tài liệu ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 1 và 2 có đáp án

ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 1
PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs
from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. consume
B. reflect
C. local
D. between
Question 2: A. apply
B. visit
C. appear
D. attend
Question 3: A. compete
B. finish
C. expect
D. invent
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that is
pronounced differently from the rest in each of the following questions.
Question 4: A. wasted
B. practiced
C. laughed
D. jumped
Question 5: A. energy
B. gain
C. gesture
D. village
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 6: Mrs. Stevens, along with her cousins from New Mexico, are planning to
A
B

C
D
attend the festivities.
Question 7: The teacher asked him why hadn’t he done his homework, but he said
A
B
C
D
nothing.
Question 8: Hardly had he entered the room than all the lights went out.
A
B
C
D
Question 9: A paragraph is a portion of a text consists of one or more sentences related to
A
B
C
D
the same idea.
Question 10: John congratulated us to our excellent results although we didn’t know each
A
B
C
D
other very well.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the following questions.
Question 11: In a formal interview, it is essential to maintain good eye ________ with the
interviewers.

A. link
B. connection
C. touch
D. contact
Question 12: Grace Kelly was first famous as a Hollywood actress and then _______
Prince Rainier of Monaco.
A. to be the wife of
B. she was the wife of
C. the wife of
D. as the wife of


Question 13: We often take this small road home to avoid heavy _______ on the main
stress.
A. cars
B. traffic
C. vehicles
D. movement
Question 14: When he came to the counter to pay, he found that he had _____ cash _____
his credit card with him.
A. either/ or
B. both/ and
C. neither/ nor
D. not/ neither
Question 15: You look tired. __________ hard all day?
A. Have you been working
B. Did you work
C. Do you work
D. Are you working
Question 16: Tom looks so frightened and upset. He ___________ something terrible.

A. must experience
B. can have experienced
C. should have experienced
D. must have experienced
Question 17: Ann was very surprised to find the door unlocked. She remembered
________ it before she left.
A. to lock
B. having locked
C. to have locked
D. she locks
Question 18: The speed of light is _________ the speed of sound.
A. much faster than
B. faster
C. the fastest
D. as fast
Question 19: ________ imaginative stories about the origin of the game of chess.
A. Many of the
B. Many
C. There are many
D. Of the many
Question 20: ________ it not been for the torrential rain, we would have gone out.
A. But
B. If
C. Had
D. Should
Question 21: A week or two before New Year’s Day, the markets are ________ people
selling and buying things.
A. filled with
B. crowd with
C. ready for

D. crowded with
Question 22: The kind – hearted woman _________ all her life to helping the disabled
and the poor.
A. wasted
B. spent
C. dedicated
D. lived
Question 23: “May I leave a message for Ms Davis?” – “____________”
A. I’m afraid she is not here at the moment.
B. No, she’s not here now.
C. She’s leaving a message for you now.
D. Yes, I’ll make sure she gets it.
Question 24: Although he was _____________, he agreed to play tennis with me.
A. exhaustive
B. exhausting
C. exhausted
D. exhaustion
Question 25: He is very worried ________ his new job because he is not quite prepared
________ working.
A. about/ for
B. in/ at
C. to/ off
D. on/ over
Question 26: ____________ my Mum by cooking dinner for her.
A. cheered up
B. looked up
C. waited for
D. felt like

Question 27: We are going to _________________
A. get our house being redecorated
B. have our house be redecorated
C. have our house to be redecorated
D. have our house redecorated
Question 28: So little ___________ about mathmatics that the lecture was completely
beyond me.
A. I have know
B. I knew
C. do I know
D. did I know
Question 29: Would John be angry if I ______________ his bicycle without asking?
A. had taken
B. take
C. took
D. would take
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 30: Whenever Susan invites us to dinner, she customarily prepares a lot of
delicious food.
A. naturally
B. necessarily
C. usually
D. certainly
Question 31: It is hoped that illiteracy will soon be eradicated in our country as more and
more people are struggling against it.
A. striving
B. plunging
C. starting
D. evolving

Question 32: Hia new yatch is certainly an ostentatious display of his wealth.
A. beautiful
B. showy
C. large
D. expensive
Question 33: Power plants are increasingly located outside metropolitan areas.
A. belonging to a big or capital city
B. in an industryal city
C. of a busy suburb
D. relating to a remote suburb
Question 34: Few businesses are flourishing in the present economic climate.
A. growing well
B. setting up
C. closing down
D. taking off
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or
phrase to fill in the blank in the following passage.

