Bộ đề thi thử (số 2) THPT quốc gia môn tiếng anh 2015 có đáp án

SỞ GIÁO DỤC ĐÀO TẠO
HỘI ĐỒNG BỘ MÔN TIẾNG ANH THPT

ĐỀ THI MẪU – KỲ THI THPT QUỐC GIA 2015
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút

Đơn vị: THPT Hồng Ngự 1
Đề thi cấu trúc 3
SECTION A: MULTIPLE CHOICES
Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is PRONOUNCED
differently from the other three in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. conceal
B. creature
C. deal
D. healthy
Question 2: A. open
B. obtain
C. observe
D. opinion
Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of the PRIMARY STRESS in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. electronic
B. expedition
C. insurance
D. understand
Question 4: A. enjoyable
B. comparison
C. magical
D. successful
Question 5: A. official
B. mechanic

C. preference
D. convenience
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer for each of the questions from 6 to 15.
According to the best evidence gathered by space probes and astronomers, Mars is an
inhospitable planet, more similar to Earth's Moon than to Earth itself - a dry, stark, seemingly
lifeless world. Mars' air pressure is equal to Earth's at an altitude of 100,000 feet. The air there is
95 percent carbon dioxide.
Mars has no ozone layer to screen out the sun's lethal radiation. Daytime temperatures may
reach above freezing, but because the planet is blanketed by the mere wisp of an atmosphere, the
heat radiates back into space. Even at the equator, the temperature drops to -50C (-60F) at night.
Today there is no liquid water, although valleys and channels on the surface show evidence of
having been carved by running water. The polar ice caps are made of frozen water and carbon
dioxide, and water may be frozen in the ground as permafrost.
Despite the difficult conditions, certain scientists believe that there is a possibility of
transforming Mars into a more Earth-like planet. Nuclear reactors may be used to melt frozen gases
and eventually build up the atmosphere. This in turn could create a "greenhouse effect" that would
stop heat from radiating back into space. Liquid water could be thawed to form a polar ocean. Once
enough ice has melted, suitable plants could be introduced to build up the level of oxyzen in the
atmosphere so that, in time, the planet would support animal life from Earth and even permanent
human colonies. "This was once thought to be so far in the future as to be irrelevant," said
Christopher McKay, a research scientist at NASA. "But now it's starting to look practical. We
could begin work in four or five decades."
The idea of "terra-forming" Mars, as enthusiasts call it, has its roots in science fiction. But
as researchers develop a more profound understanding of how Earth's ecology supports life, they
have begun to see how it may be possible to create similar conditions on Mars. Don't plan on
homesteading on Mars any time soon, though. The process could take hundreds or even thousands
of years to complete and the cost would be staggering.
Question 6: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The possibility of changing the Martian environment.

B. The challenge of interplanetary travel.
C. The advantages of establishing colonies on Mars.
D. The need to study the Martian ecology.


Question 7: The word “ stark” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. harsh
B. unknown
C. dark
D. distant
Question 8: The word "there" in paragraph 2 refers to ____________.
A. a point 100 miles above the Earth
B. the Earth's Moon
C. Mars
D. outer space
Question 9: Which of the following does the author NOT list as a characteristic of the planet Mars
that would make colonization difficult ?
A. There is little liquid water
B. Daytime temperature are dangerously high.
C. The sun's rays are deadly.
D. Night time temperatures are extremely low.
Question 10: According to the passage, the Martian atmosphere today consists mainly of ______
A. carbon dioxide
B. oxygen
C. ozone
D. water vapour
Question 11: It can be inferred from the passage that the "greenhouse effect" mentioned in the
paragraph 3 is _________________.
A. the direct result of nuclear reactions.
B. the cause of low temperatures on Mars.

C. caused by the introduction of green plants. D. a possible meams of warming Mars.
Question 12: The word " suitable" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______________.
A. resistant
B. altered
C. appropriate
D. native
Question 13: According to Christopher McKay, the possibility of transforming Mars _________
A. could only occur in science fiction stories
B. will not begin for hundreds, even thousands of year.
C. is completely impractical.
D. could be started in forty to fifty years.
Question 14: The phrase " more profound" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _________
A. deeper
B. more practical
C. more up - to - date
D. brighter
Question 15: According to the article, the basic knowledge needed to transform Mars comes
from.__________________.
A. the science of astronomy
B. the knowlege of Earth's ecology
C. date from space probes
D. sciencefiction stories
Choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 16: The doctor advised him ______ and to take up some sports.
A. to stop smoke
B. to stop smoking
C. stop smoking
D. to stop to smoke
Question 17: Thousand of antibiotics ________, but only about thirty are in common use today.
A. have developed B. have been developed C. are developing

D. have been developing
Question 18: They were totally opposed ______ the changes made in the plans.
A. of
B. to
C. against
D. with
Question 19: I _______ a large pet unless I had had time to exercise it properly.
A. would never have kept
B. would have kept
C. would never keep
D. would keep
Question 20: I can't __________ that noise any longer.
A. put up with
B. stand in for
C. sit out
D. carry on
Question 21: The facilities of the old health centre ___________.
A. are as good or better than the new centre
B. are as good or better than the new centre
C. are as good as or better than the new centre
D. are as good as or better than those of the new centre
Question 22: No longer _________do all the housework with their hands.
A. have women to
B. do women have
C. do women have to D. women have to
Question 23: Although some people earn a lot of money, they are not _______ with their lives.
A. satisfy
B. pleasant
C. contented
D. concerned

Question 24: You are not allowed to drive your car in the city centre at rush hour ______ there is
too much traffic then.
A. because of
B. because
C. although
D. in spite of
Question 25: ________Mary by phone, John decided to email her.
A. Having failed to contact
B. Having failed contacting
C. He failed to contact
D. That he fail contacting
Question 26: Is that the man ________ has been stolen?
A. the car of whom
B. the car of his
C. whose car
D. the car of who
Question 27: No sooner ______ at the bus stop ______ the bus came.
A. he had arrived / when
B. had he arrived / when
C. had he arrived / than
D. he had arrived / than
Question 28: He took ________ golf when he retired from work.
A. up
B. over
C. on
D. after
Question 29: It seems he has no __________ of winning.
A. chance

