CÂU HỎI TRẮC NGHIỆM CHUYÊN MÔN CHO SỸ QUAN QUẢN LÝ 7

F3 – CONTROLLING THE OPERATION OF THE SHIP AND
CARE FOR PERSONS ON BOARD
1. When making Buoyancy Test for life jackets, the buoyancy should be measured initially and
after 24 hours of submersion to just below the water surface. In Life Jacket Buoyancy Test,
the difference between the initial and final buoyancy should not exceed how many percent of
the initial buoyancy?
A. 25%
B. 15%
C. 10%
D. 5%
2. The lateral field of vision of a person wearing an immersion suit when seated in fixed position
would be _____________.
A. 270°
B. 135°
C. 120°
D. 90°
3. The weight of a fully packed inflatable life raft container should not exceed _______.
A. 185 lbs
B. 210 lbs
C. 150 lbs
D. 175 lbs
4. The minimum pressures to be maintained at all hydrants on a passenger ship of 1,000 GRT
and upwards but under 4,000 GRT with two pumps simultaneously delivering through
nozzles, through any adjacent hydrants is ___________.
2
A. 0.25 N / mm
2
B. 0.27 N / mm
2
C. 0.31 N / mm
D. to the satisfaction of the administration

5. The minimum pressures to be maintained at all hydrants on a cargo ship of 1,000 GRT and
upwards but less than 6,000 GRT with two pumps simultaneously delivering through nozzles,
through any adjacent hydrant is ____________.
2
A. 0.27 N / mm
2
B. 0.23 N / mm
2
C. 0.25 N / mm
2
D. 0.31 N / mm
6. How much weight should it be suspended from it and how long should it remain floating
when testing lifebuoy to a Flotation Test?
A. 13.5 kgs of iron for a period of 24 hours
B. 13.5 kgs of iron for a period of 48 hours
C. 14.5 kgs of iron for a period of 48 hours
D. 14.5 kgs of iron for a period of 24 hours
7. Under the International Convention on Tonnage Measurement of Ships, 1969, the term "new
ship" means a ship the keel of which is laid _________.
A. on or after the rules and regulations become effective
B. on or after the date of coming into force of the present convention
C. an existing ship which undergoes major conversions and repairs
D. a ship which undergoes conversion as to substantially alter the dimension or carrying
Capacity
8. When a ship has been surveyed and duly marked, there shall be issued to the owner, on his
application and on payment of fees, a document which is called ___________.
A. Loadline Certificate
B. Manning Certificate
C. Exemption Certificate
D. Cargo Ship Safety Equipment Certificate

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9. The International Convention on Tonnage Measurement of Ships, 1969, shall Not apply to:
A. ship navigating in domestic trade
B. ship solely navigating in the Great Lakes of North America
C. ships navigating in ocean service
D. ships navigating solely in inland seas
10. In the loadline markings which of the following lines is at the same level as the Plimsoll
line?
A. Summer water line
B. Fresh water line
C. Tropical water line
D. Deck edge water line
11. Oil Record Book shall be provided to oil tanker of __________ or more.
A. 500 GRT
B. 200 GRT
C. 150 GRT
D. 400 GRT
12. SOPEP shall be carried to every oil tanker of ______ or more.
A. 500 GRT
B. 200 GRT
C. 400 GRT
D. 150 GRT
13. The rating for damage to living resources of 1-10 mg/1 is __________.
A. moderately toxic
B. moderately hazardous
C. moderately dangerous
D. moderately polluted

14. The rating for damage to living resources of 10-100 mg/1 is _________.
A. slightly hazardous
B. slightly toxic
C. slightly dangerous
D. slightly polluted
15. No liability for pollution damage shall attach to the owner if he proves the damage is due to
the following Except:
A. if the cause is accidental
B. the cause is resulted by other vessel due to collision or other incident
C. cause by human error
D. resulted from force majeure
16. States acting through the competent international organization shall establish international
rules and standards for the purpose of the following Except:
A. control pollution of the marine environment
B. reduce pollution of the marine environment
C. elimination of pollution of the marine environment
D. prevent pollution of the marine environment
17. Which of the following is Not true under UNCLOS?
A. Freedom of the seas shall be enjoyed between Coastal states
B. Right for the registration of ships in its territory
C. State having no sea coast shall settle by mutual agreement all matters
D. Ships owned or operated by a government used for commercial purposes have
completed immunity from the jurisdiction of any state other than the flagstate
18. The STCW Convention and Part A of the Code form a binding treaty between States, the
interpretation of which is governed by the ___________.
A. Vienna Convention on the Laws of Treaties
B. IMO Safety Marine Committee
C. SOLAS 74 as amended
D. UNCLOS

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19. Seagoing service under the STCW Convention means ___________.
A. service on boardship as contracted by the administrations of that party
B. service on boardship relevant to the issue of a certificate or other qualification
C. actual service on board entered in his seaman's book or other documents
D. service on boardship certified by the master or officer in charge
20. Under the STCW Convention, which regulation would apply to you if you pass this
examination and you have served on board ships of 500 GRT or more.
A. Regulation I / 14
B. Regulation I / 12
C. Regulation II / 2
D. Regulation I / 2
21. Emergency, safety, medical care and survival functions are contained in which regulation of
the STCW Convention?
A. Regulation VIII
B. Regulation V / 2
C. Regulation V / I
D. Regulation VI
22. Under the STCW Convention, which regulation deals with Tankers?
A. Regulation VI
B. Regulation VIII
C. Regulation V / II
D. Regulation V / I
23. The basic legal requirements of the 1995 STCW Convention are provided for in the:
A. Regulations
B. Article
C. Provisions
D. Exemptions

24. The ILO Convention for Medical Care and Sickness Benefits was adopted in _________.
A. 1968
B. 1969
C. 1967
D. 1970
25. A ship which is not a new ship as defined in the revised PMMRR is ___________.
A. self-propelled ship
B. non-convention ship
C. existing ship
D. commercial ship
26. Special purpose ship to which the revised PMMRR apply includes the following Except:
A. ship engaged in research expeditions and survey
B. ships for training of marine personnel
C. ships processing in other living resources at sea not engaged in catching
D. pleasure ship catering to special people of the government
27. Ships not classed as stipulated in the revised PMMR shall be drydocked every:
A. two years
B. one year
C. four years
D. three years
28. Renewal survey as stipulated in the revised PMMRR is done at intervals specified by the
Administration but not exceeding _________.
A. two years
B. five years
C. two and one half years
D. four years

