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4 ĐỀ THI THỬ THPTQG MÔN TIẾNG ANH HAY ( CÓ ĐÁP ÁN)

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Mark the word whose underlined part differs from the other three
Question 1: A. pleasant
B. please
C. reason
D. ease
Question 2: A. communicates B. mistakes
C. complains
D. develops
Mark the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress.
Question 3: A. certificate
B. necessary
C. economy
D. geography
Question 4: A. different
B. terrorist
C. contrary
D. domestic
Mark the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 5: In Vietnam (A), two or more generation (B) may live (C) under (D) the same roof
of house.
Question 6: If (A) we continue to use (B) fuels at the current rate, we would soon have (C) to
face (D) a fuel crisis.
Question 7: Not only (A) the athlete (B) but (C) also his wife are (D) going to the party
tonight.
Mark the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 8: You’re very quiet today. What have you got on your_________ ?
A. spirit
B. attention
C. mind
D. brain
Question 9: We need more sugar. There is ___________ sugar in the pot.


A. little
B. many
C. any
D. much
Question 10: ____________, we tried our best to complete it.
A. Thanks to the difficult homework
B. Despite the homework was difficult
C. Difficult as the homework was
D. As though the homework was difficult
Question 11: He has really worked hard so far, __________he?
A. does
B. has
C. doesn't
D. hasn't
Question 12: Her job was so ____________ that she never wanted to give it up.
A. boring
B. satisfactory
C. stressful
D. dangerous
Question 13: Will you take care of my little dog when I am _______ business?
A. away
B. at
C. over
D. on
Question 14: Nowadays more and more women go out to work and they become more
__________ than they used to.
A. independent
B. independence
C. independently
D. dependence

Question 15: Unless she ___________, she will be late for school.
A. hurried
B. doesn't hurry
C. hurry
D. hurries
Question 16: A (n) __________ is a person who looks after the patients in the hospital.
A. accountant
B. nurse
C. lawyer
D. teacher
Question 17: Lady Astor was the first woman __________her seat in Parliament
A. take
B. to take
C. taking
D. who takes
Question 18: He wanted to know _______ shopping during the previous morning.
A. if we had been going
B. that if we had been going
C. we were going
D. that we were going
Question 19: I was sad when I sold my car. I ___________it for a very long time.
A. am running
B. was running
C. have been running
D. had been running
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable
response to each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: Peter: “I enjoy listening to pop music.”
Maria: “______.”
A. I don’t

B. I’m, too
C. Neither do I
D. So do I
Question 21: Stephen: “__________”
Jack: Yes. I do. I like them a lot.”
A. What do you think of tennis?
B. Do you like sports?
C. Do you prefer tennis or badminton?
D. How often you play tennis?
Mark the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s)

Question 22: When you see your teacher approaching you, a slight wave to attract his
attention is appropriate.
A. coming nearer to B. catching sight of C. pointing at
D. looking up to
Question 23: Telecommunication is bound to have a huge influence on various aspects of
our lives.
A. depression
B. technique
C. expect
D. impact
Mark the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s).
Question 24: The US troops are using much more sophisticated weapons in the Far East.
A. expensive
B. complicated
C. simple and easy to use
D. difficult to operate
Question 25: In England schooling is compulsory for all children from the age of 5 to 16.
A. required
B. optional

C. obligatory
D. fee-paying
Mark the sentences that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26: John wishes he had remembered to send Mary a Christmas card.
A. John regrets not to send Mary a Christmas card.
B. John regrets forgetting not to send Mary a Christmas card.
C. John regrets not remembering sending Mary a Christmas card.
D. John regrets forgetting to send Mary a Christmas card.
Question 27: He last had his eyes tested ten months ago.
A. He hasn’t had his eyes tested for ten months.
B. He had not tested his eyes for ten months then.
C. He had tested his eyes ten months before.
D. He didn’t have any test on his eyes in ten months.
Question 28: It is believed that the man escaped in a stolen car.
A. The man is believed to escape in a stolen car.
B. The man is believed to have escaped in a stolen car.
C. The man is believed to be escaped in a stolen car.
D. They believed that the man stole the car.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentences that
best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29. This house is very expensive. We can't afford to buy it.
A. This house is so expensive for us to buy it.
B. This house is so expensive that we can't buy.
C. This house is too expensive for us to buy it.
D. This house is too expensive for us to buy.
Question 30. My brother can't find a job. He is very well-qualified.
A. My brother can't find a job even though he is very well-qualified.
B. My brother can't find a job despite he is very well-qualified.
C. My brother can't find a job in spite of he is very well-qualified.
D. My brother can't find a job, but he is very well-qualified.

