CÂU HỎI TRẮC NGHIỆM CHUYÊN MÔN CHO SỸ QUAN QUẢN LÝ 3

F3 – MANAGEMENT
1. What does "A/P" in a fixture note mean?
A. Additional premium
B. as per
C. all prepared
D. after peak
2. What stipulates whether the vessel will be consigned to owner's agents or charterer's agents
for inward or outward business?
A. agent's consignment
B. appointment clause
C. charter's freight
D. consignment clause
3. Is an expression used in connection with the discharge of a cargo or part of a cargo where the
Master deems fit to discharge at the nearest convenient port if a vessel runs the risk of being
frozen in.
A. distress freight
B. distance freight
C. Master's option
D. Master's option
4. What does "b.t." in a fixture note mean?
A. berth terms
B. bills terms
C. both times
D. ballast tank
5. As amended by the Protocol of 1968 and 1979, which of the following is Not true under the
Hague-Visby?
A. Neither the carrier nor the ship shall be responsible for loss or damage arising and
resulting from the Act of God
B. The carrier or the ship shall be liable for loss or damage arising or resulting from
unseaworthiness
C. Neither the carrier nor the ship shall be responsible for loss or damage arising or resulting

from act of neglect, or default of crew
D. The shipper shall not be responsible for loss or damage sustained by the carrier or the ship
arising or resulting from any cause without the act, fault or neglect of the shipper
6. What does "C.C." in a fixture note mean?
A. charter clause
B. certified copy
C. Continuation clause
D. charter copy
7. What does "c & f" in a fixture note mean?
A. credit and finance
B. center and forward
C. cost and freight
D. costing and finance
8. What does "c/I" in a fixture note mean?
A. certificate of indemnity
B. certificate of insurance
C. capacity included
D. cost of insurance
9. What does "C/N" in a fixture note mean?
A. Cover Note
B. Clear Notes
C. Currency Notes
D. Currency Notes

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10. What does "C/O" in a fixture note mean?
A. care of
B. Chief officer

C. Certificate of origin
D. credited over
11. What does "c.i.f." in a fixture note mean?
A. cost including freight
B. costs, insurance, fixed
C. credited if forwarded
D. cost, insurance and freight
12. What does "c.i.f. & e" in a fixture note mean?
A. cost including freight and effects
B. center including forward end
C. cost, insurance, freight and exchange
D. cost including fire emergency
13. What does "c.p.d." in a fixture note mean?
A. charter party dues
B. cost port-dated
C. cost past due
D. cost per diem
14. What does "C.G.A." in a fixture note mean?
A. Cargo's proportion of General Average
B. Coast Guard Auxiliary
C. Center of b.b. Gravity Axis
D. Cost of General Average
15. What does "c & i" in a fixture note mean?
A. costs included
B. cost and insurance
C. cost and indemnity
D. center aside
16. What does "c.r." in a fixture note mean?
A. cost ratio
B. current rate

C. cargo rate
D. constructive rate
17. Under Annex 9 to the Hamburg Rules, the bill of lading must include, inter alia, the
following Except _______.
A. Place of issuance of the bill of lading
B. The number of original of bill of lading, if more than one
C. The freight to the extent payable by the consignee
D. Name, address and signature of the carrier or person acting on his behalf
18. What does "b.d.i." in a fixture note mean?
A. before discharging into
B. Bar draught
C. bulkhead deck included
D. Both dates inclusive
19. What does "B/P" in a fixture note mean?
A. Bills payable
B. bills paid
C. bills prepaid
D. British Petroleum
20. What does "c.t.l." in a fixture note mean?
A. cargo to load
B. cost total laytime
C. constructive total loss
D. cargo time lost

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21. What does "D/d." in a fixture note mean?
A. Due date
B. Days after date

C. due diligence
D. delivery date
22. What does "d.w.c." in a fixture note mean?
A. daily weather count
B. discharging weather cancelled
C. deadweight capacity
D. discharging with consent
23. What does "f.a.a." in a fixture note mean?
A. free of all average
B. freight and average
C. free all alongside
D. for all amount
24. What does "D./P in a fixture note mean?
A. down payment
B. Documents against payment
C. Due payment
D. dispatch payment
25. What does "d.p." in a fixture note mean?
A. direct port
B. down payment
C. due payment
D. dispatch payment
26. What does "d.w." in a fixture note mean?
A. deadweight
B. dispatch wave
C. deadfreight waived
D. weather deck
27. What does "B/D" in a fixture note mean?
A. bar draught
B. before discharging

C. bill of demurrage
D. bulkhead deck
28. What does "B/R" in a fixture note mean?
A. bills received
B. bills receivable
C. bills returned
D. bills routed
29. What does "f.a.q." in a fixture note mean?
A. free of all questions
B. for all quotation
C. free alongside quay
D. fair average quality
30. What does "c.f." in a fixture note mean?
A. corrected for
B. correct freight
C. cost for
D. cubic feet
31. What does "f.c. and s." in a fixture note mean?
A. for account of shipper
B. For charterer and shipper
C. Free of capture and seizure
D. for average ships

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32. Under Annex 9 to the Hamburg Rules, the bill of lading must include, inter alia, the
following particulars Except_______.
A. Address of the consignee
B. General nature of the goods

C. apparent condition of the goods
D. name & principal place of the business of the carrier
33. As amended in 1990, under the York-Antwerp Rules, which of the following is Not true?
A. No jettison of cargo shall be made good as general average unless cargo is carried in
accordance with the recognized custom of trade
B. Damage done to a ship and/or cargo, by one in consequence made for the common
safety by water down a ship's hatch for the purpose of making a jettison shall not
be made good as general average
C. Loss or damage sustained by cutting away wreck or parts of the ship have been
previously carried away or are effectively lost by accident shall not be made good as
general average
D. Damage done to a ship and/or cargo by water or otherwise while extinguishing fire
onboard the ship shall be made good as general average
34. What does "d.d.o." in a fixture note mean?
A. delivery date of
B. During discharge only
D. deliver documents over
D. Dispatch discharging only
35. What does "f.a.s." in a fixture note mean?
A. For all ships
B. Free alongside ship
C. for account of shipper
D. for average ships
36. What does "c.c" in a fixture note mean?
A. current cost
B. certified copy
C. correct copy
D. charter copy
37. What does "d.f." in a fixture note mean?
A. deadfreight

