CÂU HỎI TRẮC NGHIỆM CHUYÊN MÔN CHO SỸ QUAN QUẢN LÝ 5

F1- NAVIGATION
1. Generation or production of cyclones.
A. frontal depression
B. frontogenesis
C. frontolysis
D. cyclogenesis
2. Water vapor over the plane ice surface is less than that plane water surface
because____________.
A. plane ice surface is cooler than plane water surface
B. water vapor is directly proportional with the temperature of the air
C. water vapor is proportional with the temperature of the air
D. the molecules are more tightly bound in the solid state
3. During poor visibility, a watch keeping officer is given fullest responsibility to utilize all
available resources on the bridge, with respect to additional look-outs, does it mean the extra
look-out should perform _________.
A. stand on the bridge wing with binoculars, come rain or snow
B. report to Master any misbehavior on the bridge
C. radar monitoring
D. officer's personal and official messenger
4. The type of clouds which is formed by a very extensive of two masses of air from middle
latitudes and from higher and colder latitudes, associated with front.
A. Cumulus-Nimbus
B. Frontal Cloud
C. Orographic Cloud
D. Cumulus
5. Buy's Ballot Law which states "If you stand with your back to the wind in the northern
hemisphere, higher pressure will be on the right hand and lower pressure on the left, the reverse
is true in the southern hemisphere". This law is evolved by a __________.
A. German
B. Dutchman
C. French

D. English
6. The most convenient method of maintaining record of ship's magnetic compass deviation is
the annual adjustment of this particular reference, otherwise known as ___________.
A. deviation daily observation record
B. deviation card
C. magnetic chart
D. compensation card
7. This is a very valuable publications in determining physical characteristics of the weather and
other meteorological knowledge, as published by the Hydrographic Department of the Ministry
of Defense of U.K.
A. Almanac
B. The Mariner’s Handbook
C. Sight Reduction Tables
D. Pilot Chart
8. Hard iron is very hard to magnetized, but once magnetized, it retains its poles more or less
permanently. Magnetism in hard iron is termed.
A. permanent magnetism
B. induced magnetism
C. increased magnetism
D. reduced magnetism
9. This physical element has most considerable effect in the weather.
A. none of these
B. oxygen
C. nitrogen
D. water vapor

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10. A unit measuring the strength of a magnetic field is called __________.

A. gauss
B. degauss
C. sauger
D. srauss
11. To indicate a compass adjustment in progress, which international code signal is hoisted?
A. Oscar Quebec
B. Mike Sierra
C. Oscar Mike
D. Charlie Alpha
12. The following are positive signs of open water in ice concentration EXCEPT:
A. water sky indicates the direction of leads or patches of open water
B. the sound of surge in the ice indicates large expanse of open water
C. refractions producing luminous and yellow haze on the horizon
D. dark spots in fog visible at short distance relative to the reflections of the clouds
13. A radio navigation system which operates in a very low frequency is called:
A. Loran C
B. Loran A
C. RDF
D. Omega
14. If you want to know the coordinates of a certain port, the best publication to provide fastest
reference is the __________.
A. coast pilot
B. sailing directions
C. world port index
D. notice to mariners
15. The pressure of the atmosphere fall off with increasing height above the Earth's surface,
because _____________.
A. density decreases with temperature and temperature decreases with height
B. earth's gravitational force sustains air by escaping
C. density increases with temperature and temperature increases with height

D. since the pressure of the atmosphere is due to the weight of the column of air overhead
as one ascends, leaving some of the column of air below.
16. The official document where all pertinent entries are recorded every hour and whenever an
even or unusual incident occurs is _________________.
A. Ship's Official Log Book
B. ISM Checklist
C. Master's Night Order
D. None of these
17. The term used to denote a body being revolved to by its satellites.
A. secondary
B. tertiary
C. territoriality
D. primary
18. What is the angle at the observer between the magnetic north measured clockwise, to the
direction of the object being measured?
A. None of these
B. True course of bearing
C. Magnetic course or bearing
D. Compass course or bearing
19. When you are steering on a pair of range lights and find the upper light is above the lower
light you should__________.
A. come left
B. come right
C. continue on the present course
D. wait until the lights are no longer in a vertical line

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20. Most modern Loran-C receivers, when not tracking properly, have a (n) _________.

A. bell alarm to warn the user
B. lighted alarm signals to warn the user
C. alternative signal keying system
D. view finder for each station
21. You have replaced the chart paper in the course recorder. What is Not required to ensure that
a correct trace is recorded?
A. Test the electrical gain to the thermograph pens
B. Set the zone pen on the correct quadrant
C. Line the course pen up on the exact heading of the ship
D. Adjust the chart paper to indicate the correct time
22. Which buoy is Not numbered?
A. Green can buoy
B. Preferred channel buoy
C. Red lighted buoy
D. Green gong buoy
23. If Loran-C signals become unsynchronized, the receiver operator is warned because;
A. signals begin to blink
B. signals begin to shift
C. stations discontinue transmission
D. stations transmit grass
24. When the gyro pilot is used for steering, what control is adjusted to compensate for varying
sea conditions?
A. Rudder control
B. Sea control
C. Lost motion adjustment
D. Weather adjustment
25. When using a buoy as aid to navigation, which of the following should be considered?
A. The buoy should be considered to always be in the charted location
B. If the light is flashing, the buoy should be considered to be in the charted location
C. The buoy may not be in the charted position

D. The buoy should be considered to be in the charted position if it has been flashing
26. When taking an amplitude, the Sun's center should be observed on the visible horizon when
A. in high latitudes
B. the Sun is near or at a solstice
C. the declination is of a different name from the latitude
D. the Sun's declination is at or near 0º
27. A strong, often violent, northerly wind occurring on the Pacific coast of Mexico particularly
during the colder months is a ____________.
A. papagayo
B. fall wind
C. foehn
D. williwaw
28. A buoy with composite group flashing light indicates a (n) __________.
A. anchorage area
B. fish net area
C. bifurcation
D. dredging area
29. The speed of the sound through ocean water is nearly always _____________.
A. faster than the speed of calibration for the fathometer
B. the same speed as the speed of calibration for the fathometer
C. slower than the speed of calibration for the fathometer
D. faster than the speed of calibration for the fathometer, unless the water is very warm