B. occasion
C. opportunity
D. luck
Question 30: He shows a very _______ attitude to his work, which makes his boss upset.
A. responsible
B. responsibility
C. irresponsible
D. irresponsibility
Question 31: Ellen: "________?" - Tom: He is tall and thin with blue eyes.
A. How is John doing?
B. What does John like?
C. What does John look kike?
D. Who does John look like?
Question 32: The government has _________ measures to promote the development of the
economy.
A. achieved
B. made
C. carried
D. taken
Question 33: Jenny: "You look nice today. I like your new hairstyle."- Linda: _________.
A. It's nice of you to say so
B. Shall I? Thanks!
C. Oh, well done!
D. I feel interesting to hear that.
Question 34: The salesman left a good __________ on his customers
A. impression
B. expression
C. idea
D. belief
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate

the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 44.
Although noise, commonly defined as unwanted sound, is a widely recognised form of
pollution, it is very difficult to measure because the discomfort experienced by different individuals
is highly subjective and, therefore, variable. Exposure to lower levels of noise may be sightly
irritating, whereas exposure to higher levels may actually cause hearing loss. Particularly in
congested urban areas, the noise produced as a by-product of our advancing technology causes
physical and psychological harm, and detracts from the quality of life for those who are exposed to
it.
Unlike the eyes, which can be covered by the eyelids against strong light, the ear has no lid,
and is, therefore, always open and vulnerable; noise penetrates without protection.
Noise causes effects that the hearer cannot control and to which the body never becomes
accustomed. Loud noises instintively signal danger to any organism with a hearing mechanism,
including human beings. In response, heartbeat and respiration accelerate, blood vessels constrict,
the skin pales, and muscles tense. In fact, there is a general increase in functioning brought about
the flow of adrenaline released in response to fear, and some of the responses persist even longer
than the noise, occasionally as long as thirty minutes after the sound has ceased.
Because noise is unavoidable in a complex, insdustrial society, we are constantly responding
in the same way that we would respond to danger. Recently, researchers have concluded that noise
and our response may be much more than any annoyance. It may be a serious threat to physical and
psychological health and well-being , cause damage not only to the ear and brain but also to the
heart and stomatch. We have long known that hearing loss is America's number one nonfatal health
problem, but now we are learning that some of us with heart disease and ulcers may be victims of


noise as well. Fetuses exposed to noise tend to be overactive, they cry easily, and they are more
sensitive to gastrointestinal problems after birth. In addition, the psychic effect of noise is very
important. Nervousness, irritability, tension, and anxiety increase, affecting the quality of test
during sleep, and the efficiency of activities during walking hours, as well as the way that we
interact with each other.
Question 35: Which of the following is the writer's main point?

A. Noise may pose a serious threat to our physical and psychological health.
B. Loud noise signal danger.
C. Hearing loss is America's number one nonfatal health problem.
D. The ear is not like the eye.
Question 36: According to the passage, what is noise?
A. Unwanted sound
B. A by-product of technology
C. Physical and psychological harm
D. Congestion
Question 37: Why is noise difficult to measure?
A. It causes hearing loss. B. All people do not respond to it in the same way.
C. It is unwanted.
D. People become accustomed to it.
Question 38: The word congested in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by _____________.
A. hazardous
B. polluted
C. crowded
D. rushed
Question 39: It can be inferred from the passage that the eye __________________.
A. responds to fear
B. enjoys greater protection than the ear
C. increases functions
D. is damaged by noise
Question 40: According to the passage, people respond to loud noises in the same way that they
respond to ___________.
A. annoyance
B. disease
C. damage
D. danger
Question 41: The word accelerate in paragraph 3 is closest meaning to ___________.

A. decrease
B. alter
C. increase
D. release
Question 42: The word it in the first paragraph refers to ___________________.
A. the noise
B. the quality of life C. advancing technology D. a by-product
Question 43: With which of the following statements would the writer most probably agree?
A. Noise is not a serious problem today.
B. Noise is America's number one problem.
C. Noise is unavoidable problem in an industrial society.
D. Noise is a complex problem.
Question 44: The phrase as well in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. after all
B. also
C. instead
D. regardless

Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction.
Question 45: It would be both noticed and appreciating if you could finish the work before you leave.
A
B
C
D
Question 46: Most country music songs are deeply personal and deal with themes of loves, lonely,
A
B
C
D
and seperation.

Question 47: There is no limit to the diversity to be finding in the cultures of people throughout
A
B
C
D
the world.
Question 48: The tickets that you ordered they will be delivered tomorrow.
A
B
C
D
Question 49: Alike all other mammals, dolphins have lungs.
A
B
C D
Choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined part in each of the following questions.


Question 50: During the recession, many small companies were eradicated.
A. run on
B. taken over
C. wiped out
D. set up
Question 51: It is really quite incredible that he is unaware of such basic facts.
A. unbelievable
B. difficult
C. disappointed
D. imaginable
Question 52: The SEA Games is a biennial multi-sport event involving participants from the

current 11 countries of Southeast Asia.
A. happening once a year
B. happening twice a year
C. happening once every two years
D. happening once every four years
Question 53: Help and supports are rapidly sent to wherever there are victims of catastrophe.
A. epidemic
B. destruction
C. misfortune
D. disaster
Question 54: During the 1970s, the U.S. forged trade links with China.
A. provided
B. broke
C. developed
D. maintained
Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks from 55 to 64.
Do you want to (55) _________ part in the battle to save the world's wildlife? Animal
Watch is a book which will involve you in the fight for survival that (56)_________ many of our
endangered animals and show how they struggle on the edge of extinction. As you enjoy the book's
250 pages and over 150 colour photograph, you will have the (57) ___________ of knowing that
part of your purchase money is being used to help animals (58)____________. From the comfort of
your armchair, you will be able to observe the world's animals close-up and explore their habitats.
You will also discover the terrible results of human greed for land, flesh and skins.
Animal Watch is packed with fascinating facts. Did you know that polar bears cover their
black noses (59) __________their paws so they can hunt their prey in the snow without being seen,
for example? Or that (60)____________ each orangutan which is captured, one has to die?
This superb publication has so (61) ___________Britain's leading wildlife charity that it has
been chosen as Book of the Year, a (62) _____________awarded to books which are considered to
have made a major contribution to wildlife conservation. You will find Animal Watch at a special
low (63) ___________at all good bookshops, but hurry while (64) _________........last.

Question 55: A. play
B. be
C. take
D. have
Question 56: A. meets
B. opposes
C. forces
D. faces
Question 57: A. satisfaction
B. enjoyment
C. virtue
D. value
Question 58: A. preserve
B. conserve
C. revive
D. survive
Question 59: A. with
B. by
C. for
D. from
Question 60: A. with
B. by
C. for
D. from
Question 61: A. imposed
B. impressed
C. persuaded
D. admired
Question 62: A. symbol
B. title

C. trademark
D. nickname
Question 63: A. beginning
B. preparatory
C. original
D. introductory
Question 64: A. stores
B. stocks
C. goods
D. funds
SECTION B: WRITING
PART I: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that the rewritten sentence has
the same meaning to the original one.
Question 65: She advised me not to apply for the job.
If I..........................................................................................................................................................
Question 66: "Why didn't you apply for the job, Mary?"
I wanted to know ..................................................................................................................................
Question 67: They didn't buy anything from the supermarket.
Nothing .................................................................................................................................................
Question 68: This is the most pleasant holiday I have ever had.
I have never...........................................................................................................................................