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29. Electrical power as stipulated in the revised PMMRR shall be made available for three hours
on the following Except:
A. emergency lightning at embarkation station
B. at the muster station
C. at the steering gear, if any
D. over the side of such stations
30. Electrical power as stipulated in the revised PMMRR shall be made available for 12 hours
on the following Except:
A. stowage position of firemen's outfit
B. steering gear, if any
C. emergency fire pump and its control position
D. main deck
31. Each fire extinguisher as stipulated in the revised PMMRR shall, as far as practicable, be
clearly marked of the following Except:
A. name of manufacturer, year of the manufacture and date of expiry
B. type of fire which the extinguisher is suitable
C. approved details
D. intervals for recharging
32. The Professional Regulation Commission under the R.A. 8981 is _______.
A. an exercise of the powers and function of the commission
B. attached to the office of the President of the Philippines
C. implement program for full computerization
D. publishing list of successful examinees
33. The PRC is duty-bound "to provide schools, colleges and universities, public and
private….with copies of sample test question on examinations recently conducted by the
commission." Under what particular section of R.A. 8981 is this provision prescribed?
A. P.D. 857
B. P.D. 474
C. Section 7, para (d)
D. Section 7, para (e)

34. The issuance of endorsement Certificate to the marine deck and marine engineer officers
pursuant to the 1995 STCW convention is provided in what particular Section of R.A. 8981?
A. Section 7, para (h)
B. Section 7, para (g)
C. Section 7, para (d)
D. Section 7, para (e)
35. The Professional Regulation Commission is empowered to "create or abolish position or
change the designation of existing positions in accordance with a staffing pattern" prepared
by the Commission. This power of the Commission is specified under ___________ of R.A.
8981.
A. Section 7, para (h)
B. Section 7, para (g)
C. Section 7, para (d)
D. Section 7, para (e)
36. The manning requirement for tugboats, dredgers and anchor handling vessels engaged in
coastwise voyage between 35 and 100 gross tonnage as required by Chapter XVIII of the
PMMRR comprise _________.
A. 2 deck personnel and 2 engine personnel
B. 3 deck personnel and 2 engine personnel
C. 4 deck personnel and 2 engine personnel
D. 3 deck personnel and 3 engine personnel
37. Chapter XVIII of the PMMRR requires that the master of a cargo vessel engaged in
coastwise voyage of 500 to 999 gross tonnage should at least be a licensed __________.
A. Chief Mate
B. Master Mariner

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38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

C. Second Mate
D. Third Mate / Major Patron
Regulation XVII / 1 of the PMMRR adopts the HSC code under IMO MSC Resolution No.
36(63) dated May1994. This code applies to passenger high speed crafts which do not
proceed in the course of their voyage more than ______ hours at operational speed from a
place of refuge when fully loaded.
A. Four
B. Six
C. Ten
D. Eight
Which of the following type of vessels is exempted from the issuance of a CWL under

Regulation XV/18 of the PMMRR?
A. Fishing boats
B. Anchor handling
C. Pleasure yachts
D. Tugs and dredgers
How many persons consist of the Board for Marine Deck Officers under R.A. 8544?
A. Chairman + 2 members
B. Chairman + 3 members
C. Chairman + 4 members
D. Chairman + 5 members
The term for any PRC Commissioner under R.A. 8544 is __________.
A. four years
B. five years
C. six years
D. seven years
Which created MARINA?
A. PD. 474
B. P.D. 797
C. P.D. 857
D. R.A. 7621
When has MARINA officially started its operations?
A. June 1974
B. August 1995
C. February 1995
D. November 1985
Which of the following administered all Philippine ports prior to 1997?
A. Philippine Ports Authority
B. MARINA
C. Bureau of Customs
D. Philippine Coat Guard

The Philippine Ports authority was created through ___________.
A. P.D. 474
B. P.D. 857
C. R.A. 8544
D. M.C. 40-2002
Vessels over 100 GRT engaged in domestic trade that berth or drop anchor at any
government port shall be charged Domestic Dockage of __________.
A. Php 0.60/GRT/Calendar day or fraction thereof
B. Php 30.50/GRT/Calendar day or fraction thereof
C. $ 0.81/GRT
D. $ 0.20/GRT
What is the equivalent of one such standard unit for measuring a 20 foot container?
A. ½ TEU
B. 1 TEU
C. 2 TEU's
D. 3 TEU's

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48. Which of the following activities shall Not be carried out a security level 1?
A. Controlling access to the ship
B. Ensuring the performance of all ship security duties
C. Mustering of crew and passengers
D. Monitoring restricted areas to ensure that only authorized persons have access
49. An SSO is designated by the __________.
A. Port facility Security Officer
B. Company Ship Officer
C. Recognized Security Organization
D. Company Operating the Ship

50. Directing and influencing subordinates concerns the management function of _________.
A. leading
B. planning
C. coaching
D. production
51. Managerial performance is based upon accomplishment of _____________.
A. responsibilities
B. duties
C. choices
D. objectives
52. The question of human relations considers ___________.
A. managers accompanying the employees
B. mangers summoning of the employees
C. managers interacting with employees
D. managers directing with employees
53. What is a necessary part of delegation of accountability and authority?
A. Goals
B. Achievements
C. Objectives
D. Responsibility
54. What is a role?
A. Expected a behavioral pattern
B. Desired attitude pattern
C. Behavior according to work relation
D. Expected duties and responsibilities
55. A significant development in the environment of a number of organization is __________.
A. Infrastructure
B. Globalization
C. Developing
D. Production

56. Coordination is the process ______ the objectives and activities of the separate units of an
organization in order to achieve organizational goals efficiently.
A. meeting
B. continuing
C. integrating
D. separating
57. One approach to achieving effective coordination is using basic management
techniques. Which of the following is an example of that approach?
A. Making a priority
B. Set an example
C. Time management
D. Using rules and procedures
58. What is the most effective management development technique?
A. Coaching
B. Talking with Subordinates