B. deadfreight free
C. delivered free
D. discharging for
38. When was the Model law on International Commercial Arbitration was adopted?
A. June 21, 1985
B. June 21, 1984
C. June 21, 1983
D. June 21, 1982
39. Under the International Convention for the Unification of Certain Rules of Law with respect
to collision between vessels, which of the following is Not true?
A. If the collision is accidental, it is caused by force majcurre
B. If two or more are in fault, the liability of each vessel is in proportion to the degree of the
faults respectively committed
C. If the collision is accidental, it is caused by human error
D. If the collision is caused by the fault of one vessel, liability lies one the vessel at fault
40. Under the Convention with Respect to Collision, how many interval of year(s) are there
from the date of casualty before actions for recovery are barred?
A. Two
B. Three
C. One
D. Four

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41. Is an expression frequently used when negotiating for the chartering of a ship, as regards rate
of loading and discharge, loading and unloading expenses; appointment of charterer's or
owner's agents at port of loading and discharge.
A. charter agreement
B. both ends

C. contract of affreightment
D. engagement terms
42. Expresses remuneration for the brokers for their intermediary in negotiating and arranging
the charter in a certain percentage of the freight.
A. brokers fee
B. brokers charter
C. brokers commission
D. brokerage
43. When as the Annex I Convention on the High Seas was held?
A. April 29, 1958
B. April 29, 1957
C. April 29, 1956
D. April 29, 1955
44. Where was the Annex I Convention on the High Seas held?
A. New York
B. London
C. Brussels
D. Geneva
45. Arbitration is international if:
A. One of the parties have designated and arbitrator other than his country of
business
B. The parties to an arbitration agreement have at the time of the conclusion of that
agreement
C. The parties have expressly agreed that the subject matter of the arbitration agreement
relates to more than one country
D. One of the place of arbitration if determined in, or pursuant to, the arbitration agreement
46. The __ of the cargo can be changed while the vessel is en route to her destination by
endorsement of the bill of lading.
A. Consignee
B. Ownership

C. Freight
D. Destination
47. Except for ____ ,when a vessel is delivered on time charter, a certificate of delivery is drawn
up which contains the following.
A. Quantity of bunkers onboard at the time of delivery
B. Quantity of water for boilers
C. Date and hour of delivery
D. Date and place of delivery
48. Is a charter party in which neither the nature of the cargo nor the port(s) of destination are
specified
A. Charterers account
B. Owners account
C. Open charter
D. Owners & charterers account
49. What does "D/A" in a fixture note mean?
A. Vessel must discharge afloat
B. Average Delivery
C. District Attorney
D. De-activated

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50. What does "D/C" in a fixture note mean?
A. Deviation Clause
B. Debit Credit
C. Demurrage Count
D. District of Columbia
51. As soon as the cargo is shipped, it is customary to insert a special clause in voyage charter
parties relieving the charterers from further liability. This clause is called ______.

A. cesser clause
B. exception clause
C. relief clause
D. liability clause
52. In charter party covering fixture on an f.i.o. basis implies that the loading and unloading
expenses are for charterer's account, charterers appoint their agents to attend to ship's
business. They are called _____.
A. charterer's agents
B. chartering agents
C. ship's agent
D. husbanding agents
53. With respect to collision, when was the Convention at Brussels done?
A. Sept. 23, 1980
B. Sept. 23, 1910
C. Sept. 23, 1950
D. Sept. 23, 1972
54. Held at Geneva, when was the UN Convention on conditions for Registration of Ships,
Annex V done?
A. April 7, 1986
B. May 7, 1986
C. Feb. 7, 1986
D. March 7, 1986
55. In order to take up the space required for their shipments, brokers who have been specially
appointed by large importers or exporters are called ________.
A. chartering agents
B. chartering brokers
C. ship's agents
D. charterer's agents
56. What acts as intermediaries between shipowners seeking employment for their vessels and
charterers requiring the services of a ship?

A. Ship's agents
B. Chartering agents
C. Chartering brokers
D. Charterer's agents
57. If the charter party provides for shippers to arrange for delivery of the goods within reach of
ship's tackle, this provision in the charter party is called ______.
A. free alongside
B. free in port
C. alongside ready
D. wharfage ready
58. What expression is usually intended to convey that there are no unusual terms in the charter
party?
A. exception-free charter
B. Direct charter
C. Clean charter
D. non-clause charter

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59. What is a 7-day notice of the shipowner to the charterers of the expected date of readiness at
the port of loading?
A. clear days
B. first notice
C. advance notice
D. second notice
60. Is a non-performance of an agreement that shall be proved damages not exceeding the
estimated amount freight.
A. Damage claim clause
B. Ready ship

C. Penalty clause
D. Freight claim clause
61. When a tramp vessel loads cargo to fill up remaining spaces because cargo offerings do not
come up to expectation and charge lesser freight, this is called ______.
A. distress freight
B. reduced freight
C. convenience freight
D. deadfreight
62. Payable at destination upon delivery to consignees, freight on cargo shipped is called
_______.
A. receiver freight
B. advance freight
C. consignee freight
D. consigned freight
63. Shipowners undertake to carry goods by sea or to put a vessel at the disposal of charterer for
the purpose against payment of a certain rate of freight mutually agreed in advance. This is
called _______.
A. charter party
B. contact of shipment
C. affreightment
D. contract of carriage
64. During her stay at their port, the remuneration for the agents who have attended to the ships
business is called _______.
A. agency fee
B. agents fee
C. husbanding fee
D. agents attendance fee
65. Is a percentage of commission that is due to charterers on the amount of freight on signing
Bills of Lading.
A. charterers commission