Question 69: He doesn't want the other people to see him.
He hates being.......................................................................................................................................
PART II: "Married woman should or shouldn't go out to work"
In about 140 words, write a paragraph to express your opinions
...............................................................................................................................................................
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THE END.
Giáo viên: Võ Thị Bích Thủy


ANSWER KEYS
SECTION A: MULTIPLE CHOICES
1
2
3
4
5
6
7

8

A
D
C
B
C
A
A
C

9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16

B
A
D
C
D
A
B
B

17

18
19
20
21
22
23
24

B
B
A
A
D
C
C
B

25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32

A
C
C
A

A
C
C
D

33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40

A
A
A
A
B
C
B
D

41
42
43
44
45
46
47

48

C
A
C
B
B
D
B
C

49
50
51
52
53
54
55
56

A
C
A
C
D
C
C
D

57

58
59
60
61
62
63
64

A
D
A
C
B
B
D
B

SECTION B: WRITING
PART I:
Question 65: She advised me not to apply for the job.
If I were you, I wouldn't apply for the job.
Question 66: "Why didn't you apply for the job, Mary?"
I wanted to know why Mary hadn't applied for the job.
Question 67: They didn't buy anything from the supermarket.
Nothing was bought from the supermarket.
Question 68: This is the most pleasant holiday I have ever had.
I have never had more a pleasant holiday than this before.
Question 69: He doesn't want the other people to see him.
He hates being seen by the other people.
PART II: Theo hướng dẫn của đề thi minh hoạ.

HẾT.
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
HỘI ĐỒNG BỘ MÔN TIẾNG ANH THPT
Đơn vị: THPT Tân Phú Trung
Đề thi cấu trúc 2

ĐỀ THI MẪU – KỲ THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2015
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is
pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
Question 1:A.annual
B.vegetation
C.eliminate
D.survey
Question 2:A.think
B.that
C.three
D.thank
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions
Question 3:A. accurate
B. customer
C. computer
D. exercise
Question 4:A. activity
B. biology
C. geography
D. scientific
Question 5:A. environment

B. satisfaction
C. cultivation
D.
distribution
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) that is CLOSET in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 6: Pierre often helped her, and they devoted all their time to working in their
laboratory.


A. dedicated
B. sent
C. gave
D. offered
Question 7: Founded in 1930 with just 13 teams, the tournament now attracts more than 140
countries.
A. Established
B. Produced
C. Started
D. Erected
Question 8:Boys'Clubs do not deprive poor children of the opportunity to participate in sports.
A. deny
B. retract
C. improvise
D. dilute
Question 9: If no specific measures are taken, what is occurring to the Earth will cause all
species including human race to vanish.
A. disappear
B. prosper
C. attacked

D. devastate
Question10:The newspaper reporters bear out what the Minister told yesterday.
A. define
B. confirm
C. support
D. conplain
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question11:In 1977,Amnesty was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize for “defending human worth
A
B
C
against degrading treatment , violent and torture”
D
Question12:The local residents filled the new auditorium as they waited to hear the developer
A
B
C
recount the history of the archaeological site.
D
Question 13: Calcium, the most abundantly mineral in the body, works with phosphorus in
A
B
C
maintaining bones and teeth.
D
Question 14: It was at this shop where I bought a T-shirt three days ago.
A
B
C

D
Question15: I remember that I danced not goods the first time I did the tango.
A
B
C
D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Question 16: Mathew’s hands were covered in oil because he_____his bike.
A.had been mending
B.has been mending
C.has mended
D.had
mended
Question 17: She asked me how long_____in my present job.
A.I had been working
B.I have been working
C.had I been working
D.have I worked
Question 18: We are pleased ___ the result of our work.
A . to
B . with
C . about
D . at
Question 19: The television isn't working. It _______ during the move.
A. should have been damaged
B. needn't be damaged
C. must have been damaged
D. ought not be damaged
Question 20: If you had caught the bus, you _____ late for work.

A. wouldn't have been
B. would have been
C. wouldn’t be
D. would be
Question 21: It is neccesary that she _____now.
A.gone
B.goes
C.go
D.went
Question 22:Not only ____to determine the depth of the ocean floor , but it is also used to locate
oil.


A.to use seismology
B.is seismology used
C. seismology is used
D.using seismology
Question 23 :The mother got angry because …………………
A.her’s son bad behavior
B.her son will behave badly
C.her son behaved badly
D.her son bad behaving
Question 24: My neighbor is driving me mad! It seems that _______ it is at night, _______ he
plays his music!
A. the less / the more loud
B. the less / less
C. the more late / the more loudlier
D. the later / the louder
Question 25: The effect of the painkiller is ____ and I begin to feel the soreness again.
A. turning out

B. doing without
C. fading away
D. wearing off
Question 26: We don't seem to have any more of that book, Sir. It is out of _______ but we are
getting a new delivery next Thursday if you would like to pop back then.
A. shop
B. print
C. order
D. stock
Question 27:I was about to leave when something occurred which attracted my _____.
A. surprise
B. thought
C. attention
D. sympathy
Question 28: I wonder if you could _______ me a small favour, Tom?
A. bring
B. make
C. give
D. do
Question 29:The number of chromosomes in a cell _______ from species to species.
A. varies
B. vary
C. varying
D. to vary
Question 30:Can you take ______ of the shop while Mr. Bentall is away?
A. management
B. running
C. charge
D. operation
Question 31: It was not until he took up fishing _______ he began to know more about fish

species.
A. that
B. what
C. while
D. which
Question 32: John: “Could I just do it right now?”Jane: “________”
A. Yes, you could. B. Why not? Go ahead.C. Not for me.
D. Yes, let’s.
Question 33: John: “I’ve passed my final exam.”
Tom: “______”
A. That’s a good idea.
B. Good luck.
C. It’s nice of you to say so.
D. Congratulations!
Question 34: - "What do you think of football?" - "_______"
A. Well, it's beyond my expectation
B. Of course, football players are excellent
C. It's none of my business.
D. I am crazy about it.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Even before the turn of the century, movies began to develop in two major directions: the
realistic and the formalistic. Realism and formalism are merely general, rather than absolute,
terms. When used to suggest a tendency toward either polarity, such labels can be helpful, but in
the end they are still just labels. Few films are exclusively formalist in style, and fewer yet are
completely realist. There is also an important difference between realism and reality, although
this distinction is often forgotten. Realism is a particular style, whereas physical reality is the
source of all the raw materials of film, both realistic and formalistic. Virtually all movie
directors go to the photographable world for their subject matter, but what they do with this
material - how they shape and manipulate it - determines their stylistic emphasis.

Generally speaking, realistic films attempt to reproduce the surface of concrete reality
with a minimum of distortion. In photographing objects and events, the filmmaker tries to
suggest the copiousness of life itself. Both realist and formalist film directors must select (and
hence emphasize) certain details from the chaotic sprawl of reality. But the element of selectivity
in realistic films is less obvious. Realists, in short, try to preserve the illusion that their film


world is unmanipulated, an objective mirror of the actual world. Formalists, on the other hand,
make no such pretense. They deliberately stylize and distort their raw materials so that only the
very naive would mistake a manipulated image of an object or event for the real thing.
We rarely notice the style in a realistic movie; the artist tends to be self-effacing. Some
filmmakers are more concerned with what is being shown than how it is manipulated. The
camera is used conservatively. It is essentially a recording mechanism that reproduces the
surface of tangible objects with as little commentary as possible. A high premium is placed on
simplicity, spontaneity, and directness. This is not to suggest that these movies lack artistry,
however, for at its best the realistic cinema specializes in art that conceals art.
Question 35. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Acting styles
B. Film plots
C. Styles of filmmaking
D. Filmmaking 100 years ago
Question 36. With which of the following statements would the author be most likely to agree?
A. Realism and formalism are outdated terms.
B. Most films are neither exclusively realistic nor formalistic.
C. Realistic films are more popular than formalistic ones.
D. Formalistic films are less artistic than realistic ones.
Question 37. Whom does the author say is primarily responsible for the style of a film?
A. The director
B. The actors
C. The producer