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59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

C. Coordination
D. Communications
Which lubrication would you use on the zipper of an immersion suit?
A. Lubricant
B. Paraffin
C. Candle Wax
D. Linseed Oil
Why should passageway fires be fought from one end only?
A. In order to avoid blowback from the watertight door
B. So that both teams can enter the area at the same time
C. So that one hose team does not push the flames heat and smoke directly at the other
hose team
D. In order for fire not to affect the adjacent area
In the first 24 hours after abandoning a vessel, water should be given only to who are _____.
A. thirsty
B. working with boats
C. everybody must not drink
D. sick or injured
The necessity for administering artificial respiration may be recognized by the victim's
_______.
A. blue color and lack of breathing

B. unconscious and no pulse
C. constriction of the pupil
D. spontaneous gasp of breath
When using the rainwater collection tubes on a liferaft, the First collection should be ____.
A. immediately collect the rainwater
B. poured overload because of salt washed off the canopy
C. poured the rainwater inside the liferaft
D. use rainwater only for washing
Drinking salt water will ________.
A. provide you comfort
B. prevent dehydration
C. promote urine excretion
D. quench your thirst
If vomiting occurs during a resuscitation effort, the best immediate procedure to follow is
_______.
A. stop the CPR and resume after several minutes
B. let the patient lie fall down and resume CPR
C. turn the patient body to sitting position sweep out the mouth and resume
D. turn the patients body to one side, sweep out the mouth and resume CPR
When you are firing a pyrotechnic distress signal, it should be aimed ______________.
A. at about 60° above the horizon
B. at about 45° above the horizon
C. at horizon level
D. 90° from the horizon
Your course of action if you have to abandon ship and enter a liferaft should be:
A. immediately get underway to avoid suction
B. remain in the vicinity of the sinking ship
C. remain just a few meters from the vessel
D. get underway as far as you can
After having activated the emergency position indicating radio beacon, you should:

A. turn it off during daylight hours
B. turn it off every five minutes interval
C. leave it on continuously
D. turn it off for 5 minutes every half hour

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69. Which of these should be taken when testing a line throwing gun?
A. Fire it an angle of approximately 90° to the horizon
B. Wear asbestos gloves
C. All of the above
D. Never remove the line from the rocket
70. What should you do with your EPIRB if you are in a liferaft during storm conditions?
A. Bring it inside the liferaft and leave it on
B. Bring it inside the liferaft and turn it off until the storm passes
C. Leave it outside the liferaft and leave
D. Leave it outside the liferaft and leave it off
71. The fuel aboard a survival craft at a speed of 6 knots should last ______.
A. 12 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 36 hours
D. 48 hours
72. To properly maintain fire hoses, you should __________.
A. immediately stowed it in the box
B. wash it with freshwater and secured it on the hose rack
C. thoroughly drain them after each use
D. secured the hose for the next use
73. On a cargo vessel, fire and boat drills must be held within 24 hours of leaving port if the
percentage of the crew replaced is more than _________.

A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 25%
74. Which of the following events shall be conducted during fire and boat drill?
A. All watertight doors in use while the vessel is underway shall be opened
B. All fire hoses should be inspected for leakage
C. All alarm system must be operated to ensure the system in working condition
D. Check all portable fire extinguishers
75. If a crew member faints, you should ___________.
A. immediately execute Heimlich Maneuver
B. lay him down with his head lower down his feet
C. let the patient rest in unconscious position
D. check for pulse and breathing
76. Which of the following should Not be done for a person who has fainted?
A. Administer fluids
B. Keep the patient warm but not too hot
C. Lay the person with his head higher than his feet
D. Lay him down with his head lower down his feet
77. After the lifeboat has reached the top of the davit heads, the davit arms begin moving up the
tracks until the movements is stopped by the ___________.
A. davit switch
B. luffung switch
C. alarm switch
D limit switch
78. What is the proper stimulant for an unconscious person?
A. Ammonia
B. Oral rehydration
C. Sodium Chloride solution
D. Dextran

79. Is the proper stimulant for an unconscious person.
A. Water
B. Ammonia

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80.

81.

82.

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

88.

89.

C. Tiger balm
D. Dextran
What is the function of a davit limit switch?

A. To secure the boat when it reaches the limit
B. To bring down the boat on accommodation deck
C. Cut off power to the winch when the lifeboat nears the final position
D. Under no circumstances it will break the power
An unconscious person should Not be _____________.
A. examine for breathing and heart action
B. start heart compression at once
C. lay casually on hard surface
D. given something to drink
Which of the following signals is used for boat stations or boat drill?
A. Six or more short blasts followed by one long blast
B. Continuous reading of alarm bell
C. Four short blast followed by one long blast
D. Rapid ringing of the alarm bell
You hear a signal consisting of one short blast of the whistle while at your lifeboat station.
This indicates __________.
A. come ahead dead slow
B. commence lowering boats
C. finish with boat station
D. back off with power
To launch a liferaft by hand, you should _________.
A. be fitted with automated release system
B. use a painter line before throwing the liferaft
C. throw the liferaft over the side and pull the operating cord
D. be cover with highly visible color before turning away in the water
When a person is suspected of having appendicitis, the pain should be relieved by:
A. giving a surgical treatment
B. putting him on bed and take temperature, pulse rate and respiration rate hourly
C. giving the patient food or liquid
D. keeping an ice bag over the location of the appendix

When launching an inflatable liferaft, make sure that the operating cord is:
A. fastened to some substantial part of the vessel
B. throw the line to the water and let it inflate by itself
C. should be fastened to the lifeboat
D. should be fastened to another liferaft
You hear a hissing sound coming from an inflated liferaft. What would you do?
A. Plug the safety value
B. Don't be alarmed as it will soon stop unless it goes on for a long period of time
C. Unscrew the deflation plug
D. Remove the safety valve and replace it with a soft patch
After launching the motor lifeboat when abandoning ship you should ________.
A. immediately steer away from the sinking ship
B. stand by on the side of the vessel
C. stay in the immediate area
D. wait for the survivors
Where would you find the No.1 lifeboat on a tanker?
A. Muster station
B. Forward portside
C. Aft station
D. Forward starboard side