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30. Red lights may appear on _____________.
A. horizontally banded buoys
B. vertically stripped buoys
C. yellow buoys

D. spherical buoys
31. Mean lower low water is the reference plane used for ___________.
A. all vertical measurements
B. heights above water for lights, mountains, etc.
C. sounding on the U.S. east and west coasts
D. water depths on the U.S. east coast only
32. The LMT of LAN is 1210. Your longitude is 70º 30' E. Which time would you use to
enter the Nautical Almanac to determine the declination of the Sun at LAN?
A. 1842
B. 1652
C. 0728
D. 0652
33. The parallax angle will vary the most with the time of year _____.
A. Venus
B. Jupiter
C. Saturn
D. Polaris
34. A preferred channel buoy may be_____.
A. lettered
B. spherical
C. showing a white light
D. all of the above
35. When operated over a muddy bottom, fathometer may indicate_____.
A. a shallow depth reading
B. a zero depth reading
C. no depth reading
D. two depth readings
36. When there are small differences between the heights of two successive high tides or low
tides in a tidal day, the tides are called __________.
A. diurnal

B. semi-diurnal
C. solar
D. mixed
37. A single line of position combined with a dead-reckoning position results in a(n)_____.
A. assumed position
B. estimated position
C. fix
D. running fix
38. Which position includes the effects of wind and current?
A. Dead reckoning position
B. Leeway position
C. Estimated position
D. Set position
39. What should you apply to a fathometer reading to determine the depth of water?
A. Subtract the draft of the vessel
B. Add the draft of the water
C. Subtract the seawater correction
D. Add the sea water correction
40. Green lights may appear on_____.
A. horizontally banded buoys
B. vertically striped buoys
C. yellow buoys
D. spherical buoys

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41. An electronic depth finder operates on the principle that_____.
A. radio signals reflect from a solid surface
B. sound waves travels at a constant speed through water

C. radar signals travel at a constant speed through water
D. pressure increased with depth
42. In working out in local apparent noon sight for your latitude, you subtract the Ho from 90º.
The 90º represent the angular distance from_____.
A. the equator to the elevated pole
B. your horizon to your zenith
C. your zenith to the elevated pole
D. the geographical position of the Sun to the elevated pole
43. The value of sixty nautical miles per degree of geodetic latitude is most correct at______.
A. the equator
B. latitude 45º
C. the poles
D. all latitudes
44. Under the Iala- A Buoyage System, a buoy used as a port hand mark would not show which
light characteristic?
A. Isophase
B. Quick flashing
C. Long flashing
D. Group flashing (2 + 1 )
45. In modern fathometers the sonic or ultrasonic sound waves are produced electrically by
means of a (a) _________.
A. transmitter
B. transducer
C. transceiver
D. amplifier
46. Which statement is True concerning equatorial tides?
A. This occur when the Sun is at minimum declination north or south
B. This occur when the Moon is at maximum declination north or south
C. The difference between consecutive high or low tides is at a minimum
D. They are used as the basis for the vulgar establishment of the port

47. Which has the greatest effect on the amount of gain required to obtain a fathometer reading?
A. Salinity of water
B. Temperature of water
C. Atmospheric pressure
D. Type of bottom
48. The velocity of the current in large coastal harbors is ___________.
A. predicted in Tidal Current Tables
B. unpredictable
C. generally constant
D. generally too weak to be of concern
49. The apparent wind can be zero when the true wind is from _________.
A. ahead and equal to the ship's speed
B. astern and equal to the ships speed
C. ahead and equal to twice the ship's speed
D. astern and equal to twice the ship's speed
50. The part of sextant mounted directly over the pivot of the index arm is the _________.
A. index mirror
B. horizon glass
C. micrometer drum
D. telescope

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51. You are steering a southerly course, and you note that the chart predicts an easterly current.
Without considering wind, how may you allow for the set?
A. Head your vessel slightly to the right
B. Head your vessel slightly to the left
C. Decrease your speed
D. Increase your speed

52. The scale on a chart is given as 1: 5,000,000. This means that _________.
A. 1 inch is equal to 5,000 inches on the Earth's surface
B. 1 nautical mile on the chart is equal to 5,000 inches on the Earth's surface
C. 1 inch is equal to 5,000,000 inches on the Earth's surface
D. 1 nautical mile on the chart is equal to 5,000,000 inches on the Earth's surface
53. The horizon glass of a sextant is __________.
A. silvered on its half nearer the frame
B. mounted on the index arm
C. between the horizon and the shade glasses
D. all of the above
54. Chart legend printed in capital letters show that the associated landmark is _________.
A. conspicuous
B. inconspicuous
C. a government facility or station
D. a radio transmitter
55. When navigating using GPS, what is an indicator of the geometry of the satellites that your
receiver is locked onto?
A. Horizontal Dilution of Precision
B. Selective Availability
C. Doppler Shifting
D. Precision Coding
56. When using GPS, how many position lines are required for a 2D (dimensional) fix?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
57. When the question of time is taken from the Nautical Almanac for use in celestial navigation,
it is used to determine __________.
A. zone time
B. sunrise

C. time of local apparent noon
D. local mean time
58. The National Ocean Service publishes the ____________.
A. Light Lists
B. Coast Pilot
C. Pilot Charts
D. Sailing Directions
59. When using a radar in un-stabilized mode, fixes are determined most easily from _____.
A. center bearings
B. tangent bearings
C. ranges
D. objects that are closed aboard
60. The difference (measured in degrees) between the GHA of the body and the longitude of the
observer is the _________.
A. right ascension
B. meridian angle
C. SHA of the observer
D. zenith distance

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61. Vessels required to have an Automatic Radar Plotting Aid must have a device to indicate the
_________.
A. distance to the next port
B. speed of the vessel over the ground or through the water
C. time of the next navigational satellite pass
D. none of the above
62. When daylight savings time is kept the times of tide and current calculation must be
adjusted. One way of doing this is to _________.