Read the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Today there are libraries in almost every town in the world. Even in areas (31)______ there
are no libraries, there are often mobile libraries which take books from one village to another.
But in the days when books were copied by hand rather than printed, libraries were very rare.
The reason is simple: books took a very long time to produce, and there were far fewer copies
of any given work around. The greatest library (32)______ all that was in Alexandria had 54,000
books.
In the ancient world, this number (33)______ considered huge. It was the first time that
anyone had collected so many books from all around the world under one roof. There are many
theories about why these books were lost. (34)______is that the library accidentally burned
down. Another is that one of the rulers of the city ordered the books to be burned. They were
taken to various places and it took six months to burn them. (35)______ happened, the
collection there was priceless. Many of the library’s treasures were lost forever-some books
were never recovered. We cannot even know exactly what the library contained.
Question 31: A. where

B. who

C. the place

D. which


Question
Question
Question
Question

32:
33:

34:
35:

A.
A.
A.
A.

of
is
One
Whoever

B.
B.
B.
B.

about
was
A theory
Whichever

C.
C.
C.
C.

in
were place

None
whatever

D.
D.
D.
D.

over
has been
All
wherever

Read the following passage and mark the correct answer to the following questions.
The Art World
One of the major problems in the art world is how to distinguish and promote an artist.
In effect, a market must be created for an artist to become successful. The practice of signing
and numbering individual prints was introduced by James Abbott McNeill Whistler, the
nineteenth-century artist best known for the painting of his mother, called “Arrangement in
Grey and Black,” but known to most of us as “Whistler’s Mother.” Whistler’s brother-in-law, Sir
Francis Seymour Haden, a less well-known artist, had speculated that collectors might find
prints more attractive if they knew that there were only a limited number of copies produced.
By signing the work in pencil, an artist could guarantee and personalize each print.
As soon as Whistler and Haden began the practice of signing and numbering their prints, their
work began to increase in value. When other artists noticed that the signed prints commanded
higher prices, they began copying the procedure.
Although most prints are signed on the right-hand side in the margin below the image, the
placement of the signature is a matter of personal choice. Indeed, prints have been signed
within the image, in any of the margins, or even on the reverse side of the print. Whenever the
artist elects to sign it, a signed print is still valued above an unsigned one, even in the same

edition.
Question 36: Which of the following would be a better title for the passage?
A. Whistler’s Mother
B. Whistler’s Greatest Works
C. The Practice of Signing Prints
D. Copying Limited Edition Prints
Question 37: What made Whistler’s work more valuable?
A. His fame as an artist
B. His painting of his mother
C. His signature on the prints
D. His brother-in-law’s prints
Question 38: The word “distinguish” is closest in meaning to_____________.
A. recognize differences
B. making improvement
C. allow exceptions
D. accept changes
Question 39: The word “it” refers to_____________.
A. the same edition
B. the image
C. the reverse side
D. a print
Question 40: Where in the passage does the author indicate where an artist’s signature
might be found on a work?
A. the second paragraph
B. the third paragraph
C. the first paragraph
D. no evidence
Question 41: What was true about the painting of Whistler’s mother?
A. It was painted by Sir Francis Seymour Haden.
B. Its title was “Arrangement in Grey and Black.”

C. It was not one of Whistler’s best paintings.
D. It was a completely new method of painting.
Question 42:
It can be inferred from the passage that artists number their
prints_____________.
A. as an accounting procedure
B. to guarantee a limited edition
C. when the buyer requests it
D. at the same place on each of the prints
Read the following passage and mark the correct answer to the following questions.
Every drop of water in the ocean, even in the deepest parts, responds to the forces that create
the tides. No other force that affects the sea is so strong. Compared with the tides, the waves
created by the wind are surface movements felt no more than a hundred fathoms below the
surface. The currents also seldom involve more than the upper several hundred fathoms
despite their impressive sweep.
The tides are a response of the waters of the ocean to the pull of the Moon and the more
distant Sun. In theory, there is a gravitational attraction between the water and even the