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90. A continuous blast of ship's whistle for a period of not less than 10 seconds, supplemented
by a continuous ringing of the general alarm bells for not less than 10 seconds, you should
go to your __________.
A. fire station
B. man overboard signal
C. abandonship signal

D. general alarm signal
91. If you hear a continuous blast of the whistle for a period of not less than 10 seconds,
supplemented by a continuous ringing of the general alarm bells for not less than 10
seconds, you should go to your __________.
A. main station
B. fire station
C. lifeboat station
D. weather station
92. When the alarm bell of a breathing apparatus sounds, this indicates __________.
A. no more supply of air is available
B. immediately back out the fire scene
C. warning for wearer
D. a remaining supply of air for four-five minutes
93. Which of the following statements is/are True about a carbon dioxide?
A. Use on machinery spaces
B. Can be use on Electrical fires
C. Carbon dioxide can absorb heat
D. All of these
94. A "15 pound" CO2 extinguisher is so called because __________.
A. it is located at the galley room
B. there are 15 pounds of CO2 in the container
C. use for Class B fire
D. there are 15 pounds charged CO2
95. A portable foam fire extinguisher is placed in operation by _________.
A. pointing the nozzle directly to the fire
B. pressing down the lever
C. turning it upside down
D. activating the pin
96. If a person suffers a simple fracture of a limb, you should _________.
A. use pressure bandage to hold tourniquet

B. fingers and toes beyond the break should be massage at intervals to assure adequate
circulation
C. prevent further movement of the bone
D. if a patient is on severe pain, morphine sulfate 100 mg may be given by intravenous
Injection
97. Which of the following is Not a treatment for traumatic shock?
A. Keep the patient warm but not hot
B. Administer fluids
C. Have the injured person lie down
D. Massage the arm and legs to restore circulation
98. Which of the following conditions is Not a symptom of traumatic shock?
A. Slow deep breathing
B. Skin is pale, cold and often moist
C. Weak and rapid pulse
D. Rapid and shallow respiration
99. After an injury, which of the following can be determined by examining the condition of a
victim's pupils?
A. Spontaneous circulation and ventilation have been restored
B. Whether or not the brain is functioning properly

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C. Return of color to the skin
D. Spontaneous gasp for breath
100. What is the purpose of the periodical inspection in connection with the Load Line
Certificate?
A. To ensure that the vessel still complies with the conditions of assignment
B. To ensure that the vessel is not overloading
C. To ensure compliance with STCW 78 as amended

D. To ensure compliance with SOLAS 74
101. What is the purpose of periodical inspections conducted on or before the annual
anniversary of the date of the certificate?
A. Ascertain that the load line disc and marks have not been repositioned
B. Ensure no alterations were made to hull or superstructure of the ship that will
affect soundness of the hull and calculation in determining the position of the load
line markings
C. Check that the certificate is not fake
D. Ensure that the Load Line Certificate is aboard the ship and not lost
102. A buoyant line of a buoyant rescue quoit in a life raft should not be less than ______.
A. 45m
B. 40 m
C. 30m
D. 35m
103. A minimum energy component of a satisfactory emergency food ration in a life raft should
be ___________.
A. 8,000 kj
B. 6,000 kj
C. 5,000 kj
D. 10,000 kj
104. Which of the following should be in the container where the life raft is packed should not
be marked with?
A. Date of next service
B. Serial number
C. Maker's name
D. Name of approving authority
105. When the lifeboat is in a capsized position, a safety belt shall be fitted at each indicated
seating position designed to hold a person of a mass of __________ securely in place.
A. 110 kg
B. 100 kg

C. 130 kg
D. 120 kg
106. The free clearance in front of the back rest should be at least _____, and the width of the
seat of an enclosed lifeboat is _______.
A. 620mm,420mm
B. 625mm,480mm
C. 635mm,430mm
D. 600mm,400mm
107. Solas stipulates that an international shore connection shall have a flange of at least ___
thick.
A. 16.0 mm
B. 15.5 mm
C. 15.0 mm
D. 14.5 mm
108. Solas stipulates that an international shore connection shall have bolts and nuts ____ of
diameter, and ___ in length.
A. 16mm, 50mm
B. 19mm, 50mm
C. 18mm, 50mm
D. 17mm, 50mm

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109. Is a minimum number of lifebuoys that cargo ships of less than 100 meters to 150 meters in
length shall carry.
A. 10
B. 8
C. 15
D. 12

110. For each life boats, passenger ships shall carry at least ____ immersion suit/s complying
with the requirements of Reg. 33 (Solas).
A. 1
B. 3
C. 2
D. 4
111. When vertically fired, an altitude of the rocket parachute flare should not less than
________.
A. 330 meters
B. 350 meters
C. 300 meters
D. 320 meters
112. Which of the following is a cargo ship constructed for the carriage in bulk of any liquid
product listed in the IBC Code?
A. Product tanker
B. LPG tanker
C. Oil tanker
D. Chemical tanker
113. Conforming to the IMO ship identification scheme adopted by the organization, all cargo
ships of ___ or more shall be issued an identification number.
A. 300 GRT
B. 500 GRT
C. 100 GRT
D. 150 GRT
114. For tankers ten years of age and over, intermediate surveys shall be ______.
A. 3 months before or after the anniversary date of the Cargo Ship Safety Construction
Certificate
B. 3 months before or after the anniversary date of the Cargo Ship Safety Equipment
Certificate
C. 6 months before or after the anniversary date of the Cargo Ship Safety Construction

Certificate
D. 6 months before or after the anniversary date of the Cargo Ship and Safety Equipment
Certificate
115. Satisfying the requirements for SBT + PL but not COW, oil tankers should be designed as
_________.
A. oil tanker
B. crude oil / product carrier
C. product tanker
D. crude tanker
116. Satisfying the requirements for SBT + PL + COW, oil tankers may be designed as _____.
A. oil tanker
B. product carrier
C. crude oil/ product carrier
D. crude tanker
117. To which Annex I applies any discharge of oil or oily mixtures from ships into the sea shall
be banned if the following conditions are not met, except ________.
A. the tanker is enroute
B. the tanker isn't within the special area
C. the oil/oily discharge is less than 50 ppm

