for
the
passage?

A.
Jane
Austen’s
life
and
work

B.
American
literature
and
novels

C.

The
attraction
of
Jane
Austen’s
novels

D.
Jane
Austen
and
Shakespeare

Question
56.
We
can
infer
from
the
passage
that
most
literary
critics
would
admire

Austen’s
work

for
all
of
the
following
EXCEPT
__.

A.
her
insights
into
human
nature

B.
her
revelation
of
universal
truths

C.
her
humor

D.
the
realism
of
her
plot

Question
57.
The
word
“courtship”
in
line
5
most
closely
means
__.

A.
flirtation

B.
friendship

C.
love

D.
comradeship

Question
58.
The
author
compares

Austen’s
novels
to
Shakespeare’s
comedies
primarily
in

order
to
__.

A.
establish
Austen’s
literary
stature

B.
emphasize
the
wit
that
both
authors

displayed

C.
discuss
the
role
of
women
in
literature

D.
illustrate
how
each
author
developed

characters

Question
59.
The
author
of
this
passage
appears
to
respect
Jane
Austen

mostly
for
__.

A.
her
universality
of
appeal

B.
the
great
variety
of
her
plots

C.
her
lack
of
irony

D.
her
treatment
of
important
historic
events

Question
60.
The
author
claims
that
Austen’s
work
resembles
Shakespeare’s
comedies
in

that
both
writers
__.

A.
placed
stock
characters
to
complex
situations

B.
placed
more
emphasis
on
setting
than
plot

C.
worked
to
create
an
awareness
of
women’s

political
inequality

D.
created
complex
characters
within
restricted
plots

Question
61.
You
can
infer
from
the
sentence
that
begins
“This
element
in
itself...”
that

the
author
believes

which
of
the
following?

A.
The
strongest
characters
are
those
who
start
out
poor
and
become
rich.

B.
The
most
popular
literary
characters
are
those
who
are
the

most
powerful.

C.
Readers
dislike
plots
in
which
powerless
characters
increase
their
social
rank
by

misrepresenting
themselves.

D.
Readers
like
to
identify
with
characters
who
overcome
adversity.

Question
62.
The
author
mentions
the
“realm
of
the
feelings”
(line
18)
to
describe
__.

A.
the
rational
thoughts
of
Austen’s
characters

B.
the
deep
emotion
that

Austen’s
characters
experience

C.
one
way
in
which
Austen’s
work
resembles
that
of
Shakespeare

D.
the
realism
that
is
the
basis
for
Austen’s
novels

Question
63.
In

line
20
the
word
“sound”
most
closely
means
__.

A.
based
on
truth

B.
accurate

C.
financially
secure

D.
forceful

Question
64.
The
author’s
attitude
toward
Jane
Austen
can
best
be
described
as
__.

A.
moderately
approving

B.
enthusiastic
and
admiring

C.
completely
unbiased

D.
a
blend
of
approval
and
disapproval

Trang 6/7

WRITING

Part
I.
Finish
each

of
the
following
sentences
in
such
a
way
that
it
means
the
same
as

the
sentence
printed
before
it.

Question
65:
Why
isn’t
this
TV
working?

→What
__________________________________________________________________

Question
66:
Immediately
after
his
arrival,
things
went
wrong.

→No
sooner
_____________________________________________________________

Question
67:
This
is
the
quickest
way
to
get
into

the
town
centre.

→There
is
________________________________________________________________

Question
68:
I’m
sure
you
were
driving
too
fast.

→You
must
______________________________________________________________

Question
69:
It
was

overeating
that
caused
his
heart
attack.

→If
he
____________________________________________________________________

Part
II.
In
about
140
words,
write
a
paragraph
about
your
hometown.

.....................................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................................

MAI
PHƯƠNG

2015

Mark
the
letter
A,
B,
C,
or
D
on
your
answer
sheet
to
indicate
the
word
that
differs
from
the
rest

in
the

position
of
the
main
stress
in
each
of
the
following
questions.