A. subtract one hour from the times listed under the reference stations
B. add one hour from the times listed under the reference stations
C. apply no corrections, as the times in the reference stations are adjusted for daylight
savings time
D. add 15° to the starboard meridian when calculating the time difference
63. When making landfall at night, the light from the powerful lighthouse may sometimes be
seen before the lantern breaks the horizon. This light is called ___________.
A. diffusion
B. backscatter
C. loom
D. elevation
64. Prior to reading an aneroid barometer, you should tap the face lightly with your finger to___.
A. expose any loose connections
B. demagnetized the metal elements
C. bring pointer to its true position
D. contract and expand the glass face
65. What is an advantage of the magnetic compass aboard vessel?
A. Compass error is negligible at or near the earth's magnetic pole
B. It does not have to be checked as often
C. It is reliable due to its essential simplicity
D. All points on the compass rose are readily visible
66. You are using radar in which your own ship is shown at the center, and the heading flash
always points at 0°. If bearings are measured in relation to the flash, what type of bearings
are produced?
A. Relative
B. True
C. Compass
D. Magnetic
67. What is True concerning an anemometer on a moving vessel?
A. It measures true wind speed

B. It measures true wind speed and true wind direction
C. It measures apparent wind speed
D. It measures apparent wind speed and true wind direction
68. The tropical year differs from which year by 20 minutes?
A. Astronomical year
B. Natural year
C. Equinoctial year
D. Sidereal year
69. The arc of great circle, which passes through the body and celestial poles is part of the
_______.
A. hour circle
B. diurnal circle
C. observer's meridian
D. altitude circle

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70. The chart of a beach area shows a very steep slope to the underwater beach bottom. Which
breakers can be expected when trying to land a boat on this beach?
A. Surging
B. Converging
C. Spilling
D. Plunging
71. Low pressure disturbances, which travel along the inter-tropical convergence zone are called
_______.
A. permanent waves
B. tidal waves
C. tropical waves
D. tropical storms

72. Barometers are calibrated at a standard temperature of _________.
A. 0° F
B. 32° F
C. 60º F
D. 70° F
73. In which voyage, between two points, is the rhumbline distance Not approximately the same
as the great circle distance?
A. The two points are in low latitudes in the same hemisphere
B. The two points are in high latitudes in the same hemisphere
C. The two points is near the equator, but in different hemisphere
D. One point is near the equator, one point is in a high latitude and both are near the 180th
meridian
74. Which statement is True concerning Mercator projection?
A. Degrees of longitude decrease in length as latitude increases
B. The length of the meridian is increased to provide for equal expansions in all directions
C. The mileage between the meridians is increased as the latitude increases
D. All of the above
75. What kind of weather would you expect to accompany the passage of a tropical wave?
A. Heavy rain and cloudiness
B. Good weather
C. A tropical storm
D. Dense fog
76. You have another ship overtaking you close aboard to starboard. You have 3 radar target
bearings 090° relative at ranges of 0.5 miles. In this case, the unwanted echoes are called
____.
A. multiple echoes
B. spoking
C. indirect echoes
D. side-lobe echoes
77. When using the radar for navigating __________.

A. the best fix is obtained by using a tangent bearing and a range
B. and using two radar range for a fix, the object of the ranges should be closed to
reciprocal bearings
C. and using ranges, the most rapidly changing range should be measured last
D. and crossing a radar range of one object with the visual bearings of a second object, the
two objects should be 80° to 110° apart
78. What is the length of a nautical mile?
A. 1,850 meters
B. 5,280 meters
C. 1,760 yards
D. 6,076 feet

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79. A swift current occurring in a narrow passage connecting two large bodies of water, which
produced by the continuously changing difference in height of tide at the two ends of the
passage, is called _________.
A. hydraulic current
B. rectilinear current
C. rotary current
D. harmonic current
80. Your ARPA had two guard zones. What is the purpose of the inner guard zone?
A. Alert the watch officer that a vessel is approaching the preset CPA limit
B. Warn of small targets that are initially detected closer than the outer guard zone
C. Guard against targets loss during critical maneuvering situations
D. Sound an alarm for targets first detected within the zone
81. What is True of the history display of a target's past position on an ARPA?
A. It provides a graphic display to emphasize which vessel is on collision course
B. In the true presentation, it provides a quick visual check to determine if a vessel has

changed course
C. The display is one of the primary inputs and must be in use when using the trial maneuver
capability
D. It provides a graphic display of a target vessel's relative course, speed and CPA
82. Most GPS receiver use the doppler shift of the carrier phase to compute the________.
A. latitude
B. longitude
C. speed
D. time
83. What is a common unit of measure for atmospheric pressure?
A. Centimeters
B. Inches
C. Degrees
D. Feet
84. As a vessel change course to starboard, the compass card in a magnetic compass_________.
A. first turn starboard then counterclockwise to port
B. also turn to starboard
C. remains aligned with compass north
D. turns counterclockwise to port
85. Chart correction information is Not disseminated through the_____________.
A. Summary of Corrections
B. Local Notice to Mariners
C. Daily Memorandum
D. Chart Correction Card
86. Diurnal aberration is due to _____________.
A. motion of the Earth in its orbit
B. rotation of the Earth on its axis
C. the body's orbital motion during the time required for its light to reach the Earth
D. a false horizon
87. The greater pressure difference between a high and a low pressure center, the __________.