THE LATE, LATE FLIGHT TO LONDON
Passengers travelling on a flight from Washington to London were in (35)______ a very
long wait. They had already been waiting eight uncomfortable hours to take off, only to
be told that the flight was (36)______ even further. The cabin crew advised passengers to
take pillows and blankets from the overhead lockers in (37)______ to sleep inside the
airport terminal. Many passengers (38)______ their tempers and fights broke out. People
shouted and (39)______ information. A number of the staff panicked and called airport
security guards. A (40)_______ lucky passengers were put on alternative flights,
(41)______ about 100 others spent the next day in the airport. Many people missed
connecting flights and would be delayed for several days. First – class passengers were
(42)______ fortunate. They were put (43)______ in luxury hotels and provided with food
and drink. Other passengers had to be content with vouchers for a meal, as the airline

staff were not able to find hotels with (44)______ free rooms to accommodate them. One
woman carried a silver for fuck. As she said, “I didn’t work this time!”.
Question 35: A. for
B. at
C. on
D. with
Question 36: A. late
B. retarded
C. delayed
D. behind
Question 37: A. case
B. order
C. so
D. turn
Question 38: A. mislaid
B. lost
C. missed
D. wasted
Question 39: A. asked
B. applied
C. demanded
D. took
Question 40: A. few
B. number
C. couple
D. little
Question 41: A. even
B. despite

C. in spite
D. although
Question 42: A. still
B. many
C. much
D. more
Question 43: A. up
B. off
C. out
D. about
Question 44: A. much
B. enough
C. to
D. a lot
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
One of the seven wonders of the ancient world, the Great Pyramid of Giza was a
monument of wisdom and prophecy built as a tomb for Pharaoh Cheops in 2720 B.C.
Despite its antiquity, certain aspects of its construction makes it one of truly great
wonders of the world. The thirteen - acre structure near the Nile River is a solid mass of
stone blocks covered with limestone. Inside are the number of hidden passageways and
the burial chamber for the pharaoh. It is the largest single structure in the world. The four
sides of the pyramid are aligned almost exactly on true north, south, east, and west – an
incredible engineering feat. The ancient Egyptians were sun worshippers and great
astronomers, so computations for the Great Pyramid were based on astronomical
observations.
Explorations and detailed examinations of the base of the structure reveal many
intersecting lines. Further scientific study indicates that these represent a type of timeline
of events - past, present and future. Many of the events have been interpreted and found
to coincide with known facts of the past. Others are prophesied for the future generations

and are currently under investigation. Many believe that pyramids have supernatural
powers and this one is no exception. Some researchers even associate it with
extraterrestrial beings of the ancient past.
Was this superstructure made by ordinary beings, or one built by a race far
superior to any known today?
Question 45: What has research of the base revealed?
A. there are cracks in the foudation
B. tomb robbers have stolen the Pharaoh’s body
C. the lines represent important events.
D. a superior race of people built in
Question 46: Extraterrestrial beings are__________.


A. very strong workers
B. astronomers in the ancient times
C. researchers in Egyptology
D. living beings from other planets
Question 47: What was the most probable reason for providing so many hidden passages
A. To allow the weight of the pyramid to settle evenly
B. To keep grave robbers from finding the tomb and the treasure buried with the pharaoh
C. To permit the high priests to pray at night
D. To enable the Pharaoh’s family to bring food for his journey to the afterlife
Question48: The word feat in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to ______.
A. appendage
B. accomplishment
C. festivity
D. structure
Question 49: What do the intersecting lines in the base symbolize?
A. Architects’plan for the hidden passage
B. Pathways of the great solar bodies

C. Astrological computations
D. Dates of important events taking place throughout time
Question 50: In the second passage, the word “prophesied” is closest in meaning to____.
A. precipitated
B. terminated
C. foretold
D. affiliated
Question 51: What the best title for the passage?
A. Symbolism of the Great Pyramid
B. Problems with the Construction of the Great Pyramid
C. Wonders of the Great Pyramid of Giza
D. Exploration of the Burial Chamber of Cheops
Question 52: On what did the ancient Egyptians base their calculations?
A. Advanced technology
B. Knowledge of the earth’s surface
C. Observation of the celestial bodies
D. Advanced tools of measurement
Question 53: Why was the Great Pyramid constructed?
A. As a solar observatory
B. As a religious temple
C. As a tomb for the Pharaoh
D. As an engineering feat
Question 54: Why is the Great Pyramid of Giza considered one of the seven wonders of
the world?
A. It is perfectly aligned with the four cardinal points of the compass and contains
many prophecies.
B. It was selected of the tomb of Pharaoh Cheops
C. It was built by a super race
D. It is very old