outermost star of the universe. In reality, however, the pull of remote stars is so slight as to
be obliterated by the control of the Moon and, to a lesser extent, the Sun.
Just as the Moon rises later each day by fifty minutes, on the average, so, in most places, the
time of high tide is correspondingly later each day. And as the Moon waxes and wanes in its
monthly cycle, the height of the tide varies. The tidal movements are strongest when the Moon
is a sliver in the sky, and when it is full. These are the highest flood tides and the lowest ebb
tides of the lunar month and are called the spring tides. At these times the Sun, Moon, and
Earth are nearly in line and the pull of the two heavenly bodies is added together to bring the
water high on the beaches, to send its surf upward against the sea cliffs, and to draw a high
tide into the harbors. Twice each month, at the quarters of the Moon, when the Sun, Moon and
Earth lie at the apexes of a triangular configuration and the pull of the Sun and Moon are
opposed, the moderate tidal movements called neap tides occur. Then the difference between

high and low water is less than at any other time during the month.
Question 43: What is the main point of the first paragraph?
A. The waves created by ocean currents are very large.
B. Despite the strength of the wind, it only moves surface water.
C. Deep ocean water is seldom affected by forces that move water.
D. The tides are the most powerful force to affect the movement of ocean
water.
Question 44: The word "felt" in line 3 is closest in meaning to____.
A. based
B. dropped
C. detected
D. explored
Question 45: The words "In reality" in line 8 are closest in meaning to____.
A. surprisingly
B. actually
C. characteristically
D. similarly
Question 46: It can be inferred from the passage that the most important factor in
determining how much gravitational effect one object in space has on the tides is____.
A. size
B. distance
C. temperature
D. density
Question 47: The word "correspondingly" in line 11 is closest in meaning to____.
A. unpredictably
B. interestingly
C. similarly
D. unusually
Question 48: What is the cause of spring tides?
A. Seasonal changes in the weather

B. The gravitational pull of the Sun and the Moon when nearly in line with the
Earth
C. The Earth's movement around the Sun
D. The triangular arrangement of the Earth, Sun, and Moon
Question 49: Neap tides occur when ____.
A. the Sun counteracts the Moon's gravitational attraction
B. the Moon is full
C. the Moon is farthest from the Sun
D. waves created by the wind combine with the Moon's gravitational attraction
Question 50: According to the passage, all of the following statements about tides are true
EXCEPT____.
A. The time of high tide is later each day.
B. Tides have a greater effect on the sea than waves do.
C. The strongest tides occur at the quarters of the Moon.
D. Neap tides are more moderate than spring tides.

-----THE END----Mark the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently.
Question 1. A. union
B. university
C. umbrella
Question 2. A. secret
B. sunset
C. serious

D. united
D. sugar

Mark the word that differs from the rest in the position of the primary stress.
Question 3. A. powerful
B. medical

C. dangerous
D. computer
Question 4. A. threaten
B. appear
C. promise
D. instance


Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underline part that
needs correction in each of the following questions
Question 5. Found (A) in the 12th century, Oxford University ranks (B) among (C) the world’s
oldest universities. (D)
Question 6. It spent (A) a long time to travel (B) to the skiing resort (C) but in the end (D)
we got there.
Question 7. Not until he got (A) home he realised (B) he had forgotten to give her (C) the
present. (D)
Mark the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 8. Due to industrialization, we have to cope _______ the fact that many species are
_______ danger _______ extinction.
A. over / at / for
B. at / upon / over
C. for / on / with
D. with / in / of
Question 9.He usually travels to _______ Philadelphia by _______ train.
A. Ø / Ø
B. the / a
C. the / the
D. Ø / a
Question 10.A _______ is an official document that you receive when you have completed a
course of study or training.

A. vocation
B. subject
C. certificate
D. grade
Question 11.The banker to _______ I gave my check was quite friendly.
A. who
B. that
C. whom
D. which
Question 12.John asked me _______ in English.
A. what does this word mean
B. what that word means
C. what did this word mean
D. what that word meant
Question 13.She is never willing _______ any personal question.
A. answer
B. to answer
C. answering
D. answered
Question 14.If I _______ the lottery last week, I _______ rich now.
A. had won / would be
B. had won / would have been
C. won / would be
D. won / would have been
Question 15. In some cases, Mary is thought not to be _______ her sister.
A. as much intelligent than
B. so intelligent than
C. intelligent more than
D. as intelligent as
Question 16._______ Tom Cruise's last movie? Yes, I _______ it three days ago

A. Have you ever seen / saw
B. Did you ever see / have seen
C. Had you ever seen / would see
D. Will you ever see / saw
Question 17.Before _______ for a position, check whether you can fulfill all the requirements
from the employer.
A. deciding
B. applying
C. requiring
D. demanding
Question 18. You should _______ more attention to what your teacher explains.
A. make
B. get
C. set
D. pay
Question 19.These students _______ so much that they feel very tired and bored.
A. are made to study
B. are made study
C. are making to study
D. ate made to be studied
Mark the most suitable respond to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20. Tony is at his nephew’s birthday party.
Tony: “ Mark, I have bought you a toy. Happy birthday to you!”
Mark: “…………………”
A. The same to you
B. Have a nice day!
C. What a pity!
D. What a lovely toy! thanks!
Question 21. Two friends are talking about plans for weekend.
Joe: “…………going on a picnic this weekend ?”