A. dryer the air mass will be
B. cooler temperature will be
C. greater the force of the wind will be
D. warmer the temperature will be
88. At the magnetic equator there is no induced magnetism in the vertical soft iron
because______.
A. the lines of force cross the equator on a 0º- 180º alignment
B. the quadrantal error is 0º
C. there is no vertical component of the Earth's magnetic field
D. the inter-cardinal headings have less than 1º error

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89. When taking stars, those bodies to the east and west will ____________.
A. change altitude rapidly
B. change altitude slowly
C. remain in an almost fixed position
D. appear to be moving in the plane of the horizon
90. A navigator fixing a vessel's position by a radar ______________.
A. must use information from targets forward of the beam
B. should never use radar bearings
C. should only use radar bearings when the range exceeds the distance to the horizon
D. can use radar information from one object to fix the position
91. When a buoy is in position only during a certain period of the year, where may the dates when
the buoy is in position be found?
A. Light List
B. Notice to Mariners
C. On the chart
D. Coast Pilot

92. The National Imagery and Mapping Agency's (NIMA) List of Lights for coasts other than the
United States and its possessions does Not provide information on __________.
A. lighted buoys in harbors
B. storm signal stations
C. radio direction finder stations at or near lights
D. radio beacons located at or near lights
93. The quadrantal spheres are used ____________.
A. remove deviation on the inter cardinal headings
B. remove deviation on the cardinal compass headings
C. remove heeling error
D. compensate for induced magnetism in vertical soft iron
94. An aneroid barometer reading should be corrected for differences in _____________.
A. elevation
B. temperature
C. wind speed
D. latitude
95. At what angle to the isobars do surface wind blows over the open sea?
A. About 90º
B. About 50º
C. About 25º
D. About 15º
96. Isobaric configuration with low pressure refers to as ___________.
A. trough
B. wedge
C. saddle
D. col
97. Precession of the earth's axis is caused by ____________.
A. movement of celestial equator as celestial poles move likewise
B. gravitational forces of the Sun and the moon acting on the earth's equatorial bulge
C. movement of vernal equinox westerly due to gravitational attraction

D. westward motion of the equinoxes along the ecliptic
98. If the observer is at Lat 50º N, declination of the sun is 15º S, which of the following is
observed?
A. daylight and darkness are equal
B. darkness is longer than daylight
C. daylight is longer than darkness
D. darkness is shorter than daylight

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99. When certain ferromagnetic materials are so susceptible to a magnetizing field that they
draw the flux lines into themselves, resulting in a greatly increased concentration of lines
within the materials, is referred to as __________.
A. polarization
B. susceptibility
C. magnetic induction
D. permeability
100. A concentration of sea ice covering hundreds of square miles, which is found on the same
region, is referred to as ______________.
A. ice remains
B. ice deposit
C. ice leftover
D. ice mass
101. When the radar waves are trapped in the atmosphere, which of the following occurs?
A. Loss of energy to the radio waves
B. Radar energy remain unchanged
C. Increased in radar range
D. Radar energy remain unchanged
102. When air is compressed its temperature increases conversely, when it is allowed to

expand, its temperature decreases. This changes is due to__________.
A. saturation
B. adiabatic changes
C. evaporation
D. condensation
103. This is one factor affecting gain and low speed of a ship. Heavier ships are slower to
gain and loose speed than smaller ships. This variable is referred to as ________.
A. size of ships
B. inertia
C. shape of hull
D. none of these
104. Following are unwanted echoes Except ;
A. normal radar echoes
B second trace echoes
C. weather echoes
D. none of these
105. The extension of the earth's equator to the celestial sphere.
A. declination
B. equinoctial
C. diurnal circle
D. prime vertical
106. The path of a ship compass platform as she turn through 360º at a certain speed and with a
certain rudder angle is called;
A. pivoting point
B. turning circle
C. thrust
D. drift angle
107. Which among these unit is Not a part of a SATNAV?
A. Transmitter
B. Antenna

C. Video display
D. Data processor
108. The ability of a radar to distinguish targets relative to range, is called ___________.
A. range elongation
B. range segregation
C. range propagation
D. range resolution

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109. If the LMT is ahead of the LAT the equation of time is ___________.
A. negative
B. same as LAT
C. same as LMT
D. positive
110. Ocean swells originating from a typhoon can move ahead of it at speeds near _______.
A. 10 knots
B. 20 knots
C. 30 knots
D. 50 knots
111. When the time of the high water is known, the approximate time for low water can be
determined by adding or subtracting one forth of a lunar day which is equivalent to:
A. 6h-13m
B. 6h-33m
C. 6h-45m
D. 6h-05m
112. The velocity of rotary tidal current will decrease when the moon is:
A. full
B. at apogee

C. at perigee
D. on the equator
113. Slack tidal current usually occurs how many times daily?
A. Two
B. One
C. Four
D. Three
114. Why is the height of the tide in the Tide Table essential in determining the true depth of
water at any time than shown in the chart?
A. The depth of the water at any time is obtained by adding the height of the tide to the
charted depth
B. The depth of the water at any time is obtained by subtracting the height of the tide if it
is negative
C. The height of the tide may be checked readily by taking soundings to be sure of
the keel clearance from the bottom
D. If the height of the tide is equal to the charted depth is an alarm that the ship may touch
Bottom
115. The highest low water datum in considerable use is:
A. Mean Lower Low Water (MLLW)
B. Mean Low Water (MLW)
C. Mean Lower High Water (MLHW)
D. Lowest Low Water (LLW)
116. The admiralty tide tables are published in UK in the volumes covering all bodies of waters
worldwide. Which of the following area is not covered by these volumes?
A. The Artic and Antarctic Oceans
B. The Atlantic and Indian Oceans
C. European Water
D. The Pacific and adjacent seas
117. What may occur when strong current set over irregular bottom or meets opposing currents?
A. Tsunami

B. Wave
C. Ebb current
D. Tide rips

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118. In the East Coast of the Philippines Archipelago the effect of Tropic Tides is less marked.
There are usually ___, high water and ___low water each lunar day.
A. One, one
B. Two, two
C. One, two
D. Two, one
119. The times and heights of high and low waters as predicted in the admiralty tide table are
for:
A. standard ports
B. primary ports
C. secondary ports
D. major ports
120. The sky is overcast and there is a moderate southerly wind at night. This
means______________.
A. temperature will generally rise
B. temperature will generally fall
C. winds will generally rise
D. winds will generally fall
121. Which of the following statements is True with respect to ship handling procedures in ice?
A. Anchoring in the presence of ice is not recommended except in an emergency
B. Towing a vessel through an ice field is not recommended except in an emergency
C. The "free and proceed" system of escorting a beset cuts down on the number of freeing
operations