B. Advance freight commission
C. freight commission
D. Address commission
66. Is an expression used for shipments under a charter party, the practical terms of which
correspond with the regular terms for shipment of the commodity concerned by the regular
lines operating in the particular trade.
A. liner terms
B. regular terms
C. regular line terms
D. berth terms
67. On which the vessel must be ready to load at the latest, the date mutually agreed upon
between shipowners and charterers is called ________.
A. closing date
B. canceling date
C. opening date
D. loading date

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68. When loaded in such a way that upon sailing she is down to her marks, a vessel is said to be
_____.
A. full and down
B. fully loaded
C. displacement
D. loaded to marks
69. Is the latest date for delivery of goods for shipment by the vessel in question.
A. closing date
B. final acceptance
C. final acceptance date

D. cargo closing date
70. Is an expression relates to a full cargo, in accordance with the custom of the port, which will
bring the vessel down to her permissible draught.
A. deadweight
B. full and complete cargo
C. full capacity
D. loaded displacement
71. Which of the following relates to the rates applying to shipments by the regular lines
engaged in the trade in question?
A. shipping rates
B. shipment rates
C. berth rates
D. cargo rates
72. In grain charter parties, freight may be payable per ton of 2240 lbs. On Bill of Lading weight
or net weight delivered as may be agreed between the contracting parties. This is called:
A. draftage
B. net freight
C. dreading
D. freightage
73. Means that after delivery of the vessel in the first port of loading, charterers will pay all
additional port changes, cost of loading and discharging in the first and any additional port
of loading and in the port or ports of discharge
A. net charter
B. charterers all
C. charterers charges
D. charteres account
74. Is an expression which means that a vessel can be ready to load at short notice where a
reasonable dispatch may be expected.
A. prompt ship
B. ready ship

C. ship ready in all aspects
D. surveyed & passed ship
75. Is drawn up containing a summary of the principal conditions of a charter party as soon as
the negotiations about the chartering of a vessel have resulted in the fixture of a ship.
A. agreement
B. charter party
C. fixing letter
D. fixing conditionsV
76. Is an expression which means that dispatch money will not be paid in the event loading or
discharging operations are completed within the time allowed under the charter party.
A. free in and out
B. free dispatch
C. free in and out basis
D. free alongside

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77. Is an expression which means that laydays will commence to count as soon as the vessel has
arrived at the port of loading or discharge, whether a berth is available or not, provided, of
course, the ship is ready to load or to discharge in every respect and written notice of
readiness has been given by the master.
A. an arrived ship
B. ready in all respect
C. free of turn
D. arrived ship and ready
78. Define the minimum responsibilities and liabilities as well as the maximum rights and
immunities of ocean carriers.
A. Hague rules
B. Visby rules

C. Hamburg rules
D. Hague-visby rules
79. As a rule, owners have pay the cost of loading and unloading the cargo, it being the duty of
the charterer to deliver the cargo free alongside at the port of loading and for consignees to
take a delivery from alongside at the port of destination, in each case free of charge to the
vessel. This is called _______.
A. free alongside
B. free of charge
C. owner's choice
D. free in and out
80. This expression relates to the equipment of the vessel such as anchors, chains, and lifeboats.
A. Gears
B. Apparel
C. Accessories
D. Ship's equipment
81. On her vessel under time charter, ___ is not for the account of the shipowners.
A. port chargers
B. wages
C. provisions
D. maintenance and repair
82. Under time charter, ___ is not for the charterers account.
A. fuel
B. wages
C. cleaning of holds
D. crew wages
83. A payment calculation resulting from the hire of a vessel on a voyage charter is shown
below. Compute the voyage charter payment at an assumed rate of US $5.00 per ton.
Assumed vessel size - 50,000 DWT
Less: allowance for:
Vessel stores and water - 500 tons

Bunkers - 2000 tons
Voyage charter payment equals:
A. $ 237,500.00
B. $ 231, 5000
C. $ 250, 000
D. $ 235, 5000
84. According to the Marine Insurance Act, when the proposal of the assured is accepted by the
insurer whether the policy is issued or not, a contract of marine insurance is considered
concluded
A. optional cover
B. open cover
C. prepaid cover
D. cover agreement

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85. Is an expression commonly used for an agreement whereby the assured is automatically
covered for all shipments at specified premiums or at rates to be arranged.
A. optional cover
B. prepaid cover
C. automatic cover
D. open cover
86. Are drawn up in amplification of a contract in order to lay down right an/or obligations
between both contracting parties.
A. back letter
B. back-up letter
C. guarantee letter
D. back-up agreement
87. Is a term used to described a vessel which has listed as the result of shifting of cargo or solid

ballast to such an extent that her railing is submerged and her righting power is insufficient
to restore the original position.
A. top heavy ship
B. on her beam ends
C. unstable ship
D. ship with negative GM
88. Would best fit into a commercial situation under which the charterer undertakes to arrange
and pay for the transport of the goods.
A. Time Charter
B. Voyage Charter
C. Bareboat Charter
D. Demise Charter
89. In proportion to its value, ___ shows the contribution in detail in the general average
A. average part
B. average statement
C. average premium
D. average contribution
90. Giving rise to an act of general average a/an __ is drawn up in which cargo owners
undertake to pay their proportionate share in general average in the event of extraordinary
occurrences.
A. average deposit
B. average guarantee
C. average bond
D. average bank cheque
91. Is the calculation of the charter party under a voyage charter
A. normally in proportion to the allocation of the loss-off time risk
B. fixed by the shipowner
C. fixed in proportion to the time required
D. fixed in proportional to the cargo size or in the form of a lump sum for the voyage
92. Calculate the monthly time charter payment for a vessel of 50,000 DWT with a charter rate

of US$3.00 per DWT per 30-day period, with an assumed off-hire of 1.5 days
A. US$142, 500
B. $150, 000
C. $147, 500
D. $450, 000
93. A 40, 000 DWT dry cargo bulk carrier is assume to be under voyage charter to transport 38,
000 tons of cargo at a rate of US$10.00 per ton. The length of the voyage is assumes to be
60 days with voyage expenses (bunkers, canal tolls, port charges, commissions) totaling
$120,000. Under these assumptions, find the equivalent time charter rate per DWT per
month.
A. $3.20 per dwt per month
B. $3.50 per dwt per month
C. $3.25 per dwt per month
D. $3.45 per dwt per month