Question
1:
A.
attract

B.
decide

C.
reject

D.

beauty

Question
2:
A.
delicate

B.
promotion

C.
volcanic

D.
resources

Question
3:
A.
badminton

B.
swallow

C.
challenge

D.
ballet

Choose
the
letter
A,
B,
C
or
D
to
indicate
the
word
whose
underlined
part
is
pronounced
differently
from

that
of
the

rest
in
each
of
the
following
questions.

Question
4:
A.
linked

B.
declared

C.
finished

D.
developed

Question
5:
A.
heavy

B.
head

C.
weather

D.

easy

Mark
the
letter
A,
B,
C,
or
D
on
your
answer
sheet
to
indicate
the
correct
answer
to
each
of
the
following

questions.

Question

6:
A
few
animals
sometimes
fool
their
enemies
_______
to
be
dead.

A.
have
been
appearing

B.
to
be
appearing

C.
to
appear

D.
by
appearing

Question
7:
On
_______
he
had

won,
he
jumped
for
joy.

A.
he
was
told

B.
having
told

C.
being
told

D.
telling

Question
8:
It
has
been
raining
______
I
got
up.

A.
when

B.
since

C.
until

D.
as

Question
9:
Learning
English
isn't
so
difficult
once
you_______
.

A.
get
on
it

B.
get
off
it

C.
get
down
to
it

D.
get
down
with
it

Question

10:
Next
week
when
there
______
a
full
moon,
the
ocean
tide
will
be
higher.

A.
is

will
be

C.
is
being

D.
will
have
been

Question
11:
_____
is
the
natural
environment
in
which
plants

or
animals
live.

A.
Ecology

B.
Habitat

C.
Extinction

D.
Biodiversity

Question
12:
I
have
told
you
not
to
do
it_______
.

A.
hundreds
of
times

B.
many
hundred
times

C.
hundred
times

D.
a

hundred
times

Question
13:
George
wouldn't
have
met
Mary_______
to
his
brother's
graduation
party.

A.
had
he
not
gone

B.
hadn't
he
gone

C.
if
he
has
not
gone

D.
if
he

shouldn't
have
gone

Question
14:
Venice,
______
was
built
on
water,
is
a
city
in
Italy.

A.
where

B.
that

C.
who

D.
which

Question
15:
It
is
recommended
that
he

___________
this
course.

A.
took

B.

take

C.

takes

D.
taking

Question
16:

We
bought
some
_______.

A.
German
lovely
old
glasses

B.
German

old
lovely
glasses

C.
lovely
old
German
glasses

D.
old
lovely

German
glasses

Question
17:
Tom.
"I'm
sorry.
I
won't
be
able
to
come".
-‐
Mary.
“_______”.

A.
Great

B.
Oh,
that's
annoying

C.
Well,
never
mind

D.
Sounds
like
fun

Question
18:
If
you
had
taken
my
advice,
you
_______
in
such
difficulties
now.

A.
wouldn't

have
been

B.
hadn't
been

C.
wouldn't
be

D.
won't
be

Question
19:
One's
fingerprints
are
_______
other

person.

A.
different
from

B.
different
from
any

C.
differ
from
any

D.
different
from
those
of
any

Question
20:
I
have
a
good
job
with
good
salary.
You
_________
send
me
any
money,
my
lovely
father.

A.
mustn’t

B.
mightn’t

C.
mayn’t

D.
needn’t

Question
21:
___
appears
considerably
larger
at
the
horizon
than
it
does
overhead
is
merely
an
optical

illusion.

A.
The
Moon

B.
The
Moon
which

C.
When
the
Moon

D.
That
the
Moon

ĐỀ
THI
THỬ
KỲ
THI
THPTQG
MÔN
TIẾNG
ANH
–
CÔ
MAI

PHƯƠNG

2015

Question
22:
I
should
very
much
like
to
have
gone
to
that
party
of
theirs,
but
_______

A.
I'm
not
invited

B.
I
will
not
be
invited

C.
I
have
not
been
invited

D.
I
was
not
invited

Question
23:
The
last
person
__________

will
have
to
turn
off
the
lights.

A.
have
left

B.
left

C.
leaving

D.
to

leave

Question
24:
She
listened
so
attentively
that
not
a
word_______.