D. When anchoring in ice it is advisable to increase the scope of the chain
122. Which of the following is ice of land origin?
A. Shuga
B. Floe
C. Spicule
D. Bergy bit
123. Which of the following types of ice a hazard to navigation?
A. Ice rind
B. Pancake ice
C. Frazil ice
D. Growlers
124. Multi-layer ice is the hardest sea ice and should be avoided if possible. What is the surface
color of this type of ice?
A. Greenish
B. Bluish
C. Grey
D. Grey-white
125. Which of the following is Not an indication that pack ice may be nearby?
A. The presence of icebergs
B. Ice blink
C. Absence of wave motion
D. Sighting a walrus in the Arctic
126. The proximity of pack ice may be indicated by ___________.
A. changes in sea water salinity
B. glare on clouds on the horizon
C. changes in air temperature
D. icebergs
127. Which characteristics is common to advection fog?
A. It commonly occurs on coastal waters during cold seasons
B. It moves in a "bank" or dense cloud

C. It is caused by warmer air moving to a cooler location
D. All of these characteristics are common to advection fog

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128. Ascending and descending air masses with different temperatures is part of an important
that transmitting processes in our atmosphere called:
A. conduction
B. radiation
C. convection
D. barometric inversion
129. Air circulation is caused or affected by:
A. The rotation of the earth on its axis
B. Convection currents caused by differences in radiant heating between equator and
polar regions
C. Mountain ranges
D. All of the above
130. This is an area in which either navigation is particularly hazardous or it is exceptionally important to
avoid casualties and which should be avoided by all ships, or certain classes of ships
A. precautionary area
B. area to avoided
C. roundabout
D. traffic lane
131. You are running parallel to the coast and take a running fix using bearing of the same
object. You are making more speed than used for the running fix. In relation to the position
indicated by the fix, you will be:
A. closer to the coast
B. farther from the coast
C. on the track line ahead of the fix

D. on the track line behind the fix
132. You are running parallel to the coast and estimate that the current is against you. In plotting
a running fix using bearing from the same object on the coast, the greatest safety margin
from inshore dangers will result if what speed is used to determine the fix?
A. Minimum speed estimate
B. Maximum speed estimate
C. Average speed estimate
D. A running fix should not be used under this condition
133. When you turn on the fast time constant (differentiator) control of a radar it will ____.
A. Enhance weak target echoes and brighten them on the PPI
B. Reduce clutter over the entire PPI by shortening the echoes
C. Only suppress weak targets to a limited distance from the ship (sea clutter)
D. Reduce the beam width to provide a map-like presentation for navigation
134. The radar control that shortens all echoes on the display and reduces clutter caused by rain
or snow is the?
A. Sensitivity time control
B. Receiver gain control
C. Brilliance control
D. Fast time constant (differentiator)
135. The radar control that reduces weak echoes out to a limited distance from the ship is the?
A. Sensitivity time control (sea clutter control)
B. Receiver gain control
C. Brilliance control
D. Fast time constant (differentiator)
136. If there is any doubt as to the proper operation of a radar, which of the following is true?
A. Only a radar expert can determine if the radar is operating
B. All radars have indicator lights and alarms to signal improper operation
C. A radar range compared to the actual range of a known object can be used to
check the operation of the radar
D. The radar resolution detector must be energized to check the radar

14


137. What is the approximate wave length of an X band radar operating on a frequency of
approximately 9500 MHz?
A. 3 cm
B. 10 cm
C. 30 cm
D. 100 cm
138. The 3 cm radar as compared to a 10 cm radar with similar specification will_____.
A. give better range performance in rain, hail, etc.
B. display small targets in a mass of dense sea clutter at a greater range
C. have less sea return in choppy rough seas
D. display a more map like presentation for inshore navigation
139. The 10 cm radar as compared to a 3 cm radar similar specifications will ____.
A. be more suitable for river and harbor navigation
B. provide a better range performance on low lying targets during good weather and calm
seas
C. have a wider horizontal beam width
D. have more sea return during rough sea conditions
140. Your radar indicates a target; however there is no visible object at the point indicated. A
large mountain, approximately 50 miles away on the same bearing as the target, is
breaking the horizon. You should suspect the radar target is caused by ________.
A. a submerge submarine
B. ducting
C. sub-refraction
D. ionospheric skip waves
141. What condition indicates that your radar needs maintenance?
A. Serrated range rings

B. Indirect echoes
C. Multiple echoes
D. Blind sector
142. You are underway at 5 knots and see on your radar a contact 10 miles directly astern of
you, 12 minutes later, the contact is 8 miles directly astern of you. What is the estimated
speed of the contact?
A. Dead in the water
B. 1 knot
C. 10 knots
D. 15 knots
143. You are underway at 10 knots. At 1800 you note a radar contact dead ahead at a range of
10 miles. At 1812 the contact is dead ahead at a range of 8 miles. The estimated speed of
the contact is ______.
A. Dead in the water
B. 5 knots
C. 10 knots
D. 15 knots
144. The closet point of approach (CPA) of a contact on a relative motion radar may be
determined ______.
A. immediately when the contact is noted on radar
B. only if the radar scope is watched constantly
C. after the contact has been marked at least twice
D. by an occasional glance at the radar
145. Wind velocity varies_____________.
A. directly with the temperature of the air mass
B. directly with the pressure gradient
C. inversely with the barometric pressure
D. inversely with the absolute humidity

15

146. A local wind known as "Williwaws" is associated with what particular place in the world?
A. Arabian Gulf
B. West Mediterranean
C. Aegean Sea
D. Straits of Magellan
147. A local wind known as "Vendevale" is associated with what particular place in the world?
A. West Mediterranean
B. Arabian Gulf
C. Gulf of Mexico
D. Panama
148. A local wind known as "Simood" is associated with what particular place in the world?
A. Arabia
B. Gulf of Aden
C. Egypt
D. Gulf of Aden
149. A local wind known as "Etesian" is associated with what particular place in the world?
A. Aegean Sea
B. Arabian Gulf
C. Gulf of Aden
D. South America
150. This is a hot wind that blows off the coast of Australia.
A. Brickfielder
B. Elephanta
C. Foehn
D. Harmattan
151. Which of the following meteorological sources of information provides picture of the
existing condition and shows the position of isobars and other details such as fronts and
troughs etc?