D. The camera operator
Question 38. The word "shape" in line 8 is closest in meaning to_____.
A. specify
B. form
C. understand
D. achieve
Question 39. The word "preserve" in line 14 is closest in meaning to
A. encourage
B. maintain
C. reflect
D. attain
Question 40. The word “They” in line 16 refers to_____.
A. films
B. realists
C. formalists
D. raw materials
Question 41. How can one recognize the formalist style?
A. It uses familiar images.
B. It is very impersonal.
C. It obviously manipulates images.
D. It mirrors the actual world.
Question 42. The word "tangible" in line 20 is closest in meaning to
A. concrete
B. complex
C. various
D. comprehensible
Question 43. Which of the following terms is NOT used to describe realism in filmmaking?
A. Simple
B. Spontaneous
C. Self-effacing

D. Exaggerated
Question 44. Which of the following films would most likely use a realist style?
A. A travel documentary
B. A science fiction film
C. A musical drama
D. An animated cartoon
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 10 to 19.
In most of the earliest books for children, illustrations were an afterthought. But in the
Caldecott “toy books” which first (45)___ in 1878, they were almost (46)___ important as the
lines of text, and occupied far more space in the book. One can almost read the story from the
dramatic action in the pictures.
(47) ___ then, thousands of successful picture books have been published in the United States
and around the world. In the best, the words and illustrations seem to complement each other
perfectly. Often a single person is responsible (48)___ both writing and illustrating the book.
One of (49)___, and certainly one of the most successful, illustrator-authors was Dr. Seuss,
(50)___ real name was Theodor Geisel. His first children’s book, And to Think That I Saw It
on Mulberry Street, hit the market in 1937, and the world of children’s literature was changed
forever. Seuss’s playful drawings were a perfect complement to his engaging stories and (51)___
characters. In 1957, Seuss’s The Cat in the Hat (52)___ the first book in Random House’s bestselling series, Beginner Books, written by Seuss and several (53)___ authors. These combine


outrageous illustrations of people, creatures, and plants, and playful stories written (54)___ very
simple language.
Question 45: A. happened
B. emerged
C. appeared
D. showed
Question 46: A. as
B. most

C. more
D. less
Question 47: A. Before
B. Till
C. By
D. Since
Question 48: A. with
B. for
C. at
D. to
Question 49: A. the greatest
B. the greatness
C. the great
D. the greater
Question 50: A. who
B. whose
C. whom
D. who’s
Question 51: A. forgetting
B. forgetful
C. forgotten
D. unforgettable
Question 52: A. would become
B. has become
C. had become
D. became
Question 53: A. another
B. other
C. one another D. each other
Question 54: A. about

B. from
C. in
D. at
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Although they are an inexpensive supplier of vitamins, minerals, and high-quality protein, eggs
also contain a high level of blood cholesterol, one of the major causes of heart diseases. One egg
yolk, in fact, contains a little more than two-thirds of the suggested daily cholesterol limit. This
knowledge
has caused egg sales to plummet in recent years, which in turn has brought about the
development of several alternatives to eating regular eggs. One alternative is to eat substitute
eggs. These egg substitutes are not really eggs, but they look somewhat like eggs when they are
cooked. They have the advantage of having low cholesterol rates, and they can be scrambled or
used in baking. One disadvantage, however, is that they are not good for frying, poaching, or
boiling. A second alternative to regular eggs is a new type of egg, sometimes called 'designer'
eggs. These eggs are produced by hens that are fed low-fat diets consisting of ingredients such
as canola oil, flax, and rice bran. In spite of their diets, however, these hens produce eggs that
contain the same amount of cholesterol as regular eggs. Yet, the producers of these eggs claim
that eating their eggs will not raise the blood cholesterol in humans.
Egg producers claim that their product has been portrayed unfairly. They cite scientific
studies to back up their claim. And, in fact, studies on the relationship between eggs and human
cholesterol levels have brought mixed results. It may be that it is not the type of egg that is the
main determinant of cholesterol but the person who is eating the eggs. Some people may be
more sensitive to cholesterol derived from food than other people. In fact, there is evidence that
certain dietary fats stimulate the body's production of blood cholesterol. Consequently, while it
still makes sense to limit one's intake of eggs, even designer eggs, it seems that doing this
without regulating dietary fat will probably not help reduce the blood cholesterol level.
Question 55: What is the main purpose of the passage?
A. To introduce the idea that dietary fat increases the blood cholesterol level.
B. to inform people about the relationship between eggs and cholesterol.

C. To persuade people that eggs are unhealthy and should not be eaten
D. To convince people to eat 'designer' eggs and egg substitutes.
Question 56:According to the passage, which of the following is a cause of heart diseases?
A. minerals
B. cholesterol
C. canola oil
D. vitamins
Question 57: Which of the following could best replace the word 'somewhat'?
A. in fact
B. a little
C. indefinitely
D. a lot
Question 58: What has been the cause for changes in the sale of eggs?
A. increasing price
B. decreased production
C. dietary changes in hens
D. concerns about cholesterol
Question 59: According to the passage, one yolk contains approximately what fraction of the
suggested daily limit for human consumption of cholesterol?


A. 3/4
B. 2/3
C. 1/2
D. 1/3
Question 60: The word 'portrayed' could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. studied
B. destroyed
C. tested
D. described

Question 61: What is the meaning of 'back up'?
A. reverse
B. advance
C. block
D. support
Question 62: What is meant by the phrase 'mixed results'?
A. The results are blended.
B. The results are a composite of things.
C. The results are inconclusive.
D. The results are mingled together.
Question63:According to the passage,egg substitutes cannot be used to make any of following
types of eggs EXCEPT?
A. boiled
B. poached
C. scrambled
D. fried
Question 64:According to the author, which of the following may reduce blood cholesterol?
A. reducing egg intake but not fat intake
B. increasing egg intake and fat intake
C. decreasing egg intake and fat intake
D. increasing egg intake but not fat intake
WRITING
Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the
sentence printed before it.
Question 1: Without your help, I wouldn’t have found the house.
 If you ..........................................................................................
Question 2: Let’s go abroad for our holiday this year.
 Why ……………………………………………..?
Question 3:Lan didn’t go to school yesterday because of her sickness
 Because Lan .............................................................................