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
Ethology is concerned with the study of adaptive, or survival, value of behavior and its
Evolutionary history. Ethological theory began to be applied to research on children in the
1960’s but has become even more influential today. The origins of ethology can be traced to the
work of Darwin. Its modern foundations were laid by two European zoologists, Konrad Lorenz
and Niko Tinbergen.
Watching the behaviors diverse animal species in their natural habitats, Lorenz, and Tinbergen
observed behavior patterns that promote survival. The most well-known of these is imprinting,
the early following behavior of certain baby birds that ensures that the young will stay close to
their mother and be fed and protected from danger. Imprinting takes place during an early,
restricted time period of development. If the mother goose is not present during this time, but an
object resembling her in important features is, young goslings may imprint on it instead .
Observations of imprinting led to major concept that has been applied in child development” the
critical period . It refers to a limited times span during which the child is biologically prepared
to acquire certain adaptive behaviors but needs the support of suitably stimulating environment.
Many researchers have conducted studies to find out whether complex cognitive and social
behaviors must be learned during restricted time periods. for example, if children are deprived of
adequate food or physical and social stimulation during the early years of life, will their
intelligence be permanently impaired? If language is not mastered during the preschool years, is
the child’s capacity to acquire it reduced?
Inspired by observations of imprinting, in 1969 the British psychoanalyst John Bowlby
applied ethological theory to the understanding of the relationship between an infant and its
parents. He argued that attachment behaviors of babies, such as smiling, babbling, grasping,
and crying, are built-in social signals that encourage the parents to approach, care for, and
interact with the baby. By keeping a parent near, these behaviors help ensure that the baby will
be fed, protected from danger, and provided with the stimulation and affection necessary for
healthy growth. The development of attachment in human infants is a lengthy process involving
changes in psychological structures that lead to a deep affectional tie between parent and

baby.
Question 55: What was Darwin’s contribution to ethology?
A. Darwin was the first person to apply ethological theory to children.
B. Darwin’s work provided the basis for ethology.
C. Darwin was the professor who taught Lorenz and Tinbergen.
D. Darwin improved on the original principles of ethology.
Question 56: The word “foundations” in line 4 is closest in meaning to______.
A. institutions
B. inventions
C. discoveries
D. researches
Question 57: The word “ensures” in line 7 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. assumes
B. guarantees
C. proves
D. teaches
Question 58: According to the passage, if a mother goose is not present during the time period
when
imprinting takes place, which of the following will most likely occur?


A. The mother will later imprint on the gosling.
B. The gosling may not find a mate when it matures.
C. The gosling will not imprint on any object.
D. The gosling may imprint on another object.
Question 59: The word “He” in line 19 refers to __________.
A. an infant
B. a psychoanalyst
C. parent
D. a baby

Question 60: The word “acquire” in line 12 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. gain
B. reach
C. have
D. work
Question 61: The author mentions all of the following as attachment behaviors of human infants
EXCEPT__________.
A. smiling
B. crying
C. eating
D. grasping
Question 62: According to the passage, attachment behaviors of infants are intended
to___________.
A. prepare the infant to cope with separation
B. provide the infant with a means of self-stimulation
C. allow the infant to become imprinted on objects that resemble the parent
D. get the physical, emotional and social needs of the infant met
Question 63: The phrase “affectional tie” in line 24 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. behavioral change
B. psychological need
C. cognitive development
D. emotional attachment
Question 64: It can be inferred from the passage that ethological theory assumes that
__________.
A. failure to imprint has no influence on intelligence
B. to learn about human behavior only human subjects should be studied
C. there are similarities between animal and human behavior
D. the notion of critical periods applies only to animals

PHẦN TỰ LUẬN

Part I. WRITING: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the
same as the sentence printed before it.
1. We can’t afford to buy the car.  The car…………………………………………………
2. His parents made him study hard for the exams.  He was……………………………
3. We started cooking for the party four hours ago.  We have………………………….
4. He has never behaved so violent before.  He is behaving……………………………
5. We couldn’t get nearer because of the police.  The police…………………………...
Part II. In about 140 words, write a paragraph about the most memorable experience in
your life.