A. Surface Prognostic Chart
B. Surface Synoptic Analysis Chart
C. Change of Pressure Chart
D. Upper Air Chart
152. Which of the following meteorological sources of information provides a projection of
synoptic condition ahead in time and cover periods of 12, 36 and 72 hours?
A. Upper Air Chart
B. Surface Synoptic Analysis Chart
C. Surface Prognostic Chart
D. Change of Pressure Charts
153. Which of the following meteorological sources of information show isobaric lines? This
chart also helps to forecast the movement of depressions.
A. Change of Pressure Chart
B. Airwave Chart
C. Surface Prognostic Chart
D. Upper Air Charts
154. Which of the following meteorological source of information are used by shore based
meteorologists to obtain information on the movement of depressions and other expected
weather conditions?
A. Surface Prognostic Charts
B. Nephanalysis Charts
C. Hindcast Charts
D. Upper air charts

16


155. Which of the following meteorological sources of information are used by shore based
meteorological to obtain information on thickness of clouds, and constant pressure analysis
and other prognostic chart?

A. Upper Air Charts
B. Nephanalysis Charts
C. Hindcast Charts
D. Change of Pressure Charts
156. These are satellite information chart providing information on clouds pattern and cloud
thickness.They assist in the identification of meteorological features like tropical
revolving storms.
A. Hindcast Charts
B. Nephanalysis Charts
C. Upper Air Charts
D. Surface Prognostic Charts
157. These are meteorological charts which compare weather and progress along the route as
advised by the British Meteorological Office with the weather and progress that would
have been experienced and/or achieved along and appropriate alternative route.
A. Hindcast Chart
B. Nephanalysis Charts
C. Upper Air Charts
D. Air Wave Charts
158. Which of the following radio facsimile transmission show weather pattern based on
synoptic surface observations?
A. Extended Surface Prognosis
B. Surface Weather Prognosis
C. Surface Weather Analysis
D. Extended Weather Analysis
159. Which of the following radio facsimile transmission indicate future weather patterns for
either a 24-hour or 36-hour outlook for specific regions?
A. Surface Weather Prognosis
B. Surface Weather Analysis
C. Extended Surface Prognosis
D. Wave Patterns

160. Which of the following radio facsimile transmission indicate forecast position of fronts
and pressure system at the surface for a period of 2 to 5 days?
A. Surface Weather Analysis
B. Extended Surface Prognosis
C. Surface Weather Prognosis
D. Weather Prognosis Charts
161. These are radio facsimile transmissions that show characteristic of "sea waves". They are
based on synoptic wave observation made shortly before transmission on calculations
derived from wind and wave patterns. Which of these two facsimile satisfy this
description?
I. Wave Analysis
II. Wave Prognosis
A. I is correct
B. II is correct
C. I & II are both correct
D. I & II are incorrect
162. Ship owners often provides guidelines to Masters as an aid in establishing a most suitable
route and in line with company policy. Which of the following preferences will ship
owners consider in giving the master his choice of suitable route?
A. Speed of passage
B. Safety of vessel
C. Economy
D. All of these considerations are preferable

17


163. Ship owners often provides guidelines to masters as an aid in establishing a most suitable
route and in line with company policy. Which of the following preferences will be ship
owners considering in giving the master his choice of suitable route?

A. Comfort
B. Dependability
C. Design of vessels
D. All of these considerations are preferable
164. In addition to climatic considerations, masters will need to consider a number of factors
when selecting an ocean passage route. Which of the following items will be included in
the master's considerations?
A. Type of vessel, draft and state of loading
B. Time of year and the expected weather sea condition
C. The possibility of encountering gale force winds causing subsequent delays or damage
to the vessels
D. All of these items can be considered
165. In addition to climatic considerations, masters will need to consider a number of factors
when selecting an ocean passage route. Which of the following items will be included in
the master's considerations?
A. Recommendation obtained from reference to the "Ocean Passage of the World"
B. Whether the vessels is ice strengthened and suitably equipped from ice regions
C. Ability to carry out optional tasks such as hatch cleaning
D. All of these items can be considered
166. Which of the following options should the master consider as foremost when dealing with
the commercial influences on the choice of route?
A. Owners or charterer’s direct instructions
B. The distance of alternative routes considered against fuel costs and time
C. Cost of employing "shore based routing services"
D. Maintenance of the safety of the ship and the crew
167. Which of the following items is Not an advantage of "shore-based routing"?
A. Savings in fuel and time
B. Reductions in ship and cargo damages, with reduced wear on main engine propulsion
systems
C. Increase insurance premium

D. Maintenance at sea is usually possible in better weather
168. The distance at which the heliocentric parallax in one second (1") is termed___________.
A. parsec
B. magnitude
C. astronomical unit
D. light year
169. One parsec is equal to ________.
A. 3.26 light year
B. 0.1 light year
C. 1.0 light year
D. 2.2 astronomical unit
170. The term which refers to the speed at which the molecules making the atmosphere should
attain to overcome the force of gravity_______.
A. molecular speed
B. velocity of escape
C. orbit speed
D. orbital velocity
171. If the temperature of the mass of air increases in which the moisture content remains
constant.
A. none of these
B. the relative humidity of that air will decrease
C. the relative humidity remains constant
D. the relative humidity of that air will increase

18


172. The special term which refers to the full moon nearest the autumnal equinox__________.
A. harvest moon
B. hunter's moon

C. winters moon
D. autumnal moon
173. The term "Hunter's moon" refers to a full moon which occurs _____________.
A. one month after the autumnal equinox
B. during the spring equinox
C. when the moon is nearest the autumnal equinox
D. when the moon is nearest the vernal equinox
174. At a certain day at a certain time in a tropical region the moon rises at GMT 0807H. What
is the approximate GMT of the next moon rise?
A. 0717H
B. 0857H
C. 0959H
D. 0615H
175. The moon is said to be "waxing" during the period from________.
A. new moon to full moon
B. full moon to new moon
C. last quarter to first quarter
D. first quarter to last quarter
176. The moon is said to be "waning" during the period from________.
A. full moon to new moon
B. new moon to full moon
C. last quarter to first quarter
D. first quarter to last quarter
177. The points of intersection of the moon's orbit and the orbit of the earth is known
as___________.
A. nodes
B. ecliptic
C. saros
D. corona
178. For a lunar eclipse to occur, which of the following conditions must be satisfied?