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D. the tanker is more than 50nm from shoreline
118. A tanker designed to carry oil or alternatively solid cargoes in bulk is called ______
according to Solas.
A. OBO (Oil-Bulk-Oil)
B. Special tanker
C. Oil / Bulk tanker
D. Combination carrier

119. Segregated ballast tanks shall be provided to a new product carrier with deadweight of
____ tons and above.
A. 30,000
B. 70,000
C. 20,000
D. 40,000
120. Segregated ballast tanks shall be provided to an existing crude oil tanker with deadweight
of ______ tons and above.
A. 70,000
B. 40,000
C. 20,000
D. 30,000
121. Concerning reports on incidents involving harmful substance, the provisions are contained
in:
A. Appendix I to Annex I
B. Protocol II
C. Protocol I
D. Resolution A. 648 (16)
122. For damage to living resources of 10-100 mg/l, the rating is ______.
A. highly toxic
B. moderately toxic
C. practically non-toxic
D. non-toxic
123. For damage to living resources of greater than 1,000 mg/1, the rating is _____.
A. moderately toxic
B. non-toxic
C. non-hazardous
D. practically non-toxic
124. The hazard to human health by oral intake greater than 5,000 mg/kg is rated as ____.
A. slightly hazardous

B. practically non-hazardous
C. highly hazardous
D. non-hazardous
125. The "Carriage of Dangerous Goods" is fully covered in ____.
A. Chapter VI of Solas 1974
B. Chapter VII of Solas 1974
C. Chapter V of Solas 1974
D. Chapter IV of Solas 1974
126. Is required for Immersion Suits and Thermal Protective Aids.
A. Field of vision test
B. Ergonomic test
C. Donning Test
D. All of these
127. In carrying out a "Maneuverability Test" for life rafts, it should be demonstrated that with
the paddles provided, the life raft is capable of being propelled when fully taken in calm
conditions over a distance of at least how many meters?
A. 60 meters
B. 100 meters
C. 50 meters

13


D. 25 meters
128. Should the average weight of a person as used in the calculation of the total number of
persons that lifeboat can carry.
A. 90 kgs
B. 85 kgs
C. 80 kgs
D. 75 kgs

129. In carrying out a "Lifeboat Seating Space Test" the number of the persons for which the
lifeboat is to be approved should be able to board the lifeboat and be properly seated within
a period of how many minutes in the case of a lifeboat intended for a cargo ship?
A. 3 minutes
B. 12 minutes
C. 9 minutes
D. 6 minutes
130. The lifeboat engine should be operated for a period of at least _____ to demonstrate
satisfactory operation.
A. 4 hours
B. 5 hours
C. 2 hours
D. 6 hours
131. After an IOPP Certificate is issued to an inspected vessel, how many other surveys of the
vessel's pollution prevention equipment are conducted during the period of validity of the
certificate?
A. Two
B. One
C. Three
D. None
132. As used in the Oil Pollution Regulations, the term "slop tank" means a tank specifically
designated for the collection of ____.
A. tank drainings
B. tank washings
C. oily mixtures
D. all of these
133. Which survey for oil tankers of 150 GRT or more is conducted at intervals not exceeding
30 months?
A. Periodical
B. Intermediate

C. Special owner's
D. Class
134. Satisfying the requirements for SBT, PL, and COW, a new oil tanker of 20,000
deadweight may be designated as _____ per Marpol Reg.2.
I. Crude oil tanker
II. Product tanker
III. Chemical tanker
A. II only
B. I only
C. I and II
D. III only
135. To comply with legislation regarding SBT's, CBT's and cow, the requirements for tankers
were well addressed in the _____.
A. Marpol 73 Convention
B. Marpol 78 Protocol
C. OPA 90
D. ICPS

14


136. Resulting from escape or discharge of oil from ship, under the International Convention on
Civil Liability for Oil Pollution Damage, the loss or damage caused outside the ship by
contamination is called _______.
A. pollution damage
B. oil damage
C. oil pollution damage
D. contamination damage
137. Under the International Convention on Civil Liability for Oil Pollution Damage, the costs
of preventive measures and further loss or damage caused by preventive measures is called

_____.
A. oil pollution damage
B. pollution damage
C. oil damage
D. contamination damage
138. Under the International Convention on Civil Liability for Oil Pollution Damage, any
occurrence or series of occurrences having the same origin, which causes pollution damage
or creates a threat of damage is called _______.
A. damage occurrence
B. accident
C. pollution occurrence
D. incident
139. Under the STCW 1978, what is the meaning of near-coastal voyages?
A. Voyages in the vicinity of a party as defined by that party
B. Voyages within 12 miles from the shoreline of any party
C. Short voyages within the waters of the same country
D. Voyages in waters other than international waters
140. Is the one who inspects on the compliance to regulation I/4 of the 1995 STCW Convention.
A. Shipowner's representative
B. Quarantine officer
C. Port state control officer
D. Marine surveyor
141. A ship can be detained in port if the Port State Control Officer (PSCO) believes that the
watchkeeping standards are not being maintained.__________ is the particular provisions
of the 1995 STCW Convention that empowers the PSCO to effect such detention.
A. Regulation I / 7
B. Regulation I / 8
C. Regulation I / 2
D. Regulation I / 4
142. An International Tonnage Certificate will be issued to a vessel when it meets serving

requirements, one of which the vessel must:
A. be 79 or more feet in length
B. be issued a Certificate of Inspection
C. engaged in international trade
D. admeasure over 100 GRT
143. Your vessel has completed an inspection for certification and is issued a temporary
Certificate of inspection. The Temporary Certificate _____.
A. has the full force of the regular Certificate of Inspection
B. expires 6 months after it is issued
C. must be changed for a regular Certificate within 3 months
D. is restrained in the custody of the master
144. The following certificates are issued by the Coast Guard except______.
A. Award of Official Number
B. Classification of Inspection
C. Certificate of Inspection
D. Safety Equipment Certificate

15


145. The draft is called _____ when the vessel is complete with water in boilers but without
crew bunkers, fresh water, stores and other load.
A. moulded draft
B. initial draft
C. light draft
D. light displacement draft
146. Where is the official identification of a vessel found?
A. Certificate of Inspection
B. Classification Certificate
C. Loadline Certificate