A.
she
had
missed

B.
she
missed

C.
she
didn't
miss

D.
did
she
miss

Mark
the
letter
A,
B,
C,
or
D
on
your
answer
sheet
to
indicate
the
word
or
phrase
that
is

CLOSEST

in

meaning
to
the
underlined
part
in
each
of
the
following
questions.

Question
25:
The
augmentation
in
the
population
has
created
a
fuel
shortage.

A.

increase

B.
necessity

C.
demand

D.
decrease

Question

26:
When
their
rent
increased
from
$200
to
$400
a
month,
they
protested
against
such
a

tremendous
increase.

A.
light

B.
huge

C.
tiring

D.
difficult

Question
27:
Unselfishness
is
the
very
essence
of
friendship.

A.
romantic
part

B.
difficult
part

C.
important
part

D.
interesting
part

Question
28:
The
notice
should
be
put
in
the

most
conspicuous
place
so
that
all
the
students
can
be
well-‐
informed.

A.
popular

B.
suspicious

C.
easily
seen

D.
beautiful

Question
29:
He
was
asked
to
account
for
his
presence
at
the
scene
of
crime.

A.
complain

B.
exchange

C.
explain

D.
arrange

Mark
the
letter
A,
B,
C,

or
D
on
your
answer
sheet
to
choose
the
sentence
which
is
closest
in
meaning
to

the
given
one.

Experts
in
climatology
and
other
scientists
are
becoming
extremely

concerned
about
the
changes
to
our

climate
which
are
taking
place.
Admittedly,
climate
changes
have
occurred
on
our
planet
before.
For

example,
there
have
been
several
ice
ages

or
glacial
periods.

These
climatic
changes,
however,
were
different
from
the
modern
ones
in
that
they
occurred
gradually

and,
as
far
as

we
know,
naturally.
The
changes
currently
being
monitored
are
said
to
be
the
result
not
of

natural
causes,
but
of
human
activity.
Furthermore,
the
rate
of
change
is
becoming

alarmingly
rapid.

The
major
problem
is
that
the
planet
appears
to
be
warming
up.
According
to
some
experts,
this

warming
process,
known

as
global
warming,
is
occurring
at
a
rate
unprecedented
in
the
last
10,000
years.

The
implications
for
the
planet
are
very
serious.
Rising
global
temperatures
could
give
rise
to

such

ecological
disasters
as
extremely
high
increases
in
the
incidence
of
flooding
and
of
droughts.
These
in
turn

could
have
a
harmful
effect
on
agriculture.

It
is
thought
that
this
unusual
warming
of
the
Earth
has
been
caused
by
so-‐called
greenhouse
gases,

such
as
carbon
dioxide,
being
emitted
into
the

atmosphere
by
car
engines
and
modern
industrial

processes,
for
example.
Such
gases
not
only
add
to
the
pollution
of
the
atmosphere,
but
also
create
a

greenhouse
effect,
by

which
the
heat
of
the
sun
is
trapped.
This
leads
to
the
warming
up
of
the
planet.

Politicians
are
also
concerned
about
climate

change
and
there
are
now
regular
summits
on
the
subject,

attended
by
representatives
from
around
180
of
the
world’s
industrialized
countries.
Of
these
summits,

the
most
important
took

place
in
Kyotoin
Japanin
1997.
There
it
was
agreed
that
the
most
industrialized

countries
would
try
to
reduce
the
volume
of
greenhouse
gas
emissions
and
were
given
targets
for

this

reduction
of
emissions.

It
was
also
suggested
that
more
forests
should
be
planted
to
create
so-‐called
sinks
to
absorb

greenhouse

gases.
At
least
part
of
the
problem
of
rapid
climate
change
has
been
caused
by
too
drastic

deforestation.

Sadly,
the
targets
are

not
being
met.
Even
more
sadly,
global
warnings
about
climate
changes
are
often

still
being
regarded
as
scaremongering.

TUYỂN TẬP ĐỀ THI THỬ MÔN TIẾNG ANH KỲ THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2015 CÔ MAI PHƯƠNG (KÈM ĐÁP ÁN )

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