Jack: “ That’s great !”
A. Why don’t we
B. Would you like
C. How about
D. Let’s
Mark the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s).
Question 22. Around 150 B.C. the Greek astronomer Hipparchus developed a system to
classify stars according to brightness.
A. record
B. shine
C. categorize
D. diversify

Question 23. Roget's Thesaurus, a collection of English words and phrases, was originally
arranged by the ideas they express rather than by alphabetical order.
A. restricted
B. as well as
C. unless
D. instead of
Mark the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s).
Question 24. He was so insubordinate that he lost his job within a week.
A. fresh
B. disobedient
C. obedient
D. understanding
Question 25. Fruit and vegetables grew in abundance on the island. The islanders even
exported the surplus.
A. large quantity
B. small quantity C. excess
D. sufficiency

Mark the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26. Although my parents are busy at work, they try to find time for their children.
A. My parents are so busy at work that they cannot find time for their children.
B. Busy at work as my parents are, they try to find time for their children.
C. My parents are too busy at work to find time for their children.
D. My friends rarely have time for their children because they are busy at work.
Question 27. This pasta is a new experience for me.
A. I used to eat a lot of pasta.
B. I am used to eating pasta.
C. It is the first time I have eaten pasta.
D. I have ever eaten pasta many times before.
Question 28. Those who are riding a motorbike are not allowed to take off their helmet.
A. Those who are wearing a helmet are not allowed to ride a motorbike.
B. It is the helmet that one needn't wear when he is riding a motorbike
C. You should not wear a helmet when you are riding a motorbike.
D. People must never take their helmet off while they are riding a motorbike.
Mark the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following
questions.
Question 29. I spoke slowly. The foreigner could understand me.
A. I spoke slowly so that the foreigner could understand me
B. I spoke slowly in order to the foreigner could understand me.
C. I spoke slowly that the foreigner could understand me
D. I spoke slowly to make the foreigner could understand me
Question 30. Sarah wasn’t excited about the good news. She seemed to be indifferent.
A. In spite of exciting, Sarah seemed to be indifferent.
B. In addition to exciting, the good news was indifferent.
C. In stead of being excited, Sarah seemed to be indifferent.
D. Because of being excited, Sarah expressed her indifference.
Read the following passage and mark the correct word or phrase that best fits each
of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

The University of Oxford, informally called "Oxford University", or simply "Oxford", (31)
____ in the city of Oxford, in England, is the oldest university in the English-speaking world. It is
also considered as one of the world's leading academic institutions. The university traces its
roots back to at least the end of the 11th century, although the exact date of foundation
remains unclear. Academically, Oxford is consistently ranked in the world's top ten universities.
The University is also open (32) ______ overseas students, primarily from American universities,
who may enroll in study abroad programs during the summer months for more than a century,
it has served as the home of the Rhodes Scholarship, (33) ______ brings highly accomplished
students from a number of countries to study at Oxford as (34) ______ The University of Oxford
is also a place where many talented leaders from all over the world used to study. Twenty-five
British Prime Ministers attended Oxford, including Margaret Thatcher and Tony Blair. At (35)
______ 25 other international leaders have been educated at Oxford, and this number includes
King Harald V of Norway and King Abdullah II of Jordan. Bill Clinton is the first American
President to attend Oxford. Forty-seven Nobel prize winners have studied or taught at Oxford.