D. Certificate of Documentation
147. What is the minimum size required before a vessel can be documented?
A. 5 net tons
B. 100 GRT
C. 200 GRT
D. 500 GRT
148. Has a symbol described as tint, 3 mm wide used in traffic separation scheme and between
TSS and inshore traffic zones.
A. Separation established
B. Separation routes
C. Separation lines
D. Established traffic flow
149. Is a routeing measure comprising an area within the defined limits where the ships must
navigate with a particular caution and within which the direction of traffic flow may be
recommended.
A. Recommended routes
B. Recommended area
C. Deep water route
D. Precautionary area
150. The recommendations of the general provisions that proposals for routeing measures
beyond the territorial sea should be adopted by IMO, any safety zone which exceeds ___
should be submitted to IMO for adoption.
A. 1,500 meters
B. 500 meters
C. 800 meters
D. 2,000 meters
151. Covers the protection of machinery casings?
A. Machinery Inspection Certificate
B. Hull and Machinery Insurance
C. Loadline Certificate

D. P and I Cover Certificate
152. Per classification society, all ships and their machinery must be surveyed at prescribed
intervals or special survey normally being held at __________.
A. 1 year interval
B. 4 years interval
C. 2 years interval
D. 3 years interval
153. Theoretically non-earning spaces, gross tonnage less deducted is called ______.
A. registered tonnage
B. deadweight
C. net tonnage
D. under deck tonnage

16


154. What is the disc painted on both sides of the ship, amidship, that is 12 inches outer
diameter and 1 inch wide, interested by a horizontal line 18 inches long and 1 inch in
breadth and whose upper edge passes through the center of the disc?
A. Load waterline
B. Load displacement
C. Load line ring
D. Load line mark
155. At intervals of not more than ____ , on board training in the use of davit-launched life rafts
shall take place on every ship fitted with such appliances.
A. 5 months
B. 4 months
C. 3 months
D. 6 months
156. Is a minimum number of lifebuoys that cargo ships of less than 150 meters to 200 meters in

length shall carry.
A. 12
B. 15
C. 10
D. 8
157. A luminous intensity of lifejacket lights shall be ______.
A. 0.25 cd
B. 1.00 cd
C. 0.50 cd
D. 0.75 cd
158. A burning period of the rocket parachute flare should not be less than ____ when it burns.
A. 45 secs
B. 55 secs
C. 40 secs
D. 50 secs
159. The classification of substances that is liable to spontaneous combustion is _______.
A. class 4.3
B. class 4.5
C. class 4.2
D. class 4.4
160. The classification of infectious substances is __________.
A. class 1
B. class 6.2
C. class 2
D. class 3
161. Conforming to the IMO ship identification scheme adopted by the organization, every
passenger ship of ___ or more shall be issued an identification number.
A. 5,000 GRT
B. 150 GRT
C. 100 GRT

D. 500 GRT
162. Satisfying the requirements for COW only, existing oil tankers should be designed as
____.
A. crude oil / product carrier
B. oil tanker
C. product carrier
D. crude tanker
163. All ships of _____ and upwards shall be inclined and the elements of their stability
determined - according to Solas, Reg. II - 1 / 22.
A. 100 m
B. 150 m

17


164.

165.

166.

167.

168.

169.

170.

171.

172.

C. 20 m
D. 79 m
Segregated ballast tanks shall be provided to a (an) _______ with deadweight of 20,000
tons and above
A. existing product tanker
B. new crude oil tanker
C. new product carrier
D. existing crude oil tanker
The basis of the requirement of ___ , the recommendation on testing acid evaluation of life
saving appliances have been developed.
A. chapter V, Solas 1974
B. chapter III, Solas 1974
C. chapter IV, Solas 1974
D. chapter VI, Solas 1974
The 1983 Solas amendments to the 1974 Convention entered into force on________.
A. 1 July 1988
B. 1 July 1989
C. 1 July 1992
D. 1 July 1986
You are the chief mate of a 30,000 DWT tank ship that is engaged in trade to another
country signatory to MARPOL 73/798. Which of the following is true?
A. The Certificate of Inspection serves as prima facie evidence of complying with Marpol
73/78
B. An IOPP Certificate is renewed at each inspection for certification
C. The IOPP Certificate is valid for 4 years
D. An IOPP Certificate is invalidated if the ship carries cargoes outside the classes
authorized thereon

As prescribed by Solas, buoyant lifelines have a breaking strength of not less than ____.
A. 10 KN
B. 5 kN
C. 15 kN
D. 20 KN
The International Loadline assigned to a vessel complies _______ convention
A. 1966
B. 1969
C. 1960
D. 1978
Is not applied by the International Convention on Tonnage Measurement.
A. Ships of war, fishing vessels and trawlers
B. Ships of war, dredgers, cable laying ship
C. Ships of war, and ships less than 50 meters
D. Ships of war, and ships less than 24 meters
Should be recorded in the Oil Record Book for accident and exceptional discharge or
escape of oil.
I. Date and time
II. Position of ship
III. Approximate quantity and type of oil
IV. Circumstances of discharge and general marks
A. II and III
B. I and II
C. III and IV
D. All of these
Ensures that the provisions regarding steps to control oil discharge are complied with:
A. Protocol of Marpol 73
B. Reg. 23 Annex I of Marpol 73/78
C. Reg. 26 Annex I of Marpol 73/78
D. Reg. 22 (2) Annex V of Marpol 73/78

18


173. Under OPA 90, how many barrels of oily waste should shipboard pollution containers at
least have?
A. 2
B. 50
C. 30
D. 20
174. Required to maintain insurance or financial security, the owner of a ship shall register in a
Contracting State and carry more than ______ tons of oil in bulk as cargo.
A. 5,000
B. 10,000
C. 2,000
D. 20,000
175. Every ship shall take such measures for ships under its flag as are necessary to ensure
safety at sea with regard to the following, interalia, except:
A. the maintenance of communications
B. the hull and machinery
C. the use of signals
D. prevention of collisions
176. As amended, Chapter I of the STCW 1978 contains the ________.
A. Regulations
B. General Provisions
C. Code
D. Recommendations
177. Under the STCW Convention, ___ would apply to Masters and Chief Mates who have
sailed on tankers of 500 GRT or more.
A. Reg. II/2, V/1