Question 4: They report that the gangsters have been arrested by the police.
 The police …………………………………………………….
Question 5: She has never been to London before.
 This is the first time……………………………………………..
Part II. In 140 words , write a paragraph about your hobby.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………..
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11

A
B
C
D
A

A
A
A
A
B
D

21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31

C
B
C
D
D
D
C
D
A
C
A

41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
49
50
51

ANSWER KEY
C
61
A
62
D
63
A
64
C
A
D
B
A
B
D

D
C
C
C


12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20

A
A
B
C
D
A
B
C
A

32
33
34
35

36
37
38
39
40

B
D
D
B
B
A
B
B
C

52
53
54
55
56
57
58
59
60

D
B
C
B

B
B
D
B
D

Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the
sentence printed before it.
Question 1: Without your help, I wouldn’t have found the house.
 If you hadn’t helped me , I wouldn’t have found the house.
Question 2: Let’s go abroad for our holiday this year.
 Why don’t we go abroad for our holiday this year?
Question 3:Lan didn’t go to school yesterday because of her sickness
 Because Lan was sick , she didn’t go to school yesterday
Question 4: They report that the gangsters have been arrested by the police.
 The police is reported to have arrested the gangsters
Question 5: She has never been to London before.
 This is the first time she has been to London.
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
ĐỀ THI MẪU – KỲ THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2015
HỘI ĐỒNG BỘ MÔN TIẾNG ANH THPT
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút
Đơn vị: THPT Lấp Vò 1
Đề thi cấu trúc 1
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is
pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. challenge
B. manage
C. natural
D. human

Question 2: A. determine
B. university
C. undermine
D. visitors
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from that of the
rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. miraculous
B. diversity
C. defensive
D. occupation
Question 4: A. delivery
B. ornamental
C. climatic
D. environment
Question 5: A. magnificent
B. photography
C. proverbial
D. advantageous
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 6: Sometimes I do not feel like ________ to my brother about my troubles.
A. talk
B. to talk
C. talking
D. talked
Question 7: Where did you buy that ___________ handbag?
A. funny leather purple
B. purple funny leather
C. funny purple leather
D. leather funny purple

Question 8: As I was _______ of the change in the program, I arrived half an hour late for the
rehearsal.
A. unaware
B. unconscious
C. unable
D. unreasonable
Question 9: He said that the plane had already left and that I _______ an hour earlier.


A. should have arrived
B. must have arrived
C. was supposed to arrive
D. had to arrive
Question 10: Deborah is going to take extra lessons to ________ what she missed while she was
away.
A. catch up on
B. cut down on
C. put up with
D. take up with
Question 11: World War II ______ millions of people were killed ended in 1945.
A. when
B. in which
C. which
D. during that
Question 12: _______ you should do first is to make a list of all the things you have to do.
A. That
B. What
C. As
D. If
Question 13: _______ the ringing phone when it went dead.

A. Hardly I reached
B. I had no sooner reached
C. Just as I reached
D. Scarcely had I reached
Question 14: He always did well at school ________ having his early education disrupted by
illness.
A. on account of B. in addition to
C. in spite of
D. even though
Question 15: She was ________ she could not say anything.
A. so surprised at the news that
B. such surprised at the news that
C. so surprised of the news that
D. so that surprised for the news
Question 16: The more he tried to explain, _______ we got.
A. the much confused
B. the much confusing
C. the more confusing
D. the more confused
Question 17: If you ________ Peter, could you tell him to ring me up?
A. come into
B. come over
C. come across
D. come back
Question 18: Doctors are supposed to _______ responsibility for human life.
A. do
B. take
C. rush
D. join
Question 19: “Out of sight, out of ________.” Do you remember this proverb?

A. memory
B. mind
C. heart
D. head
Question 20: When there are small children around, it is better to put breakable ornaments out
of _______.
A. reach
B. hold
C. hand
D. place
Question 21. Candidates have to attach their birth ________ to their applications for this
position.
A. certificates
B. diplomas
C. degrees
D. qualifications
Question 22: The lecturer explained the problem very clearly and is always _______ in response
to questions.
A. attention
B. attentively
C. attentive
D. attentiveness
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 23: I am concerned about my children.
A. angry
B. worried
C. happy
D. sad
Question 24: Be careful! The tree is going to fall.

A. Look up
B. Look on
C. Look after
D. Look out
Question 25: Within a week on display at the exhibition, the painting was hailed as a
masterpiece.
A. an expensive work of art
B. a down-to-earth work of art
C. an excellent work of art
D. a large work of art
Question 26: It will take more or less a month to prepare for the wedding.
A. approximately
B. simply
C. frankly
D. generally
Question 27: During the earthquake, a lot of buildings collapsed, which killed thousands of
people.


A. fell down unexpectedly
C. exploded suddenly

B. went off accidentally
D. erupted violently

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 28: Waiter: “_______________?”
Mr. Smith: “I ordered boiled chicken. This is fried chicken.”
A. How would you like it?

B. Is something the matter, Sir?
C. Would you like boiled chicken or fried chicken?
D. What would you like?
Question 29: David: “How have you been recently?”
Alex: “_____________.”
A. By bus, I think
B. It’s too late now
C. Pretty busy
D. No, I’m not that busy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 30: Hundred of scientists have been involved in the research.
A
B
C D
Question 31: Without the particularly habitat, the species could not survive.
A
B
C
D
Question 32: I usually talk to a man that ideas are very interesting and creative.
A
B
C
D
Question 33: What we know about certain diseases are still not sufficient to prevent them
A
B
from spreading easily among the population.
C

D
Question 34: George Washington, his portrait appears on the quarter coin and the dollar bill,
served
A
B
C
two terms as president.
D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
Most people go to a doctor in their own town or suburbs. But people in the Australian
outback can’t get to a doctor quickly. The nearest doctor is sometimes hundreds of kilometers
away so they have to call him on a two-way radio. This special doctor is called the “flying
doctor”. He visits sick people by plane for a special examination.
When someone is sick, the doctor has to fly to the person’s home. His plane lands on a
flat piece of ground near the person’s house. Sometimes the doctor has to take the patient to
hospital. Flying doctors take about 8,600 people to hospital each year.
However, most of the time the person isn’t very sick, and the doctor doesn’t have to visit.
He can give advice on the radio from the office at the flying doctor center. He can tell the
patient to use some medicine from a special medicine chest. There is one of these chests in every
home in the outback. Eachbottle, tube and packet in the chest has a number. The doctor often
says something like this, “Take two tablets from bottle number 5 every four hours.”
A man called John Flynn started the Royal Flying Doctor service in 1927. he had only
one plane. Today there are 14 flying-doctor centers, 29 planes, 14 full-time doctors and several
part-time doctors, nurses and dentists.
Question 35: The flying doctors mentioned in this article treat their patients ____________.