---------------------------------------------------THE END----------------------------------------------------


ĐÁP ÁN
PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM
1. C
2. B
3. B

9. B
10. A
11. D

17. B
18. A
19. C

25. A
26. A
27. D

33. A
34. A
35. A

41. D
42. D
43. A

49. D
50. A
51. A

57. B
58. B
59. B

4. A
5. B
6. C
7. B

12. D
13. B
14. C
15. A

20. C
21. D
22. C

23. D

28. D
29. C
30. C
31. A

36. C
37. B
38. B
39. C

44. B
45. C
46. D
47. B

52. C
53. C
54. A
55. B

60. A
61. C
62. D
63. D

8. B

16. D

24. C

32. B

40. A

48. A

56. A

64. C

PHẦN TỰ LUẬN
Part I:

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

The car is too expensive for us to buy.
He was made to study hard by his parents for the exams.
We have been cooking for four hours.
He is behaving more violent than ever before.
The police prevented us from getting.
Part II:
The most memorable experience in my life happened three years ago but now I could
recall this event very clearly. On the final day of my 9-grade years at secondary school,

my father gave me VND 200.000 for the good grades I had scored in my final exam. To
enjoy it, I invited some of my closest friends to a restaurant for a meal. At the restaurant,
I asked my friends to order as much as they liked. The food was delicious and we
began to eat. We ate, talked and laughed at the jokes we made in school. After we had
finished our food, the waiter brought us the bill. I opened my purse to take out the
money. To my surprise, I found my money missing. Only then I realized that I had left
the money at home. I wanted to borrow the money from my friends, but they had
brought only enough money for bus fare. I told the waiter and he lent me his phone to
call my sister and told her to bring the money to the restaurant. Ever since that day I
have stopped coming near that restaurant because I am afraid that some of the waiters
might recognize my face.


ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 2
PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 1: To attract someone’s attention we can use either verbal and non – verbal
A
B
C
of communication.
D
Question 2: Hardly he had entered the office when he realized that he had forgotten
A
B
C
D
his wallet.
Question 3: There are many frequently mentioned reasons why one out of four arrests

A
B
C
involve a juvenile.
D
Question 4: A paragraph is a portion of a text consists of one or more sentences related to
A
B
C
D
the same idea.
Question 5: John congratulated us to our excellent results although we didn’t know each
A
B
C
D
other very well.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or
phrase to fill in the blank in the following passage.
Color, although only a small part of our communication system, plays a large role.
Whether you are designing Web pages, buying clothes of decorating your kitchen, your
(6)______ of colors sends a definite message to other people, and they will response to it
in a (7)______ way.
Every color has a different (8)_______ on people, and the practice of correct color
selection is a delicate (9)_______. To further complicate matters, the effects of colors
change, as times and fashions change. Certain colors also mean different things in
different cultures. For example, in the United States, blue is thought to be a relaxing
color. Tests reveal that the color blue (10)______ blood pressure, calms viewers and gives
them a sense of security. In Middle Eastern countries, however, blue is believed to be a
protective color and people (11)_______ their front doors blue to ward off evil spirits.

Color communication is an essential part of how we see the world. In western
societies, we know that a jester is comical playful because he (12)_______ in bright red,
green, blue and yellow. The color black, however, is (13)________ with boredom or evil,
and white with purity and light. The color orange is friendly, relaxing and peaceful,
whereas (14)______ yellow is a happy color. Research shows that all human beings make
a subconscious judgement about a person or within the first 90 seconds of seeing it, and
62% to 90% of that assessment is (15)_______ on color alone.
Question 6: A. decision
B. option
C. choice
D. pick
Question 7: A. separate
B. certain
C. clear
D. obvious
Question 8: A. idea
B. sense
C. effect
D. force
Question 9: A. art
B. talent
C. method
D. ability
Question 10: A. lessens
B. drops
C. sinks
D. lowers
Question 11: A. paint