B. Reg. II/1, V/1
C. Reg. II/3, V/1
D. Reg. II/4, V/1
178. Under the STCW Convention ____ deals with passenger ships other than ro-ro passenger
ships.
A. Reg. V/4
B. Reg. V/2
C. Reg. V/3
D. Reg. V/5
179. Is the part of the 1978 STCW Convention that has not been amended by the 1995 STCW
Convention.
A. Code
B. Resolution
C. The Articles
D. The Regulation
180. There are ___ chapters that comprise the 1995 STCW Convention.
A. 6
B. 8
C. 17
D. 7
181. What does the Roman numeral stand for in reference to the regulation II/2?
A. Regulation
B. Article
C. Resolution
D. Chapter
182. The chapter of the 1995 STCW Convention that concerns the master and deck department
is
A. V
B. III

19


183.

184.

185.

186.

187.

188.

189.

190.

191.

192.

C. II
D. IV
What does the Arabic number in reference to the Regulation I/6 stands for;
A. Chapter
B. Article
C. Regulation
D. Resolution

Provides the basic legal requirements of the 1995 STCW Convention.
A. Resolutions
B. Regulations
C. National law of State signatory to the Convention
D. Articles
Governs the interpretation of the 1995 STCW Convention.
A. Geneva Convention
B. Hague-Visby Rules
C. Hague Rules
D. Vienna Convention
Of the 1995 STCW Convention covers voyage planning.
A. Chapter V
B. Chapter VI
C. Chapter III
D. Chapter VII
Is indicated by the Tonnage Certificate.
A. Power tons
B. Measurement tons
C. Displacement tons
D. Deadweight
Is where the fire fighting equipment requirements for a particular vessel may be found.
A. Certificate of Inspection
B. Certificate of Seaworthiness
C. Certificate of Registry
D. Loadline Certificate
States the number of able seaman required on board.
A. Solas Certificate
B. Classification of Certificate
C. ABS Code
D. Certificate of Inspection

As defined in the Harmonized Systems of Ship Survey and Certification 1988, the type of
survey that includes general or partial inspection made after a repair due to casualty
investigations is called ______.
A. additional survey
B. charterer's survey
C. owner's survey
D. underwriter's survey
A system aimed at reducing risk of accidents including TSS 2-way routes, recommended
tracks, areas to be avoided, inshore traffic zones, roundabouts, precautionary areas and
deep water routes is called ____.
A. separation zone or time
B. ship's routing
C. TSS
D. routing system
What are the horizontal lines marked 21 inches to the right of the disc that are 9 inches in
length and 1 inch in breadth, all marked at right angle to a vertical line that is about 21
inches from the center of the disc?
A. Load lines
B. Load waterline
C. Loading indicators

20


D. Full load markings
193. A painter with what breaking strength should a rigid life raft permitted to accommodate 9
persons or more should be fitted with?
A. 6 KN
B. 8 kN
C. 4 kN

D. 10 KN
194. A painter with what breaking strength should a rigid life raft permitted to accommodate 8
persons or more should be fitted with?
A. 7.5 kN
B. 5.0 kN
C. 9.5 kN
D. 6 KN
195. For not less than ____ of the total number of persons onboard, Solas stipulates that every
passenger ship shall carry lifejackets in addition to the life rafts required by regulation 7.2.
A. 20%
B. 15%
C. 10%
D. 5%
196. A luminous intensity of lifejacket lights shall be at least ______.
A. 8 hours
B. 10 hours
C. 12 hours
D. 6 hours
197. An average luminous intensity of hand flares should not be less than _____ when it burns
uniformly
A. 8,000 cd
B. 10,000 cd
C. 12,000 cd
D. 12,000 cd
198. The classification of substances that emit flammable gases when in contact with water is:
A. class 4.3
B. class 5.1
C. class 5.3
D. class 5.2
199. To make clear its dangerous ____ , packages containing dangerous good should be labeled.

A. properties
B. classifications
C. contents
D. extent
200. How much weight should post examination take place when testing a lifebuoy to a
Strength Test?
A. 90 kgs. after 30 minutes
B. 80 kgs. after 30 minutes
C. 70 kgs. after 30 minutes
D. 60 kgs. after 30 minutes
201. The kind of test of an immersion suit and thermal protective aid when a person wearing it
should be able to climb up and down a certain ladder of at least 5 meters in length and not
restricted to walking, bending over or arm movement and would also be able to pick up a
pencil and able to write is ________.
A. Thermal Immersion test
B. Ergonomics test
C. Ergonomic test
D. Resistance test

21


202. Fire pumps shall have a capacity to deliver at least ____________.
3
A. 27 m / hour
3
B. 25 m / hour
3
C. 31 m / hour
3

D. 29 m / hour
203. Fixed high-expansion system in machinery space shall be capable of rapidly discharging a
quantity of foam at a rate of at least _______ in depth per minute
A. 130 mm
B. 120 mm
C. 110 mm
D. 100 mm
204. A document which is issued to the owner after the ship has been surveyed and duly
marked, on his application and on payment of fees is called __________.
A. International Tonnage Certificate
B. Certificate of Inspection
C. Loadline Certificate
D. Ship Safety Certificate
205. The measure of the overall tonnage of a ship which is determined in accordance with the
provisions of the convention under the Tonnage Convention is _______.
A. Net Tonnage
B. Gross Tonnage
C. Deadweight
D. Tonnage Certificate
206. A certificate is issued to the ship whose gross and net tonnages have been determined in
accordance with the Convention on Tonnage Measurement of ships, 1969 is:
A. International Tonnage Certificate
B. Net Registered Tonnage
C. Gross Registered Tonnage
D. Inward Tonnage Certificate
207. The distance from the deckline to the respective loadline markings is called _______.
A. Statutory Freeboard
B. Actual Freeboard
C. Summer Freeboard
D. Fresh water Allowance