A. The moon must be at first quarter
B. The moon must be at the one of the nodes
C. The moon must be at last quarter
D. The moon must be at quadrature
179. This is an essential area of planning that involves an operation carried out by the navigation
officers which gathers together all relevant information that benefit the future stages of the
passage plan.
A. execution
B. planning
C. appraisal
D. monitoring
180. This is an essential area of passage planning that involves the operation carried out by the
navigation officers such as highlighting the "No Go" areas, laying out the intended
tracks__________.
A. appraisal
B. planning
C. execution
D. monitoring
181. This is an essential area of passage planning which involves the formulation of the tactics
which are intended to carry the plan through__________.
A. appraisal
B. planning
C. execution
D. monitoring

19


182. This is an essential phase in passage planning which involves the construction of the
finished passage plan and the instigation of the plan revealing the progress of the vessel and

the visual confirmation that the plan is being drawn to a conclusion_____________.
A. appraisal
B. planning
C. execution
D. monitoring
183. A safe speed throughout the passage, bearing in mind the ship's draft and the possibility of
"squat" and reduction in under keel clearance is part of the_____ phase of passage
planning.
A. planning
B. execution
C. appraisal
D. monitoring
184. Ensuring that all relevant publications are on board and correct for the forthcoming voyage
is part of the _______________ phase of passage planning.
A. appraisal
B. execution
C. planning
D. monitoring
185. The project of ETA's towards critical points to allow a more detailed assessment of tide
heights and flow is part of the ____________ phase of passage planning.
A. planning
B. execution
C. monitoring
D. appraisal
186. An embayment of the coast in which fresh river water entering at its head mixes with the
relatively saline ocean water is called_____________.
A. river mouth
B. river bank
C. coastal plain
D. estuary

187. A margin on the shore of a large body of water, particularly the sea, and generally
represents a strip of recently submerged sea bottom, is called__________.
A. coastal area
B. coastal marsh
C. coastal plain
D. coastal mark
188. A zone adjacent to a continent that extends from the low waterline to a depth at which there
is usually a marked increase of slope towards oceanic depths, is called_________.
A. continental shelf
B. coastal mark
C. continental rise
D. continental borderland
189. A region adjacent to a continent, normally occupied by or bordering a shelf, that is highly
irregular with depths is called __________.
A. continental shelf
B. continental borderland
C. continental rise
D. coastal plain
190. A gentle slope rising from oceanic depths toward the foot of a continental slope, is called
___________.
A. continental rise
B. continental borderland
C. continental shelf
D. coastal plain

20


191. An elongated and comparatively steep slope separating flat or gently sloping areas on the
sea floor, is called __________.

A. shoal
B. ridge
C. escarpment
D. continental rise
192. An elevation on the sea floor rising generally more than 1,000 meters and of limited extent
across the summit, is called _________.
A. seamount
B. atoll
C. knoll
D. continental rise
193. An elevation on the sea floor rising generally more than 500 meters and less than 1,000
meters and of limited extent across the summit, is called_________.
A. range
B. seamount
C. atoll
D. knoll
194. An annular depression that may not be continuous located at the base of many seamounts,
islands, and other isolated elevations of the sea floor is called________.
A. table mount
B. moat
C. volcanic island
D. atoll
195. An embankment on the sea floor bordering a canyon, valley, or sea channel, is called
_________.
A. levee
B. archipelagic apron
C. fracture zone
D. saddle
196. A low part of the sea floor located in a ridge or between contiguous seamounts, is called
________.

A. levee
B. saddle
C. ridge
D. archipelagic apron
197. On the sea floor a gentle slope with a generally smooth surface, particularly found
around groups of islands or seamount, is called __________.
A. archipelagic apron
B. continental rise
C. continental slope
D. sea channel
198. On the sea floor, an entire mountain system including all the subordinate ranges, interior
plateaus, and basins is called _________.
A. volcanic island
B. table mounts
C. cordillera
D. province
199. On the sea floor, a region identifiable by a group of similar physiographic features whose
characteristics are markedly in contrast with surroundings area, is called _________.
A. volcanic island
B. island arc
C. cordillera
D. province

21


200. An extensive linear zone of irregular topography of the sea floor characterized by steep
sided or asymmetrical ridges, troughs, or escarpment, is called_______.
A. fracture zone
B. volcanic zone

C. island zone
D. canyon
201. On the sea floor, a relatively narrow deep depression with steep sides, the bottom of which
generally has a continuous slope, is called___________.
A. continental divide
B. canyon
C. sea channel
D. cordillera
202. A long narrow, characteristically very deep and asymmetrical depression of the sea flow,
with relatively steep sides, is called __________.
A. cordillera
B. trench
C. fracture zone
D. levee
203. A current established between basins which contain water of different densities, is called
_________.
A. drift current
B. upwelling current
C. stream current
D. convergent current
204. The North Atlantic Drift sets in what direction?
A. ENE
B. SSW
C. NNE
D. NNW
205. This is a kind of stream current which is described as "A River in an Ocean".
A. Gulf stream
B. Humboldt Current
C. Guinea Current
D. Kurushio Current

206. This is the current that sets in a westward direction about latitude 10°N.
A. Guinea Current
B. South Equatorial Drift
C. North Equatorial Drift
D. Caribbean Sea Drift
207. The steady current circling the globe at about 60° S is the ________.
A. Prevailing Westerly
B. Sub-Polar Flow
C. West Wind Drift
D. Humboldt Current
208. Prevailing winds between 30° N and 60° N latitude are from the ________.
A. east
B. west
C. north
D. south
209. During the winter months, the southeast trade winds are:
A. stronger than during the summer months
B. weaker than during the summer months
C. than during the summer months
D. than during the summer months

22


210. The bulletin issued by National Meteorological Office (Weather Bureau) for the period
stated that includes the anticipated wind, visibility, weather and wave condition.
A. forecast
B. prognosis
C. synoptic
D. analysis