B. decorate
C. coat
D. shade
Question 12: A. outfits
B. clothes
C. dresses
D. wears
Question 13: A. matched
B. associated
C. joined
D. grouped
Question 14: A. strong
B. powerful
C. bright
D. loud
Question 15: A. based
B. constructed
C. established
D. balanced
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
The goal of Internet - based encyclopedia Wikipedia (www.wikipedia.org) is to give
everyone on the planet access to information. Like other encyclopedias, Wikipedia contains
lots of information: more than 2.5 million articles in 200 different languages covering just
about every subject. Unlike other encyclopedias, however, Wikipedia is not written by
experts, but by ordinary people. These writers are not paid and their names are not
published. They contribute to Wikipedia simply because they want to share their knowledge.
Encyclopedias began in ancient times as collections of writings about all aspects of
human knowledge. The word itself comes from ancient Greek, and means “a complete
general education”. Real popularity for encyclopedias came in the nineteenth century in

Europe and the United States, with the publication of encyclopedias written for ordinary
readers. With the invention of the CD-ROM, the same amount of information could be put
on a few computer discs. Then with the Internet, it became possible to create an online
encyclopedia that could be constantly updated, like Microsoft’s Encarta. However, even
Internet-based encyclopedias like Encarta were written by paid experts. At first, Wikipedia,
the brainchild of Jimmy Wales, a businessman in Chicago, was not so different from these.
In 2001, he had the idea for an Internet-based encyclopedia that would provide information
quickly and easily to everyone. Furthermore, that information would be available free, unlike
other Internet encyclopedias at that time.
But Wales, like everyone else, believed that people with special knowledge were
needed to write the articles, and so he began by hiring experts. He soon changed
his approach, however, as it took them a long time to finish their work. He decided to open


up the encyclopedia in a radical new way, so that everyone would have access not only to
the information, but also to the process of putting this information online. To do this, he used
what is known as “Wiki” software (from the Hawaiian word for “fast”), which allows users to
create or alter content on web page. The system is very simple: When you open the web
site, you can simply search for information or you can log on to become a writer or editor of
articles. If you find an article that interests you – about your hometown, for example – you
can correct it or expand it. This process goes on until no one is interested in making any
more changes.
Question 16: Wikipedia is a(n) ________.
A. book
B. journal
C. article
D. dictionary
Question 17: Wikipedia is written by _______.
A. paid written
B. millionaires

C. normal people
D. world experts
Question 18: The phrase “these writers” in the first paragraph refers to .........
A. ordinary readers B. ordinary people
C. encyclopedia experts D. every subject
Question 19: The phrase “the word” in the second paragraph refers to ________.
A. knowledge
B. encyclopedia
C. writing
D. collection
Question 20: Microsoft’s Encarta is cited in the passage as an example of _______.
A. CD-ROM dictionary
B. printed encyclopedia
C. online encyclopedia
D. updateable online encyclopedia
Question 21: The word “brainchild” in the second paragraph of the passage can be best
replaced by ______.
A. born
B. child
C. product
D. father
Question 22: The word “approach” in the third paragraph of the passage means _______
A. time
B. method
C. writing
D. idea
Question 23: The user of Wikipedia can do all of the following EXCEPT _______.
A. have access to information
B. determinate the website
C. modify information

D. edit information
Question 24: We can say that Jimmy Wales _______
A. became very famous after the formation of Wikipedia B. is the father of Wikipedia
C. made a great profit from Wikipedia
D. decides who can use Wikipedia
Question 25: Wiki software enables _______.
A. exchanging articles
B. a purchase of information
C. limited access
D. editing

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 26: Few businesses are flourshing in the present economic climate.
A. growing well
B. setting up
C. taking off
D. closing down
Question 27: The dog saw his reflection in the pool of water.
A. image
B. bone
C. leash
D. imagination
Question 28: At times, I look at him and wonder what is going on in his mind.
A. Sometimes
B. always
C. hardly
D. never

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE

in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.


Question 29: We ought to keep these proposals secret from the chairman for the time
being.
A. frequented
B. accessible
C. revealed
D. lively
Question 30: They protested about the inhumane treatment of the prisoners.
A. vicious
B. warmhearted
C. callous
D. coldbloode
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the following questions.
Question 31: We ________ today and I got into trouble because I hadn’t done it.
A. were checked our homework
B. have our homework checking
C. had checked our homework
D. had our homework checked
Question 32: You can go to the party tonight _______ you are sober when you come
home.
A. as long as
B. as far as
C. as soon as
D. as well as
Question 33: She must ______ in the garage when we came that’s why she didn’t hear the
bell.
A. have been working