208. Is gross tonnage less "deducted spaces" which are theoretically non-earning spaces.
A. Gross Registered Tonnage
B. Deadweight Tonnage
C. Registered Tonnage
D. Displacement Tonnage
209. On each side of the ship is indicated the position of the freeboard deck, marked amidships
with the following dimensions:
A. 200 mm x 25 mm
B. 300 mm x 20 mm
C. 300 mm x 25 mm
D. 200 mm x 20 mm
210. IOPP shall be issued after survey to any oil tanker of ______ or more.
A. 100 GRT
B. 150 GRT
C. 200 GRT
D. 250 GRT
211. Oil tankers satisfying the requirements for SBT, PL but now COW should be designated as:
A. Crude Oil Carrier
B. Product Carrier
C. Product / Crude Oil Carrier

22


D. Crude Oil / Product Carrier
212. After survey, IOPP shall be issued in accordance with Reg. 4 of Annex I of Marpol 73/78
to any cargo ship of _______ or more.
A. 100 GRT
B. 150 GRT
C. 300 GRT

D. 400 GRT
213. SOPEP shall be carried to every ship other than oil tanker of ____ or more.
A. 500 GRT
B. 250 GRT
C. 150 GRT
D. 400 GRT
214. Ballast water shall Not be carried in any fuel tank in new oil tankers of ____ or more.
A. 400 GRT
B. 250 GRT
C. 150 GRT
D. 500 GRT
215. Pipelines should be standard to enable pipes of reception facilities to be connected with the
ships discharge pipelines for residues from machinery bilges. Its bolt circle diameter
should be _____.
A. 183 mm
B. 185 mm
C. 181 mm
D. 179 mm
216. MEPC as referred to in the Marpol Convention stands for ______.
A. Marine Environment Prevention Committee
B. Marine Environment Protection Committee
C. Marine Expedition Protection Command
D. Marine Experiment Protection Committee
217. What is indicated in the Tonnage Certificate?
A. Loadline Markings
B. Official number
C. Capacity of hold
D. Measurement tons
218. Under STCW Convention, STCW stands for:
A. Standard of Training, Certificate and Watchkeeping

B. Seafarers Training, Certification and Watchkeeping
C. Seafarers Training, Convention and Watchkeeping
D. Standard of Training, Convention and Watchkeeping
219. Under the STCW Code, STCW means ______.
A. Seafarer's Training, Convention and Watchkeeping
B. Seafarer's Training, Certification and Watchkeeping
C. Standard of Training, Certification and Watchkeeping
D. Standard of Training, Convention and Watchkeeping
220. Under the STCW Convention, Administration means ______.
A. the flag of convenience whose flag the ship is flying
B. the government of the Port State whose flag the ship is flying
C. the Government of the Party whose flag the ship is flying
D. the competency of the Party whose flag the ship is flying
221. What does Chapter I of the STCW 1978 as amended contain?
A. Regulation V / I
B. General Regulations
C. Exemption
D. General Provision

23


222. Certificates and Endorsement are contained in which regulation of the STCW Convention?
A. Regulation I/6
B. Regulation I/2
C. Regulation II/2
D. Regulation II/1
223. "S : in the STCW Code stands for ________.
A. Seafarers
B. Standard

C. Seamen
D. Safety
224. Under the STCW Convention, the mandatory requirements for training and qualifications
of masters on roro passenger ships includes familiarization in ______.
A. security management
B. inmarsat and gmdss
C. crisis management
D. safety management
225. What is the validity of a Deratting Certificate?
A. 8 months
B. 1 year
C. 10 months
D. 6 months
226. What is issued to the vessel before port authorities and agents can board a vessel in an
international voyage arriving from a foreign port?
A. Advance Notice
B. Inward Manifest
C. Port Clearance
D. Free Pratique
227. When was the revision of the Philippine Merchant Marine Rules Regulation?
A. 1995
B. 1996
C. 1997
D. 1998
228. Which of the following is the uppermost deck up to which transverse watertight bulkheads
are carried as defined in the revised PMMRR?
A. Freeboard deck
B. Bulkhead deck
C. Weather deck
D. Flush deck

229. As stipulated in the revised PMMRR, Class C ships are ______.
A. tankers
B. passenger
C. bulkers
D. ro-ro vessel
230. As stipulated in the revised PMMRR, how many ship's categories are there?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 3
D. 5
231. Electrical power as stipulated in the revised PMMRR shall be made available for 12 hours
on the following except:
A. at all stowage position for fireman's outfit
B. paint lockers and store rooms
C. at the steering gear engine room
D. at the emergency fire pump and its control position

24


232. The capacity of required portable fire extinguishers as specified in the revised PMMR shall
not be more than ______.
A. 6 liters
B. 12 liters
C. 9 liters
D. 13.5 liters
233. Each fire extinguisher as stipulated in the revised PMMR shall, as far as practicable, be
clearly marked of the following except:
A. name and manufacturer and name of inspector
B. date of test pressure

C. interval for recharging
D. date last tested
234. A 5,000 GRT vessel as stipulated in the revised PMMRR shall carry how many fireman's
outfit?
A. 1 set
B. 3 sets
C. 2 sets
D. 4 sets
235. Which replaced Presidential Decree 97?
A. P.D. 997
B. P.D. 474
C. R.A. 8544
D. R.A. 8981
236. The Philippine Merchant Marine Act of 1998 is also known as _______.
A. R.A. 8981
B. P.D. 474
C. P.D. 997
D. R.A. 8544
237. A declared policy of the state (the Philippines) to "promote and insure the safety of life and
property at sea" is enshrined in ______.
A. Art. II, Section 2 of R.A. 8544
B. Section 2, R.A. 8981
C. Art. II, Section 2 of R.A. 7621
D. E.O. 125 / 126 – A
238. The Professional Regulation Commission under the R.A. 8981 is a _________.
A. Four - man commission
B. Three - man commission
C. Five - man commission
D. Six - man commission
239. The members of the Board of Examiners for Deck and Engine Officers are appointed to

their positions thru the following process:
I. the candidate is endorsed by the MMAP or MEOP as the case maybe to the PRC, then
PRC recommend to the office of the President of the Philippines for appointment
II. the President of the Philippines appoint directly the member of the Board of Examiners
without benefit of any recommendation from PRC.
A. II only
B. Either I or II
C. I only
D. Neither I nor II

25