211. The periodic horizontal movement of water caused by the gravitational forces of the moon
and the sun, inertia of waterways and coriolis acceleration is called _______.
A. tidal current
B. ocean current
C. south equatorial current
D. north equatorial current
212. An ocean current that flows generally along or around the coast of Florida and
northeastward to Cape Haterras, Grand Banks and towards the north to the North Atlantic.
A. Guinea current
B. Gulf Stream
C. North Atlantic current
D. North Equatorial current
213. An ocean current that generally flows in the northeasterly direction in the northwest pacific
in the vicinity of Taiwan towards the southwest end of Japan is called _________.
A. Northwest Pacific current
B. Gulf stream
C. Kurushio current
D. Tsushima current
214. An ocean current that generally flows in the northeasterly direction from the southwest end
of Japan through the Japan Sea along the northwest coast of Japan is the _______.
A. Kuroshio current
B. Tsushima current
C. Seto Naikai
D. North equatorial current
215. An ocean current that occurs in the area of the prevailing westerlies, that generally flows in
an easterly direction to a point west of Cape of Good Hope is the _____.
A. North Atlantic current
B. South Atlantic current
C. Gulf stream
D. Guinea current

216. Current that flows easterly around Antarctica is termed as ________.
A. Antarctic current
B. Falkland current
C. Gulf stream
D. Antarctic current
217. The North equatorial current flows in the _______ direction.
A. northerly
B. easterly
C. westerly
D. southerly
218. The equatorial counter current generally flows in the _______ direction.
A. easterly
B. northerly
C. southerly
D. westerly

23


219. If you are caught up by a cyclone in the northern hemisphere and you are in the dangerous
semi circle, the evasive action to be done is _______.
A. place wind on starboard quarter, altering course to port as the wind backs
B. place wind on port quarter altering course to starboard as wind veers
C. place wind 1-4 point on port bow, altering course to starboard as wind veers
D. place wind 1-4 points on starboard bow, altering course to starboard as the wind
veers
220. If you are caught up by a cyclone in the northern hemisphere, and you are in the navigable
semi circle or in the path of the cyclone, the evasive action to be done is________.
A. place wind on starboard quarter, altering course to port as wind backs
B. place wind 1-4 points on starboard bow, altering course to starboard as the wind veers

C. place wind 1-4 points on port bow, altering course to port as the wind backs
D. place wind on port quarter altering course to starboard as wind veers
221. If you are caught up by a cyclone in the southern hemisphere, and you are in the navigable
semi circle or in the path of the cyclone, the evasive action to be done is _________.
A. place wind on starboard quarter, altering course to port as wind backs
B. place wind 1-4 points on starboard bow, altering course to starboard as the wind veers
C. place wind 1-4 points on port bow, altering course to port as the wind backs
D. place wind on port quarter altering course to starboard as wind veers
222. If you are caught up by a cyclone in the southern hemisphere, and you are in the dangerous
semi circle, the evasive action to be done is ________.
A. place wind on starboard quarter, altering course to port as wind backs
B. place wind 1-4 points on starboard bow, altering course to starboard as the wind veers
C. place wind 1-4 points on port bow, altering course to port as the wind backs
D. place wind on port quarter altering course to starboard as wind veers
223. The Inter-tropical Convergence Zone (I.T.C.Z.) is generally associated with _______.
A. clear skies and sunny weather
B. cloudy and showery weather
C. wind and stormy weather
D. very hot and dry weather
224. A tropical revolving storm occurs in all oceans except the ________.
A. Arabian Sea
B. South Indian Ocean
C. South Atlantic Ocean
D. Western South Pacific Ocean
225. Tropical revolving storms occur in all months of the year only in the ________.
A. North Atlantic Ocean
B. Western North Pacific Ocean and China Sea
C. North Indian Ocean
D. Western South Pacific Ocean
226. Which statement is True concerning equatorial tides?

A. This occur when the Sun is at minimum declination north or south
B. This occur when the Moon is at maximum declination north or south
C. The difference in height between consecutive high or low tides at a minimum
D. They used as the basis for the vulgar establishment of the port
227. The winds you would expect to encounter in the North Atlantic between latitudes 5° and
30° are known as the _______.
A. doldrums
B. westerlies
C. trades
D. easterlies
228. The West Wind Drift is located ________.
A. near 60° S
B. on each side of the Equatorial current
C. in the North Atlantic
D. between Greenland and Europe

24


229. The prevailing winds in the bank of latitude from approximately 5°N to 30°N are the
______.
A. prevailing westerlies
B. doldrums
C. southeast trade winds
D. northeast trade winds
230. The type of tide that prevails in the greatest number of important harbors on the Atlantic
Coast is ________.
A. interval
B. mixed
C. diurnal

D. semidiurnal
231. The winds with the greatest effect on the set, drift, and depth of the equatorial currents are
the ________.
A. doldrums
B. horse latitudes
C. trade winds
D. prevailing westerlies
232. Neap tides occur when the ________.
A. moon is in its first quarter and third quarter phases
B. sun and moon are on the opposite sides of the earth
C. moon's declination is maximum and opposite to that of the sun
D. sun and moon are in conjunction
233. The north equatorial current flows to the _________.
A. east
B. northeast
C. southwest
D. west
234. Neap tides occur _______.
A. at the start of spring, when the sun is nearly over the equator
B. only when the Sun and Moon are on the same sides of the Earth and are nearly in line
C. when the Sun and Moon are approximately 90° to each other has seen from the
Earth
D. when the Sun, Moon, and Earth are nearly in line, regardless of alignment order
235. Weather systems in the middle latitudes generally travel from ________.
A. west to east
B. east to west
C. north to south
D. none of the above
236. Spring tides occur _________.
A. at the start of spring, when the Sun is nearly over the equator

B. only when the Sun and Moon are on the same side of the Earth and are nearly in line
C. when the Sun and Moon are at approximately 90° to each as seen from the Earth
D. when the Sun, Moon and Earth are nearly in line, in any order
237. Steady precipitation is typical of _______.
A. coming cold weather conditions
B. a warm front weather condition
C. high pressure conditions
D. scattered cumulus clouds
238. The direction of the prevailing winds in the Northern hemisphere is caused by the
________.
A. magnetic field at the North Pole
B. Gulf stream
C. Earth's rotation
D. Arctic cold fronts

25