A. in clinics
B. by old methods

C. over great distances
D. by telepathy
Question 36: Which happens first?
A. The doctor flies to the sick person’s home
B. The sick person or his family calls the doctor on a two-way radio
C. The plane lands near the patient’s house
D. The doctor treats the sick person on a two-way radio
Question 37: From the article, we can assume that Australia has quite a number of __________
A. remote areas
B. good highways
C. mountainous regions
D. strange animals
Question 38: The doctor can treat the sick person by radio from his office when the patient
_______
A. has a special medicine chest
B. has got a two-way radio
C. is not very sick
D. feels very tired
Question 39: _________ of the doctors at the center work full-time.
A. All
B. Some
C. None
D. Most
Question 40: The word “outback” mostly means _________.
A. a large field of the Aborigines
B. an isolated island
C. a vast and remote area
D. a far-off forest
Question 41: The fleet initially was ____________.
A. very small

B. full-scaled
C. very large
D. relatively big
Question 42: The word “chest” in this context probably means ____________.
A. a body part
B. a machine
C. a remote control
D. a small box
Question 43: When a patient needs a special examination, the doctor has to ____________.
A. take him/ her to a special holy place
B. fly him/ her to a military clinic
C. give him/ her all kinds of medicine
D. fly to the patient’s place
Question 44: The write of this passage shows a/an __________ attitude to the flying-doctor
service.
A. critical
B. supportive
C. curious
D. indifferent
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer word for each of the blanks.
Every teacher knows that not all students are good examinees. Some are too tense,
become (45)__________ or too stressed and then perform below expectations just when it
(46)___________ most. Teachers try to help by compensating, believing that if they boost a
student’s academic (47)_________ they will cure his fear of exams.
Therefore, last year, drawing on my teaching experience and sports psychology skills, I
completely rewrote the Business Studies Revision Course at this secondary school. The
(48)________ idea of the course is to (49)_________ the examination as an event, a challenge, a
(50)_________ much like a sports match, a drama production, or perhaps a concert, but bigger
and more important and very definitely on the public page. The idea is to show that the exam is

not a (51)________ but an opportunity to show how good the candidate is.
The object is to improve student’s final performance by increasingself-confidence,
control, and ability to cope. The theme of “total preparation for performance” teaches them that
(52)________ knowledge and examination techniques are obviously important, they are only two
of the five skills required. The (53)_________ are coping strategies, mental skills and
management skills. These additions give a new dimension to a student’s revision, increasing
enjoyment and motivation. They widen a student’s focus and help to convince some of the less
confident students that there are many ways in which they can actively contribute
(54)__________ their self-confidence and self-esteem.


Question 45: A. overanxious
Question 46: A. plays
Question 47: A. degree
Question 48: A. core
Question 49: A. consider
Question 50: A. doing
Question 51: A. test
Question 52: A. while
Question 53: A. others
Question 54: A. for

B. worried
B. gives
B. grades
B. root
B. cure
B. performance
B. measurement
B. after

B. other
B. to

C. blue
C. pays
C. knowledge
C. concrete
C. treat
C. action
C. evaluation
C. in spite of
C. another
C. on

D. sad
D. matters
D. results
D. central
D. remedy
D. behavior
D. check
D. thanks to
D. one
D. over

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
Psychologists have debated a long time about whether a child’s upbringing can give it the
ability to do outstandingly well. Some think that it is impossible to develop genius and say that it
is simply something a person is born with. Others, however, argue that the potential for great

achievement can be develop. The truth lies somewhere between these two extremes.
It seems very obvious that being born with the right qualities from gifted parents will
increase a child’s ability to do well. However, this ability will be fully realized only with the right
upbringing and opportunities. As one psychologist says, “To have a fast car, you need both a
good engine and fuel.”
Scientists have recently assessed intelligence, achievement, and ability in 50 sets of
identical twins that were separated shortly birth and brought up by different parents. They found
that achievement was based on intelligence, and later influenced by the child’s environment.
One case involving very intelligent twins was quoted. One of the twins received a normal
upbringing, and performed well. The other twin, however, was brought up by extremely
supportive parents and given every possible opportunity to develop its abilities. That twin, though
starting out with the same degree of intelligence as the other, performed even better.
This case reflects the general principle of intelligence and ability. The more favorable the
environment, the more a child’s intelligence and ability are developed. However, there is no link
between intelligence and socioeconomic level of a child’s family. In other words, it does not
matter how poor or how rich a family is, as this does not affect the intelligence.
Gifted people can not be created by supportive parents, but they can be developed by
them. One professor of music said that outstanding musicians usually started two or three years
earlier than ordinary performers, often because their parents had recognized their ability. These
musicians then needed at least ten years’ hard work and training in order to reach the level they
were capable of attaining.
People who want to have very gifted children are given the following advice:
- Marry an intelligent person.
- Allow children to follow their own interests rather than the interests of the parents.
- Start a child’s education early but avoid pushing the child too hard.
- Encourage children to play; for example, playing with musical instrument is essential for
a child who wants to become an outstanding musician.
Question 55: When scientists studied intelligence and ability in twins, they found that ______.
A. different twins generally have different levels of ability
B. ability depends mainly on intelligence and achievement

C. intelligence and development are irrelevant to ability
D. ability depends both on intelligence and environment
Question 56: Scientists chose twins for their study because ______.
A. they have the same genetic background, usually with similar intelligence
B. they are born into the same family, hence the same upbringing


C. they have the same economic background and hence the same opportunities
D. each twin has the same environment as his/ her twin
Question 57: How were great musicians different from ordinary musicians in their
development?
A. They practice playing their instruments for many years
B. They were exceptionally intelligent and artistic
C. They concentrated on music to the exclusion of other areas
D. Their ability was realized at an early stage and then nurtured
Question 58: The writer advises that gifted children should be allowed to follow ______.
A. only their interests in computer games
B. only their interests in
musical instruments
C. their own interests
D. their parents’
interests
Question 59: When encouraging their gifted children, parents should avoid ______.
A. letting them play their own way
B. starting their education at an early age
C. pushing their children too hard
D. permitting them to follow their own interests
Question 60: The remark: “To have a fast car, you need both a good engine and fuel.” in the
passage means that in order to become a genius, ______.
A. you need to have good health and good nourishment

B. you need intelligence and you need to develop it
C. you should try to move quickly and efficiently.
D. you must nourish your brain and train your muscles hard
Question 61: The word “favorable” in the passage mostly mean ______.
A. “of high quality or an acceptable standard”
B. “under the control or in the power of somebody else”
C. “good for someone and making him/ her likely to be successful”
D. “helping somebody to be more intelligent compared to the other people”
Question 62: All of the following statements are true EXCEPT ______.
A. a child’s intelligence is influenced by that of his/ her parents
B. studying different twins is useful scientific procedure
C. educational development depends completely on economic well-being
D. to become successful, a child need both native intelligence and development
Question 63: The upbringing of highly intelligent children requires ______.
A. parental support and encouragement B. an expensive education
C. wealthy and loving parents
D. good musical instruments
Question 64: The word “others” used in the first paragraph refers to ______.
A. other people
B. other scientists
C. other geniuses D. other children
WRITING
PART I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the
sentence printed before it.
Question 65: He didn’t have enough money, so he couldn’t buy that beautiful vase.
 If he
_______________________________________________________________________
Question 66: Last week we saw a very interesting film.
 The film
____________________________________________________________________

Question 67: I would prefer you not to smoke in here.
 I’d rather
____________________________________________________________________
Question 68: Could you help me with the dishes please?
 Would you mind
______________________________________________________________
Question 69: The bus couldn’t run because of the fog.
 The fog
_____________________________________________________________________
Part II. Some people think that they can learn better by themselves than with a group. Others think
that it is always better to work in groups. Which one do you prefer?
Write a paragraph of about 200 words to support your choice.