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94. The cost of property damage includes the ___ when a vessel is involved in a casualty
A. cost of labor and material to restore the vessel to the service condition which existed
prior to casualty
B. damage claims awarded to individuals or companies involved in the casualty
C. lost of revenues while the vessel is being repaired
D. all of these
95. Is an agreement for valuable goods in small quantities stored in a special locker not carried
under contract of affreightment but usually paid minimal ad valorem freight
A. parcel cargo
B. waybill
C. special agreement
D. parcel ticket

96. What additional manifest is required if a vessel arrives in the port of Los Angeles from a
foreign port and discharges some of its inward foreign cargo?
A. inward foreign manifest
B. discharge manifest
C. traveling manifest
D. Pro Forma manifest
97. Under a voyage charter, he calculation of the charter is fixed ________.
A. on the proportion to the cargo size
B. by the ship owner and charter
C. in proportion to the time frame
D. in proportion to the time risk
98. What does "a.a.r." in a fixture note mean?
A. all about risk
B. about all risk
C. above all risk
D. against all risk
99. What does "A.F." in a fixture note mean?
A. all for
B. air freight
C. Advanced freight
D. against fire
100. What does "a.h." in a fixture note mean?
A. After hatch
B. all having
C. after hire
D. after hours
101. When a ship is loading at a river port where the water density is other than unity, what
allowance will you apply?
A. Fresh water allowance as appears in the Load Line Certificate
B. No allowance for fresh water density shall be applied if the water at loading port is not

pure fresh water
C. An allowance proportional to the difference between sea water density of 1025 and
actual density of the water at loading port
D. Load the vessel up to the FW load line mark
102. Tested on or May 1992, life-saving appliances should _______.
A. All of these requirements are correct
B. Meet the applicable requirements as may be specified by the administration
C. Meet the applicable requirements of substantially equivalent ones to the satisfaction
D. Meet he applicable requirement of Recommendation adopted by Res. A 521 (13)
103. Is required for Immersion Suits and Thermal Protective Aids.
A. Ergonomic test
B. Donning Test
C. Field of vision test
D. All of these

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104. What is the term in the Load Line Act that specifies the requirements regarding hulls,
superstructures, fitting and appliances of ships considered to be relevant to the assignment
of freeboards to ships for the purposes of the load line?
A. "Load Line Assignment"
B. "Freeboard Assignment"
C. "Continuous of Assignment"
D. "Condition of Certifications"
105. Load Line Convention 1966, Art. 12 (3) permits a ship which departs from a port situated
on a river or inland water to comply with the correct FW loaded draft in accordance with
the water density and also an allowance for the following, except ________.
A. the weight of dunnage, refuse, ballast and other wastes to be thrown overboard
while negotiating the river to the open sea

B. Weight of the fuel to be used between the point of the departure and the crew
C. The weight of all her materials to be consumed by the machinery and crew
D. Weight of fresh water to be consumed between the point of departure and the sea
106. A buoyant line of a buoyant rescue quoit in a life raft should not be less than ________.
A. 30m
B. 40m
C. 45m
D. 35m
107. The hazard to human health by oral intake greater than 5000 mg/kg is rated as _______.
A. highly hazardous
B. non-hazardous
C. practically non-hazardous
D. slightly hazardous
108. The "Carriage of Dangerous Goods" is fully covered in ______.
A. Chapter VI of Solas 1974
B. Chapter VII of Solas 1974
C. Chapter V of Solas 1974
D. Chapter IV of Solas 1974
109. Which of the following should the container where the life raft is packed should not be
marked with?
A. maker's name
B. serial number
C. date of next service
D. name of approving authority
110. Which of the following is not a marking found on inflatable life rafts?
A. month and year of manufacture
B. maker's name
C. date of next service
D. serial number
111. The convention on the International maritime Satellite Organization adopted on ____ ,

established the organization, Inmarsat.
A. Sept. 3, 1996
B. Sept. 6, 1997
C. Sept. 3, 1976
D. Sept. 6, 1973
112. Constructed on or after Sept. 1, 1984, a ship of ___ or more shall be fitted with Arpa.
A. 5,000 GRT
B. 500 GRT
C. 20,000 GRT
D. 10,000 GRT

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113. A painter with what breaking strength should a rigid life raft permitted to accommodate 9
persons or more should be fitted with?
A. 10 Kn
B. 8 kN
C. 4 kN
D. 6 Kn
114. A painter with what breaking strength should be rigid life raft permitted to acomodate 8
persons or more should be fitted with?
A. 5.0 kN
B. 9.5 kN
C. 6 kN
D. 7.5 Kn
115. The free clearance in front of the backrest should be at least ___, and the width of the seat
of an enclosed lifeboat is _______.
A. 625 mm, 480 mm
B. 635 mm, 430 mm