B. be working
C. have worked
D. work
Question 34: It’s essential that every student _______ the exam before attending the
course.
A. passes
B. would pass
C. passed
D. pass
Question 35: We intend to _______ with the old system as soon as we have developed a
better one.
A. do up
B. do in
C. do away
D. do down
Question 36: Mark: - “_______”
Hellen: “Oh, thank you. I just got it yesterday.”
A. What a beautiful dress you have on!
B. How a beautiful dress you’re wearing!
C. You’re just bought this beautiful dress, haven’t you?
D. When have you got this beautiful dress?
Question 37: It is better to try to work ______ rather than against Nature.
A. for
B. with
C. by
D. along
Question 38: I don’t like this wine. I like______.
A. some other
B. another
C. other

D. the other
Question 39: If the doorbell rings, _______.
A. the dog barks
C. the dog is barking
B. the dog would bark
D. the dog barked
Question 40: My house is ____ from my office.


A. near

B. nearly
C. further
D. far
Question 41: “_______.” – “Thank you. We are proud of him.”
A. Your kid is naughty.
C. Your child is just adorable!
B. Can we ask your child tot ake a photo?
D. I can give your kid a lift to school.
Question 42: I read the contact again and again __________ avoiding making spelling
mistakes.
A. in terms of
B. by means of
C. with a view to
D. in view of
Question 43: Van Gogh suffered from depression _______ by overwork and ill-health.
A. brought on
B. coming about
C. taken up
D. pull through

Question 44: ________ he study harder, he will do better in the exam.
A. Should
B. If
C. When
D. Unless
Question 45: When there are small children around, it is better to put breakable
ornaments out of __________.
A. reach
B. hand
C. place
D. hold
Question 46: So little ________ about mathematics that the lecture was completely
beyond me.
A. I have known
B. I knew
C. do I know
D. did I know
Question 47: As a result of social and economic pressur, ________ speakers live in
Scotland _________.
A. no/ no more
C. hardly any/ any longer
B. every/ any more
D. few/ the more
Question 48: It was his idea _______ changes in our company.
A. which resulted from
C. that brought about
B. that was resulted in
D. which was brought up
Question 49: You look tired. Are you _________ the weather?
A. on

B. in
C. under
D. off
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs
from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 50: A. maintain
B. between
C. available
D. mountain
Question 51: A. documentary
B. popularity
C. understand
D. convenient
Question 52: A. disappear
B. engineer
C. education
D. attachment
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that is
pronounced differently from the rest in each of the following questions.
Question 53: A. candy
B. many
C. sandy
D. handy
Question 54: A. chin
B. charge
C. child
D. chaos
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.

Throughout the nineteenth century and into the twentieth, citizens of the United States maintained a bias
against big cities. Most lived on farms and in small towns and believed cities to be centers of corruption,
crime, poverty, and moral degradation. Their distrust was caused, in part, by a national ideology that
proclaimed farming the greatest occupation and rural living superior to urban living. This attitude prevailed
even as the number of urban dwellers increased and cities became an essential feature of the national
landscape. Gradually, economic reality overcame ideology. Thousands abandoned the precarious life on the
farm for more secure and better paying jobs in the city. But when these people migrated from the countryside,
they carried their fears and suspicious with them. These new urbanities, already convinced that cities were
overwhelmed with great problems, eagerly embraced the progressive reforms that promised to bring order out
of the chaos of the city.
One of many reforms came in the area of public utilities. Water and sewerage systems were usually
operated by municipal governments, but the gas and electric networks were privately owned. Reformers feared
that the privately owned utility companies would charge exorbitant rates for these essential services and
deliver them only to people who could afford them. Some city and state governments responded by regulating
the utility companies, but a number of cities began to supply these services themselves. Proponents of these
reforms argued that public ownership and regulation would insure widespread access to these utilities and
guarantee a fair price.
While some reforms focused on government and public behavior, others looked at the cities as a whole.
Civic leaders, convinced that physical environment influenced human behavior, argued that cities should
develop master plans to guide their future growth and development. City planning was nothing new, but the
rapid industrialization and urban growth of the late nineteenth century took place without any consideration
for order. Urban renewal in the twentieth century followed several courses. Some cities introduced plans to
completely rebuild the city core. Most other cities contented themselves with zoning plans for regulating future
growth. Certain parts of town were restricted to residential use, while others were set aside for industrial or
commercial development.
Question 55: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A.
B.