Question
Question
Question
Question

31. A. put
B. placed
C. located
D. stood
32. A. to
B. for
C. from
D. up
33. A. that

B. where
C. whose
D. which
34. A. postgraduates
B. postgraduated
C. postgraduation
D. postgraduating
It is commonly believed in the United States that school is where people go to get an
education. Nevertheless, it has been said that today children interrupt their education to go to
school. The distinction between schooling and education implied by this remark is important.
Education is much more open-ended and all-inclusive than schooling. Education knows no
bounds. It can take place anywhere, whether in the shower or on the job, whether in a kitchen
or on a tractor. It includes both the formal learning that takes place in schools and the whole
universe of informal learning. The agents of education can range from a revered grandparent
to the people debating politics on the radio, from a child to a distinguished scientist. Whereas
schooling has a certain predictability, education quite often produces surprises. A chance
conversation with a stranger may lead a person to discover how little is known of other
religions. People are engaged in education from infancy on. Education, then, is a very broad,
inclusive term. It is a lifelong process, a process that starts long before the start of school, and
one that should be an integral part of one's entire life.
Schooling, on the other hand, is a specific, formalized process, whose general pattern varies
little from one setting to the next. Throughout a country, children arrive at school at
A. rules
B. experience
C. limits
D. exceptions
A. unplanned
B. unusual
C. lengthy
D. lively


Question 35. A. last

B. least

C. late

D. lately

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
approximately the same time, take assigned seats, are taught by an adult, use similar
textbooks, do homework, take exams, and so on. The slices of reality that are to be learned,
whether they are the alphabet or an understanding of the workings of government, have
usually been limited by the boundaries of the subject being taught. For example, high school
students know that they are not likely to find out in their classes the truth about political
problems in their communities or what the newest filmmakers are experimenting with. There
are definite conditions surrounding the formalized process of schooling.
Question 36. What does the author probably mean by using the expression “children
interrupt their education to go to school”?
A. Going to several different schools is educationally beneficial.
B. School vacations interrupt the continuity of the school year.
C. Summer school makes the school year too long.
D. All of life is an education.
Question 37. The word “bounds” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______________.
Question 38. The word “chance” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to_______________.


Question 39. The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to_______________.
A. slices of reality

B. similar textbooks C. boundaries
D. seats
Question 40. The phrase “For example,” line 22, introduces a sentence that gives examples
of _______________.
A. similar textbooks
B. the results of schooling
C. the workings of a government
D. the boundaries of classroom subjects
Question 41. The passage supports which of the following conclusions?
A. Without formal education, people would remain ignorant.
B. Education systems need to be radically reformed.
C. Going to school is only part of how people become educated.
D. Education involves many years of professional training.
Question 42. The passage is organized by _______________.
A. listing and discussing several educational problems
B. contrasting the meanings of two related words
C. narrating a story about excellent teachers
D. giving examples of different kinds of schools
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
Colors are one of the most exciting experiences in life. I love them, and they are just as
important to me as emotions are. Have you ever wondered how the two are so intimately
related?
Color directly affects your emotions. Color both reflects the current state of your
emotions, and is something that you can use to improve or change your emotions. The color
that you choose to wear either reflects your current state of being, or reflects the color or
emotion that you need.
The colors that you wear affect you much more than they affect the people around you.
Of course they also affect anyone who comes in contract with you, but you are the one
saturated with the color all day ! I even choose items around me based on their color. In the

morning, I choose my clothes based on the color or emotion that I need for the day. So you can
consciously use color to control the emotions that you are exposed to, which can help you to
feel better.
Color, sound, and emotions are all vibrations. Emotions are literally energy in motion;
they are meant to move and flow. This is the reason that real feelings are the fastest way to
get your energy in motion. Also, flowing energy is exactly what creates healthy cells in your
body. So, the fastest way to be healthy is to be open to your real feelings. Alternately, the
fastest way to create disease is to inhibit your emotions.
Question 43. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Colorful clothes can change your mood
B. Emotions and colors are closely related to each other.
C. Colors can help you become healthy.
D. Colors are one of the most exciting.
Question 44. Who is more influenced by colors you wear?
A. The people around you are more influenced
B. neither A nor C
C. You are more influenced
D. Both A and C
Question 45. According to the passage, what do color, sound, and emotion all have in
common?
A. They all affect the cells of the body
B. They are all forms of motion
C. They are all related to health
D. none of the above
Question 46. According to this passage, what creates disease?
A. wearing the color black
B. exposing yourself to bright colors
C. being open to your emotions
D. ignoring your emotions
Question 47. The term "intimately" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to