C. 620 mm, 420 mm
D. 600 mm, 400 mm
116. Constructed on Jan. 1, 1985, Arpa shall be fitted on tankers of ___ or more.
A. 5,000 GRT
B. 40,000 GRT
C. 10,000 GRT
D. 20,000 GRT
117. Constructed on or after Sept. 1, 1984, ships of ___ or more shall be fitted with a rate-ofturn indicator.
A. 100,000 GRT
B. 20,000 GRT
C. 50,000 GRT
D. 40,000 GRT
118. Solas stipulates that ____ shall be bolt circle diameter of an international shore connection.
A. 137 mm
B. 135 mm
C. 132 mm
D. 140 mm
119. For not less than __ of the total number of persons onboard. Solas stipulates that every
passenger ship shall carry lifejackets in addition to the life rafts required by regulation 7.2.
A. 5 %
B. 15 %
C. 10 %
D. 20 %
120. Is an expression that covers the cargo space which is normally available for cargo including
lawful deck capacity
A. Full each and burden
B. bale capacity
C. cubic capacity
D. full capacity
121. For each life boats, passenger ships shall carry at least __ immersion suit/s complying with

the requirements of Reg. 33 (Solas).
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 3

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122. Solas stipulates that there should be at least one international shore connection with an
outside diameter of ___ on ships of 500 GRT or more.
A. 184 mm
B. 182 mm
C. 176 mm
D. 178 mm
123. Solas stipulates that there should be at least one international shore connection with an
inside diameter of __ on ships of 500 GRT or more.
A. 68 mm
B. 70 mm
C. 64 mm
D. 66 mm
124. Solas stipulates that there should ___ holes in the flange of ships of 500 GRT or more.
A. 5
B. 4
C. 7
D. 6
125. A luminous intensity of lifejacket lights shall be ______.
A. 1.00 cd
B. 0.75 cd
C. 0.50 cd

D. 0.25 cd
126. The classification of flammable solid is _____.
A. Class 4.3
B. Class 4.4
C. Class 4.1
D. Class 4.2
127. An average luminous intensity of hand flares should not be less than __ when it burns
uniformly
A. 15,000 cd
B. 10,000 cd
C. 8,000 cd
D. 12,000 cd
128. Under pressure, gases compressed, liquefied or dissolved are classified _____.
A. Class 5
B. Class 3
C. Class 4
D. Class 2
129. The classification of flammable liquid is _____.
A. Class 5
B. Class 3
C. Class 4
D. Class 6
130. The classification of organic peroxide is _______.
A. Class 5.2
B. Class 5.4
C. Class 5.3
D. Class 6.1
131. The classification of infectious substance is _____.
A. Class 1
B. Class 6.2

C. Class 2
D . Class 3

14


132. The classification of radioactive materials is _____.
A. Class 8
B. Class 6
C. Class 7
D. Class 4.1
133. The classification of corrosive materials is ______.
A. Class 7
B. Class 4.1
C. Class 8
D. Class 6
134. To make clear its dangerous ____ , packages containing dangerous good should be labeled.
A. Properties
B. Classifications
C. Contents
D. Extent
135. Solas stipulates that an international shore connection shall have a flange of at least ___
thick.
A. 14.5 mm
B. 15.5 mm
C. 15.0 mm
D. 16.0 mm
136. Solas stipulates that an international shore connection shall have bolts and nuts of __
diameter, and ___ in length.
A. 19 mm, 50 mm

B. 16 mm, 50 mm
C. 18 mm, 50 mm
D. 17 mm, 50 mm
137. At intervals of not more than ___ , on board training in the use of davit-launched life rafts
shall take place on every ship fitted with such appliances.
A. 5 months
B. 3 months
C. 6 months
D. 4 months
138. Which of the following is a cargo constructed for the carriage in bulk of any liquid product
listed in the IBC Code?
A. LPG tanker
B. chemical tanker
C. tanker
D. product tanker
139. Conforming to the IMO ship identification scheme adopted by the organization, every
passenger ship of ___ or more shall be issued an identification number.
A. 150 GRT
B. 500 GRT
C. 5,000 GRT
D. 100 GRT
140. Conforming to the IMO ship identification scheme by the organization, all cargo ships of
__ or more shall be issued a identification number.
A. 500 GRT
B. 100 GRT
C. 300 GRT
D. 150 GRT

15

141. For tanker ten years of age and over, intermediate survey shall be _______.
A. 3 months before or after the anniversary date of the Cargo Ship Safety Construction
Certificate
B. 6 months before or after the anniversary date of the Cargo Ship Safety Construction
Certificate
C. 3 months before or after the anniversary date of the Cargo Ship Safety Equipment
Certificate
D. 6 months before or after the anniversary date of the Cargo Ship Safety Equipment
Certificate
142. "New Tanker" means a tanker whose keel is laid after __ according to Marpol.
A. Jan. 1, 1980
B. June 1, 1984
C. June 1, 1982
D. June 1, 1980
143. Initial survey, periodical survey and a minimum of one intermediate survey are required to
oil tankers of ___ or more - according to Regulation 4 of Annex 1.
A. 500 GRT
B. 150 GRT
C. 300 GRT
D. 75 GRT
144. IOPP shall be issued after survey to any oil tanker of __ or more - according to Regulation
4 of Annex I.
A. 500 GRT
B. 300 GRT
C. 150 GRT
D. 75 GRT
145. The classification of substance that is liable to spontaneous combustion is ________.
A. Class 4.2
B. Class 4.5

C. Class4.3
D. Class 4.4
146. The classification of substance that emit flammable gases when it contact with water is:
A. Class 5.1
B. Class 4.3
C. Class 5.3
D. Class 5.2
147. The classification of oxidizing substance is _______.
A. Class 5.3
B. Class 5.2
C. Class 6.0
D. Class 5.1
148. The date of entry into force of the 1978 Protocol was __ -according to Marpol
A. Oct. 2, 1984
B. Oct. 2, 1983
C. Oct. 2, 1982
D. Oct. 2, 1979
149. Satisfying the requirements for SBT + PL but not COW, oil tankers should be designed as
_______.
A. product carrier
B. oil tanker
C. product tanker
D. crude tanker

16


150. Satisfying the requirements for SBT + PL + COW, oil tankers may be designed as
________.
A. crude oil/product carrier