KEYS
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. D
2. C
3. D
4. B
5. D
6. C
7. C
8. A
9. A
10. A
11. B
12. B

13. D
14. C
15. A
16. D

17. C
18. B
19. B
20. A
21. A
22. C
23. B
24. D
25. C
26. A
27. A
28. C
29. C
30. A
31. B
32. B

33. B
34. A
35. C
36. B
37. A
38. C
39. B
40. C

41. A
42. D
43. D
44. B
45. A
46. D
47. C
48. D

49. C
50. B
51. A
52. A
53. A
54. B
55. A
56. D
57. B
58. C
59. B
60. C
61. A
62. B
63. A
64. C

WRITING
PART I. (0.1/câu)
Question 65: If he had had enough money, he could have bought that beautiful vase.
Question 66: The film which we saw last week was very interesting.

Question 67: I’d rather you didn’t smoke in here.
Question 68: Would you mind helping me with the dishes please?
Question 69: The fog prevented/ stopped the bus from running.
PART II.
- Đúng chủ đề: 0.25d
- Viết logic, hợp lí: 0.25d
- Đúng cấu trúc ngữ pháp: 0.25d
- Sử dụng từ ngữ phù hợp và phong phú: 0.25d
- Viết đủ số từ: 0.25d
- Mạch lạc, rõ ràng, ý tưởng hay: 0.25d
- Lỗi ngữ pháp: trừ tối đa 0.125d
- Lỗi chính tả: trừ tối đa 0.125d
- Ít hơn hoặc quá nhiều so với số từ qui định: trừ 0.125d
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
ĐỀ THI MẪU – KỲ THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2015
HỘI ĐỒNG BỘ MÔN TIẾNG ANH THPT
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút.
Đơn vị: THPT Tân Thành
Đề thi cấu trúc 2
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is
pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. rented
B. skated
C. needed
D. loved


Question 2: A. social
B. country
C. electronic

D.
educate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in
the position of the main stress in the following question.
Question 3: A. differently
B. hunger
C. famine
D. equality
Question 4: A. kangaroo
B. involvement
C. biologist
D. accelerate
Question 5: A. forget
B. prefer
C. pretend
D. promise
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions
Question 6: When I last saw him, he _____ in London.
A. has lived
B. is living
C. was living
D. has been living
Question 7: I think he is not at home. If he _____ in, he ______ the phone.
A. was / answered
B. were / would answer
C. were / would have answered
D.had been / would have answered
Question 8: –“ Can you tell me how to get to the post office?”
_ “ Sure. _________ on the left.”

A. Following the first turning
B. Turn next
C. Take the first turning
D. Take turn
Question 9: I shall never forget-----------with you to Paris last year.
A. staying
B. to staying
C. to stay
D. stayed
Question 10: He said that Linda and John ________ married ________ .
A. were getting / tomorrow
B. are getting / the next day
C. were getting / the next day
D. will getting / the day after
Question 11: I’m sure you are capable ………….passing the examination.
A. round
B. along
C. among
D. of
Question 12: You get fed up ………….doing the same thing every day.
A. between
B. up
C. against
D. with
Question 13: I look stupid with this haircut. Everyone will laugh ………….me.
A. in
B. at
C. into
D. away
Question 14: “What’s your thought of her presence here?”

“The longer she stays, .................I dislike her.”
A. the most
B. the very more
C. much more
D. the more
Question 15: These are _____ ugly chairs _____ I am going to give them away.
A. so / that
B. such / that
C. so many / that D. so much / that
Question 16: _______ some German and British management styles are similar, there are many
differences between them.
A. In spite
B. In spite of
C. Despite
D. Despite the fact
that
Question 17: She
………………… home yesterday because her little son was sick.
A. should have stayed B. must have stayed
C. had to stay
D. could have stay
Question 18: Hardly ________ at the station _________.
A. he had arrived – when the rain left
B. had he arrived – when the train left
C. had he arrived – than the rain left
D. he had arrived – then the train left
Question 19: If you drove more carefully, you_______ so many accidents.
A. would not have
B. will not have
C. wouldn’t have had

D. has
Question 20: What a lovely hat you have! – Thanks. ……………. .
A. that’s OK
B. I don’t care
C. I’m glad you like it
D. Certainly
Question 21: The insured man was taken to hospital and _________ for international injures.
A. cured
B. healed
C. operated
D. treated


Question 22: One of Vietnamese traditions is a belief in _______ families and in preserving their
cultures.
A. wealthy
B. secure
C. safe
D. close-knit
Question 23: According to the ______________ of the contract, tenants must give six months
notice if they intend to leave.
A. laws
B. rules
C. terms
D. details
Question 24. Our farm produce rice, crops and dairy _____.
A. products
B. productive
C. productivity
D. producing

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) that is CLOSET in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 25: In the future, many large corporations will be wiped out.
A. companies
B. services
C. supermarkets
D. farms
Question 26: The townspeople of Williamsburg are proud of their historic houses.
A. architects
B. patriots
C. citizens
D. leaders
Question 27: He was asked to account for his presence at the scene of crime.
A. complain
B. exchange
C. explain
D. arrange
Question 28: The teacher gave some suggestions on what could come out for the examination.
A. effects
B. symptoms
C. hints
D. demonstyrations
Question 29: The history of public education in the United States dates from the society of the
early pioneers.
A. setters
B. missionaries
C. Indian reservations
D. business leaders
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.

Question 30: Helen likes to listen to music, to go to the cinema, to chat on the phone and
A
B
C
going shopping.
D
Question 31: After the teacher read the sentence aloud, she asked the students to repeat
A
B
C
it again.
D
Question 32: It was in London where I first met my girlfriend.
A
B
C
D
Question 33: All the athletes are trying to run as fastly as they can.
A
B
C
D
Question 34: He drives the car more dangerous than his brother does.
A
B
C
D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
On December 10, 2006, I was going through some hard time. The landlady did not want to

release the house any more so I had to (35) _____ and only had one month to find a place.
Because Christmas was coming and it was difficult for me to (36) _____ a suitable
accommodation. I had only some money (37) _____. I could not buy a Christmas tree and some
presents for my three boys, (38) _____ I had to use the money to find a place to live. Tome, it
broke my heart as I could not prepare the Christmas for my three boys. I have been their only
parent since my husband (39) _____ away two years ago. I was so sad and everything was
getting on my nerves. Although I managed to solve the problem myself I could not help (40)
_____ my sons about the things. When I suddenly woke up at midnight, I found my eldest son
was sitting (41) _____me. He kissed me and said, "Don't worry, Mum. We love you very much


and always stand by you (42) ____ happens." At the moment I started weeping, grabbed him and
kissed him. His words and love made me (43) _____ all about what I was stressing about.
In fact ever since that moment, I have realized that I can overcome any problems thanks to
my sons' love. The most important thing of my life is that my boys are safe and healthy, and they
bring me joy all the time. The memory (44) _____ me that nothing really matters, when I have
the love of my children.
Question 35: A. transfer
B. convert
C. move
D. change
Question 36: A. notice
B. watch
C. find
D. see
Question 37: A. leave
B. to leave
C. leaving
D. left
Question 38: A. because