C.
D.

The role of government in twentieth century urban renewal
Efforts to improve urban life in the early twentieth century
Methods of controlling urban growth in the twentieth century
A comparison of urban and rural life in the early twentieth century
Question 56: The word “bias” is closest in meaning to
A. diagonal
B. slope
C. distortion
D. prejudice
Question 57: The first paragraph suggests that most people who lived in rural areas
A. were suspicious of their neighbors
B. believed city government had too much power
C. were very proud of their lifestyle
D. wanted to move to the cities
Question 58: In the early twentieth century, many rural dwellers migrated to the city in
order to
A. avoid crime and corruption
B. seek financial security
C. comply with a government ordinance
D. participate in the urban reform movement


Question 59: The word “ embraced” is closest in meaning to
A. suggested
B. demanded
C. overestimated
D. welcomed

Question 60: What concern did reformers have about privately owned utility companies?
A. They feared the services would not be made available to all city dwellers.
B. They did not trust the companies to obey the government regulations.
C. They wanted to ensure that the services would be provided to rural areas.
D. They believed private ownership would slow economic growth.
Question 61: The word “exorbitant” is closest in meaning to
A. additional
B. expensive
C. various
D. modified
Question 62: All of the following were the direct result of public utility reforms EXCEPT
A. local governments determined the rates charged by private ultility companies.
B. pivate ultility companies were required to pay a fee to local governments.
C. some ultility companies were owned and operated by local governments.
D. the availability of services was regulated by local governments.
Question 63: The word “Proponents” is closest in meaning to
A. Experts
B. Supporters
C. Pioneers
D. Reviewers
Question 64: Why does the author mention “industrialization” (in the last paragraph)?
A. To explain how fast urban growth led to poorly designed cities.
B. To emphasize the economic importance of urban areas.
C. To illustrate the need for construction of new factories.
D. To suggest that labor disputes had become an urban problem.

PHẦN TỰ LUẬN
Part I: WRITING: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means
the same as the sentence printed before it. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
Question 65: It is said that the Great Pyramid of Giza was built over a 20-year period.

 The Great Pyramid of Giza………………………………………………………
Question 66: Mary started learning English 3 years ago.
 Mary has…………………………………………………………………………
Question 67: Mr. Smith knew little about the Internet, so he didn’t invest into any
computer companies.
 Had….……………………………………………………………………………
Question 68: We can’t have breakfast in the garden because it is vare cold.
 It is so…………………………………………………………………………….
Question 69: Immediately after his arrival, things went wrong.
 Hardly…………………………………………………………………………….


Part II: In about 140 words, write a paragraph about the benefits of playing sports.
Write your paragraph on your answer sheet.
---------------------------------------------THE END----------------------------------------------

ĐÁP ÁN
PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM
1. C

9. D

17. C

25. D

33. A

41. C

49. B

57. B

2. B

10. B

18. B

26. A

34. D

42. C

50. C

58. A

3. D

11. A

19. B

27. A

35. C

43. A

51. D

59. B

4. B

12. C

20. C

28. A

36. A

44. A

52. D

60. C

5. B

13. B

21. C

29. C

37. B

45. A

53. C

61. D

6. A

14. A

22. D

30. B

38. A

46. D

54. D

62. B

7. D

15. A

23. B

31. D

39. A

47. D

55. D

63. B

8. C

16. B

24. B

32. A

40. D

48. D

56. D

64. C

PHẦN TỰ LUẬN
Part I:
Question 65: The Great Pyramid of Giza is said that to have been built over a 20-year
period.

Question 66: Mary has learnt English for 3 years.
Question 67: Had Mr. Smith knew a little about the Internet, he invested into some
computer companies.
Question 68: It is so cold for us to have breakfast in the garden.
Question 69: Hardly had he arrive when things went wrong.
Part II:
Firstly, playing sports can give you a healthy life and a fit body. You will be more active
and healthier by playing sports. To illustrate, you can have a lower chance of getting a
serious illness such as a heart attack or high blood pressure.


In other words, it increases your resistance to illness. In leisure time, you can play sports
with your friends or your relatives, this not only helps you but also motivates everyone
around you to take part in sports and have good health.
Furthermore, there are some sports which you can play easily such as table tennis, tennis
or football and after that, you feel completely relaxed or even free from your stress.
Moreover, you also need to allow and encourage children to play sports, especially some
outside activities such as football, basketball or volleyball to decrease the time that your
children spend sitting in front of computers or watching television.
These sports can help them have endurance, quickness and even teach them
how to improve team spirit and work in groups. These sports also teach them
how to communicate with their teammates, and show them how active and
creative they are.