B. oil tanker
C. product carrier
D. crude tanker
151. Concerning reports on incidents involving harmful substance, the provisions are contained
in:
A. Protocol II
B. Protocol I
C. Appendix I to Annex I
D. Resolution A.648 (16)
152. For the prevention of Pollution by Oil, regulations entered into force on _______.
A. Oct. 2, 1984
B. Oct. 2, 1985
C. Oct. 2, 1982
D. Oct. 2, 1983
153. For damage to living resources of less than 1 mg/l, the rating is _______.
A. slightly toxic
B. highly toxic
C. non-toxic
D. moderately toxic
154. Existing oil tankers with deadweight of 40,000 tons may be designed as _______.
A. oil tanker
B. crude oil/product carrier
C. product carrier
D. crude tanker
155. Satisfying the requirements for SBT, existing oil tankers with deadweight of 40,000 tons
and above should be designed as ______.
A. product carrier
B. oil tanker
C. crude oil/product carrier
D. crude tanker

156. Satisfying the requirements for COW only, existing oil tankers should be designed as
_______.
A. product carrier
B. oil tanker
C. crude tanker
D. crude oil/product carrier
157. "New Tanker" means a tanker with a building contract after ___ according to Marpol
A. June 1, 1984
B. June 1, 1979
C. June 1, 1980
D. June 1, 1982
158. "New Tanker" means a tanker in which construction work started after __ according to
Marpol
A. June 1, 1982
B. June. 1, 1984
C. June 1, 1979
D. Jan. 1980
159. "New Tanker" means a tanker whose construction is completed after ___ according to
Marpol
A. June 1, 1982
B. June 1, 1984
C. Jan. 1, 1980
D. June 1, 1979

17


160. Satisfying the requirements for CBT, existing oil tankers should be designed as _______.
A. oil tanker
B. crude oil/tanker

C. product carrier
D. crude tanker
161. To which Annex I applies, any discharge of oil or oily mixtures from ships into the sea
shall be banned if the following conditions are not met except _____.
A. the tanker is enroute
B. the oil/oily discharge is less than 50 ppm
C. the tanker isn't within the special are
D. the tanker is more than 50nm from shoreline
162. Certified for an effluent with oil content of less than _____. Ships of 400 GRT but less than
10,000 GRT within 12 miles from the nearest and is required to have an oily separator
A. 100 ppm
B. 15 ppm
C. 90 ppm
D. 50 ppm
163. Not fitted with SBT + PL, oil tankers of 20,000 tons deadweight and above but less than
30,000 tons deadweights should be designed as _______.
A. oil tanker
B. crude tanker
C. crude oil/product carrier
D. product carrier
164. Satisfying the requirements for SBT, new oil tankers of 70,000 tons deadweight and above
may be designed as ________.
A. crude oil/product carrier
B. oil tanker
C. product carrier
D. crude tanker
165. A tanker designed to carry oil or alternatively solid cargoes in bulk is called ____according
to Solas.
A. Oil/Bulk tanker
B. Special Tanker

C. OBO (Oil-Bulk-Oil)
D. Combination carrier
166. With two pumped simultaneously delivering through nozzles, through any adjacent
hydrants, what would be the minimum pressures to be maintained at all hydrants on a
passenger ship of 4,000 GRT and upwards?
A. 0.17 N/mm2
B. 0.35 N/mm2
C. 0.52 N/mm2
D. 0.31 N/mm2
167. Oil Record Book shall be provided to any ship (other than oil tankers) ___ under Reg. 20 of
Annex I or Marpol 73/78.
A. 500 GRT or more
B. 150 GRT or more
C. 300 GRT or more
D. 400 GRT or more
168. Segregated ballast tanks shall be provided to a new product carrier with a deadweight of
___ tons and above.
A. 70,000
B. 20,000
C. 30,000
D. 40,000

18


169. The survey, inspection and marking of ships as regard the enforcement of the provisions of
the Load Line Convention 1966 and the granting of exemption shall be carried out by the
officers of the _______.
A. International Maritime Organization
B. Loading Port Authorities of the State to which the port belongs

C. Port State whose port the ship is bound
D. Administration of the Flag State under whose flag the ship is sailing
170. When is the periodical inspection in connection with the ship's Load Line Certificate held?
A. The inspection is carried out three months after the anniversary date of the completion
of initial Survey
B. The inspection is carried out within three months of the anniversary date of
completion of initial survey
C. The inspection is carried out within 3 months of the date of the owners request for
inspection
D. The inspection is carried out before the anniversary date of the completion of initial
survey
171. What is purpose of periodical inspection conducted on or before the annual anniversary of
the date of the certificate?
A. Ascertain that the load line disc and marks have not been repositioned
B. Check that the certificate is not fake
C. Ensure that the Load Line Certificate is aboard the ship and not lost
D. Ensure no alteration were made to hull or superstructure of the ship that will
affect soundness of hull and calculation in determining the position of the load line
markings
172. When a ship in fresh water of unit density, the appropriate load line may ________.
A. an allowance proportional to the difference between 1025 and the actual fresh water
density at the port
B. not be submerged
C. the summer load line mark to be on the safe side
D. be submerged by the amount of fresh water allowance shown on the Load Line
Certificate
173. Segregated ballast tanks shall be provided to a(an) ___ with deadweight of 20,000 tons and
above
A. new product carrier
B. existing product tanker

C. new crude oil tanker
D. existing crude oil tanker
174. Segregated ballast tanks shall be provided to a(an) ___ with deadweight of 30,000 tons and
above
A. existing crude oil tanker
B. existing product tanker
C. new crude oil tanker
D. new product carrier
175. SOPEP should be carried to every oil tanker of ___ under Reg. 26, Annex I or Marpol
73/78.
A. 150 GRT
B. 500 GRT or more
C. 100 GRT or more
D. 300 GRT or more
176. SOPEP should be carried to every ship (other than oil tankers) of __ under Reg. 26, Annex
I of marpol 73/78
A. 500 GRT or more
B. 400 GRT or more
C. 150 GRT or more
D. 300 GRT or more