B. although
C. as though
D. if
Question 39: A. passes
B. passed
C. has passed
D. was passing
Question 40: A. tell
B. to tell
C. told
D. telling
Question 41: A. by
B. next
C. over
D. up
Question 42: A. whenever
B. whatever
C. whoever
D. however
Question 43: A. forget
B. to forget
C. forgot
D. forgetting
Question 44: A. remembers
B. minds
C. reminds
D. misses
Reading the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions.
Quite different from storm surges are the giant sea waves called tsunamis, which derive their

name from the Japanese expression for "high water in a harbor". These waves are also referred
to by the general public as tidal waves, although they have relatively little to do with tides.
Scientists often refer to them as seismic sea waves, far more appropriate in that they do result
from undersea seismic activity.
Tsunamis are caused when the sea bottom suddenly moves, during an underwater
earthquake or volcano, for example, and the water above the moving earth is suddenly displaced.
This sudden shift of water sets off a series of waves. These waves can travel great distances at
speeds close to 700 kilometers per hour. In the open ocean, tsunamis have little noticeable
amplitude, often no more than one or two meters. It is when they hit the shallow water the coast
that they increase in height, possibly up to 40 meters.
Tsunamis often occur in the Pacific because the Pacific is an area of heavy seismic
activity. Two areas of the Pacific well accustomed to the threat of tsunamis arc Japan and
Hawaii. Because the seismic activity that causes tsunamis in Japan often occurs on the ocean
bottom quite close to the islands, the tsunamis that hit Japan often comes with little warning and
can therefore prove disastrous. Most of the tsunamis that hit the Hawaiian Islands, however,
originate thousands of miles away near the coast of Alaska, so these tsunamis have a much
greater distance to travel and the inhabitants of Hawaii generally have time for warning of their
imminent arrival.
Tsunamis are certainly not limited to Japan and Hawaii. In 1755, Europe experienced a
calamitous tsunami, when movement along the fault lines near the Azores caused a massive
tsunami to sweep onto the Portuguese coast and flood the heavily populated area around Lisbon.
The greatest tsunami on record occurred on the other side of the world in 1883 when the
Krakatoa volcano underwent a massive explosion, sending waves more than 30 meters high onto
nearby Indonesian islands; the tsunami from this volcano actually traveled around the world
and was witnessed as far away as the English Channel.
Question 45: The paragraph preceding this passage most probably discusses
A. underwater earthquakes
B. storm surges
C. tides
D. tidal waves

Question 46: According to the passage, all of the following are true about tidal waves EXCEPT
that
A. they're caused by sudden changes in high and low tides
B. they refer to the same phenomenon as seismic sea waves


C. they are the same as tsunamis
D. this terminology is not used by the scientific community
Question 47: The world "displaced" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to..............
A. located
B. filtered
C. moved
D. not pleased
Question 48: It can be inferred from the passage that tsunamis ............
A. are often identified by ships on the ocean
B. generally reach heights greater than 40 meters
C. are far more dangerous on the coast than in the open ocean
D. cause severe damage in the middle of the ocean
Question 49: As used in the passage, water that is "shallow" isn't ..........
A. coastal
B. deep
C. clear
D. tidal
Question 50: A main difference between tsunamis in Japan and in Hawaii is that tsunamis in
Japan are more likely to...........
A. come from greater distances
B. be less of a problem
C. originate in Alaska
D. arrive without warning
Question 51: The possessive "their" in the third paragraph refers to .........

A. these tsunamis
B. the inhabitants of Hawaii
C. the Hawaiian islands
D. thousands of miles
Question 52: A "calamitous" tsunami in the last paragraph is one that is .................
A. at fault
B. expected
C. disastrous
D. extremely calm
Question 53: From the expression "on record" in the last paragraph, it can be inferred the
tsunami that accompanied the Krakatoa volcano ..............
A. might not be the greatest tsunami ever
B. was not as strong as the tsunami in Lisbon
C. was filmed as it was happening
D. occurred before efficient records were kept
Question 54: The passage suggests that - the tsunami resulting from the Kr- volcano ..............
A. was unobserved outside of the Indonesian islands
B. resulted in little damage
C. caused volcanic explosions in the English Channel
D. was far more destructive close to the source than far away
Read the following passage, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer.
Reading to oneself is a modern activity which was almost unknown to the scholars of the
classical and medieval worlds, while during the fifteenth century the term “reading”
undoubtedly meant reading aloud. Only during the nineteenth century did silent reading become
commonplace . One should be wary , however, of assuming that silent reading came about
simply because reading aloud was a distraction to others. Examinations of factors related to the
historical development of silent reading have revealed that it became the usual mode of reading
for most adults mainly because the tasks themselves changed in character. The last century saw
a steady gradual increase in literacy and thus in the number of readers. As the number of
readers increased, the number of potential listeners declined and thus there was some reduction

in the need to read aloud. As reading for the benefit of listeners grew less common, so came the
flourishing of reading as a private activity in such public places as libraries, railway carriages
and offices, where reading aloud would cause distraction to other readers. Towards the end of
the century, there was still considerable argument over whether books should be used for
information or treated respectfully and over whether the reading of materials such as
newspapers was in some way mentally weakening. Indeed, this argument remains with us still in
education. However, whatever its virtues, the old shared literacy culture had gone and was
replaced by the printed mass media on the one hand and by books and periodicals for a
specialised readership (độc giả đặc biệt) on the other. By the end of the twentieth century,
students were being recommended to adopt attitudes to books and to use reading skills which


were inappropriate, if not impossible, for the oral reader. The social, cultural and technological
changes in the century had greatly altered what the term “reading” implied.
Question 55: Reading aloud was more common in the medieval world because ______.
A. people relied on reading for entertainment
B. silent reading had not been discovered
C. there were few places available for private reading
D. few people could read to themselves
Question 56: The word “commonplace” in the first paragraph mostly means “______”.
A. for everybody’s use
B. most preferable
C. attracting attention
D. widely used
Question 57: The development of silent reading during the last century indicated ______.
A. an increase in the average age of readers
B. an increase in the number of books
C. a change in the nature of reading
D. a change in the status of literate people
Question 58: Silent reading, especially in public places, flourished mainly because of ______.

A. the decreasing need to read aloud
B. the development of libraries
C. the increase in literacy
D. the decreasing number of listeners
Question 59: It can be inferred that the emergence of the mass media and specialised reading
materials was an indication of ______.
A. a decline of standards of literacy
B. a change in the readers’ interest
C. an alteration in educationalists’ attitudes
D. an improvement of printing techniques
Question 60: The phrase “a specialised readership” in paragraph 4 mostly means “______”.
A. a requirement for readers in a particular area of knowledge
B. a limited number of readers in a particular area of knowledge
C. a reading volume for particular professionals
D. a status for readers specialised in mass media
Question 61: The phrase “oral reader” in the last paragraph mostly means “a person who
______”.
A. is good at public speaking
B. practises reading to an audience
C. takes part in an audition
D. is interested in spoken language
Question 62: All might be the factors that affected the continuation of the old shared literacy
culture EXCEPT _____.
A. the inappropriate reading skills
B. the specialised readership
C. the diversity of reading materials
D. the printed mass media
Question 63: Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE according to the passage?
A. Reading aloud was more common in the past than it is today.
B. Not all printed mass media was appropriate for reading aloud.

C. The decline of reading aloud was wholly due to its distracting effect.
D. The change in reading habits was partly due to the social, cultural and technological
changes.
Question 64: The writer of this passage is attempting to ______.
A. explain how reading habits have developed