19


177. Segregated ballast tanks shall be provided to a new crude oil tanker with a deadweight of
__ tons and above
A. 70,000
B. 20,000
C. 30,000
D. 40,000

178. At least two slop tanks shall be provided to new oil tankers of __ tons deadweight and
above
A. 70,000
B. 30,000
C. 20,000
D. 40,000
179. Oily-water separating equipment of __ shall be fitted to any ship of 400 GRT and above
but less than 10,000 GRT.
A. 17 ppm
B. 100 ppm
C. 50 ppm
D. 35 ppm
180. Either oil-water separating equipment or oil-filtering equipment of __ shall be fitted to any
ship of 10,000 GRT and above
A. 100 ppm
B. 50 ppm
C. 17 ppm
D. 15 ppm
181. Pipelines should be standard with an outside diameter of ___ to enable pipes of reception
facilities to be connected with the ships discharge pipelines for residues from machinery
bilges
A. 215 mm
B. 250 mm
C. 225 mm
D. 235 mm
182. With two pumps simultaneously delivering through nozzles, through any adjacent hydrants,
what would be the minimum pressures to be maintained at all hydrants on a passenger ship
of 6,000 GRT and upwards?
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.25 N/mm2

C. 0.31 N/mm2
D. 0.17 N/mm2
183. The required portable fluid extinguishers should have a capacity of not more than ______.
A. 11 liters
B. 10.5 liters
C. 13.5 liters
D. 12 liters
184. All ships of__ and upwards shall be inclined and the elements of their stability determined
according to Solas. Reg. II - 1/22.
A. 150 m
B. 100 m
C. 79 m
D. 20 m
185. Pipelines should be standard with a bolt circle diameter of ___ to enable pipes of reception
facilities to be connected with the ships discharge pipelines for residues from machinery
bilges
A. 190 mm
B. 183 mm
C. 185 mm
D. 200 mm

20


186. To ensure that tanks for the carriage of Category C codes not retain residue in excess of 0.3
cubic meters in the tanks associated piping, every ship constructed on or after ___ shall be
provided with pumping and piping arrangement.
A. July 1, 1984
B. July 1980
C. July 1, 1986

D. July 1, 1982
187. Relating to the International Convention, the entry into force of the 1978 Protocol for the
prevention of pollution from ships was _______.
A. Oct. 2, 1983
B. Oct. 2, 1984
C. Oct. 2, 1985
D. Oct. 2, 1986
188. For damage to living resources of 10-100 mg/l, the rating is ______.
A. moderately toxic
B. highly toxic
C. non-toxic
D. slightly toxic
189. For damage to living resources of 100-1000 mg/l, the rating is _______.
A. moderately toxic
B. practically non-toxic
C. highly toxic
D. non-toxic
190. For damage to living resources of greater than 1000 mg/l, the rating is _______.
A. non-hazardous
B. non-toxic
C. moderately toxic
D. practically non-toxic
191. To hazard to human health by oral intake of less than 5 mg/kg, the rating is ______.
A. moderately hazardous
B. highly hazardous
C. slightly hazardous
D. non-hazardous
192. The hazard to human health by oral intake of less than 5-50 mg/kg is rated as _______.
A. moderately hazardous
B. highly hazardous

C. slightly hazardous
D. non-hazardous
193. The hazard to human health by oral intake of less than 50-500 mg/kg is rated as ________.
A. highly hazardous
B. moderately hazardous
C. slightly hazardous
D. non-hazardous
194. On the basis of the requirement of ____ , the recommendation on testing acid evaluation of
life saving appliances have been developed.
A. Chapter IV, Solas 1974
B. Chapter V, Solas 1974
C. Chapter III, Solas 1974
D. Chapter VI, Solas 1974
195. After survey in accordance with Reg. 4 of Annex I of Marpol 73/78 to any tanker of ____ ,
an IOPP should be issued.
A. 150 GRT or more
B. 400 GRT or more
C. 300 GRT or more
D. 100 GRT or more

21


196. After survey in accordance with Reg. 4 of Annex I of Marpol 73/78 to any cargo ship of
____ , an IOPP should be issued.
A. 400 GRT or more
B. 300 GRT or more
C. 100 or more
D. 150 GRT or more
197. Oil Record Book shall be provided to oil tanker of __ under Reg. 20 of Annex I of Marpol

73/78.
A. 300 GRT or more
B. 150 GRT or more
C. 400 GRT or more
D. 100 GRT or more
198. The 1983 Solas amendments to the 1974 Convention entered into a force on ______.
A. 1 July 1986
B. 1 July 1989
C. 1 July 1992
D. 1 July 1988
199. Adopted in 1988, further amendments to chapter III (Solas 1974) entered into force on
_______.
A. Feb 1 1995
B. Feb 1 1992
C. Feb 1 1993
D. Feb 1 1994
200. Segregated ballast tanks shall be provided to an existing crude oil tanker with deadweight
of ____ tons and above
A. 40,000
B. 70,000
C. 20,000
D. 30,000
201. The Carriage of Goods by the Sea came into force on _______.
A. 1946
B. 1956
C. 1966
D. 1936
202. Hatch cover cleats should be spaced ___ from center to center.
A. 600 mm
B. 800 mm

C. 500 mm
D. 700 mm
203. Imposes the obligations upon flag states to ensure safety in the high seas with regard to the
construction, equipment and seaworthiness
A. STCW '95
B. Unclos 82
C. Solas 74
D. STCW '78
204. Which of the following does not meet the purpose of SOPEP?
A. understood by ship management personnel, both onboard and ashore
B. it must be in the English language for everybody to understand
C. realistic, practical and easy to use
D. evaluated, reviewed and updated regularly
205. The International Loadline assigned to a vessel complies ___ convention.
A. 1966
B. 1969
C. 1960
D. 1978

22


206. As referred to in the Marpol Convention, the MEPC stands for:
A. Maritime Environmental Pollution Control
B. Marine Environment Protocol Committee
C. Marine Environment Protection Committee
D. Marine Environment Protection Control
207. Under the STCW Convention, __ deals with emergency, safety, medical care and survival
functions?
A. Regulation VI

B. Regulation V
C. Regulation IV
D. Regulation III
208. Under the STCW Convention, ___ deals with watch keeping.
A. Regulation VI
B. Regulation VII
C. Regulation VIII
D. Regulation V
209. Is the official proof of a vessel's ownership
A. Logbook
B. Transfer Certificate
C. Certificate of Documentation
D. Bill of Sale
210. Is where the official identification is found
A. Certificate of Documentation
B. Classification Certificate
C. Certificate of Inspection
D. Loadline Cetificate
211. A 30,000 DWT tank ship is required to have an IOPP Certificate when _______.
A. carrying cargoes listed in the MARPOL regulations
B. engaged in coastwise trade
C. calling at ports of another country signatory to MARPOL 73/78
D. going foreign
212. As used in the Oil Pollution Regulations, the term "slop tank" means a tank specifically
designated for the collection of _______.
A. tank washings
B. oily mixtures
C. tank drainings
D. all of these
213. How is the standard reference for freights or all tankers called?

A. Flat scale
B. Work Scale 100
C. Universal tanker scale
D. Intascale flat
214. What does "a.a." in a fixture note mean?
A. always afloat
B. above all
C. all above
D. all about
215. Is not an acceptable date for one of the surveys for endorsements if your vessel is issued a
load line certificate dated 27 May 1987.
A. 28 Feb. 1988
B. 27 Nov. 1988
C. 26 Aug 1989
D. 27 May 1986

23


216. As prescribed by Solas, buoyant lifelines have a breaking strength of not less than
_______.
A. 5 kN
B. 19 kN
C. 15 kN
D. 20 Kn
217. You are the chief mate of a 30,000 DWT tank ship that is engaged in the trade to another
country signatory to MARPOL 73/78. Which of the following is true?
A. The IOPP Certificate is valid for 4 years
B. An IOPP Certificate is renewed at each inspection for certification
C. The Certificate of Inspection serves as prima facie evidence of complying with Marpol

73/78
D. An IOPP Certificate is invalidated if the ship carries cargoes outside the classes
authorized thereon
218. Is not applied by the International Convention on Tonnage Measurement
A. ships of war, dredgers, cable laying ship
B. ships of war, and ships less than 50 meters
C. ships of war, fishing vessels and trawlers
D. ships of war, and ships less than 24 meters
219. Which survey for oil tankers of 150 GRT or more is conducted at intervals not exceeding
30 months?
A. intermediate
B. periodical
C. special owner's
D. class
220. Satisfying the requirements for SBT, PL, and COW, a new oil tanker of 20,000 deadweight
may be designated as ___ as per Marpol reg. 2.
I. Crude Oil Tanker
II. Product Tanker
III. Chemical Tanker
A. I and II
B. I only
C. II only
D. III only
221. Should be recorded in the Oil Record Book for accidental and exceptional discharge or
escape of oil
I. Date and time of occurrence
II. Position of ship
III. Approximate quantity and type of oil
IV. Circumstances of discharge and general mark
A. I and II

B. III and IV
C. II and III
D. all of these
222. Ensures that the provisions regarding steps to control oil discharge are complied with
A. Protocol of Marpol 73
B. Reg. 23, Annex I of Marpol 73/78
C. Reg. 26 Annex I Marpol 73/78
D. Reg. 22(2) Annex V of Marpol 73/78

24


223. Under UNCLOS, which of the following is Not True?
A. Freedom of the seas shall be enjoyed between Coastal States and States having no sea
coast
B. Ships flying the flag of the Sate treatment equal to that accorded to their own ships or to
ships of any other States as regards to seaport and he use of such ports
C. State having no sea-coast shall have a free transit thru other territory on the basis
of a contracted agreement
D. States situated between the sea and a State having no sea coast shall settle by mutual
agreement all matters relating to freedom of transit
224. Under OPA 90, how many barrels of oily waste should shipboard pollution containers at
least have?
A. 50
B. 12
C. 30
D. 20
225. Which of the following does the International Convention on Civil Liability for Oil
Pollution Damage not exclusively apply to?
A. Pollution damage caused in the territory of Contracting State

B. Pollution damage caused in the exclusive economic zone of a Contracting State
C. Pollution damage caused in an area beyond and adjacent to the territorial sea of a State
determined by hat State in accordance with international law
D. Pollution damage in the high seas and territorial waters of any Contracting State
226. On Feb. 24, 1950 up to ___ , provisions were adopted by Unclos as generally declaratory of
established principles of international law
A. April 27, 1956
B. April 27, 1955
C. April 27, 1958
D. April 27, 1957
227. Under its flag, the master of the ship is required by every state ___ according to Annex 4 of
Unclos 1982.
A. to proceed with all possible speed to the rescue of persons in distress within a
radius of 100 nm
B. to render assistance to any person found at sea in danger of being lost
C. after collision, to inform the other of the name of his own ship, her port of registry and
the nearest port of registry and the nearest port at which she will call
D. after collision, to render assistance the other ship, her crew and passengers
228. The MEPC of the IMO prepared guidelines for SOPEP is required under __ Marpol 73/78.
A. Reg. 26, Annex II
B. Reg. 26, Annex I
C. Reg. 24, Annex II
D. Reg. 24, Annex I
229. What is the meaning of SOPEP?
A. Spill of Oil Prevention and Environment Protection
B. Shipboard Oil Prevention and Environment Protection
C. Shipboard Oil Pollution and Environment Protection
D. Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plans
230. Resulting from escape or discharge of oil from ship, under the International Convention on
Civil Liability for Oil Pollution Damage, the loss or damage caused outside the ship by

contamination is called ______.
A. Oil pollution damage
B. Oil damage
C. Contamination damage
D. Pollution damage

25