A. clearly
B. closely
C. obviously
D. simply

Question 48. The term "they" in paragraph 2 refers to
A. emotions
B. people
C. colors
D. none of the above
Question 49. Why does the author mention that color and emotions are both vibrations?
A. to show how color can affect energy levels in the body.
B. Because they both affect how we feel.
C. to prove the relationship between emotions and color.
D. Because vibrations make you healthy.
Question 50. What is the purpose of the passage?
A. to show that colors are important for a healthy life
B. to give an objective account of how colors affect emotions
C. to prove the relationship between color and emotion
D. to persuade the reader that colors can influence emotions and give a person
more energy
-----THE END----Mark the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation.
Question 1: A. booked
B. missed
C. described
D. pronounced
Question 2: A. hand
B. bank
C. sand
D. band

Mark the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress.
Question 3: A. relationship B. evaluate
C. favourable
D. democracy
Question 4: A. psychiatry B. inexpensive
C. patriotic
D. scientific
Mark the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 5: My parents insisted that my brother returned to our home village after
graduation to run the family business.

Mark the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 8: It is essential that Mary ……………about her responsibilities in the meeting
tomorrow.
A. must remind
B. will be reminded C. will remind
D. be reminded
Question 9: She listened so attentively that not a word……………
A. she had missed
B. she missed
C. she didn’t miss
D. did she miss
Question 10: The more he slept,…………….he became.
A. more irritable
B. most irritable
C. the more irritableD. the most irritable
Question 11: After he had researched and …………….his paper, he found some additional
material that he…………….
A. wrote, need to include
B. written, should have included

C. writing, would have included
D. written, needed
Question 12: Nguyen Trai had a(n)…………….career as a skilled strategist and
prominent scholar.
A. distinguished
B. famous
C. renowned
D. illustrious
Question 13: The television, ……………...so long been a part of our culture, has an enormous
influence.
A. has
B. which has
C. which
D. it has
Question 14: The kind-hearted woman………….all her life to helping the disabled and the
poor.
A. spent
B. wasted
C. dedicated
D. lived
Question 15: In……………..societies, people are encouraged to maintain their heritage
languages and traditions.
A. modern
B. traditional
C. cultural
D. multicultural
Question 16: Remember that things such as language, food and clothing are simply
expressions of our cultural…………..

Page 5 of 9



A. identity
B. characteristics
C. personality
D. uniqueness
Question 17: Five ……………..sources used most often are hydropower, solar, wind,
geothermal, and biomass.
A. renewed
B. renewing
C. renew
D. renewable
Question 18: Jane is going to take extra lessons to ………….what she missed while she was
away.
A. catch up on
B. cut down on
C. take up with
D. put up with
Question 19: You have to move this box to……………the new television set.
A. lose touch with
B. make room for
C. pay attention to
D. take notice of
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most su itable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: - Anna : " I don't think I can do this ." - Susan: "………………."
A. Sure, no way!
B. Yeah. It's not easy.
C. Oh, come on! Give it a try!
D. No, I hope not.

Question 21: - “No sugar for me, thanks. I am on diet.” - “…………..”
A. Don’t mention it.
B. Perhaps you should try to lose weight.
C. Would you like some more?
D. Perhaps you would like some milk instead?
Mark the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s).
Question 22: By the end of the storm, the hikers had depleted even their emergency stores.
A. lost
B. used almost all of
C. destroyed completely D. greatly
dropped
Question 23:.The workforce is generally accepted to have the best conditions in Europe.
A. gang
B. personnel
C. crew
D. working class
Mark the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s).
Question 24: Those clothes are inappropriate for this morning.
A. improper
B. attractive
C. suitable
D. available
Question 25: I have a vague recollection of meeting him when I was a child.
A. apparent
B. indistinct
C. imprecise
D. ill- defined
Mark the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26: “Make good use of your time. You won’t get such an opportunity again,” he said to
us.

A. He advised us to take advantage of our time as you wouldn’t get such an opportunity before.
B. He advised us to make good use of our time as we wouldn’t get such an opportunity
again.
C. He told us to make good use of our time since such an opportunity won’t see us again.
D. He recommended our making good use of our time as we wouldn’t have such an opportunity again
Question 27: He is said to have taught in a famous university in England.
A. People said that he has taught in a famous university in England.
B. People say that he taught in a famous university in England.
C. People said that he taught in a famous university in England.
D. People said that he should have taught in a famous university in England.
Question 28: Though she was very tired, she agreed to help her son with his
homework.
A. She would have helped her child with his homework if she hadn’t been tired.
B. Despite of her tiredness, she was eager to help her son with his homework.
C. Even if feeling tired, she agreed to help her son with his homework.
D. Tired as she was, she agreed to help her son with his homework.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29: People should not throw rubbish in the park. People should not cut down the
trees in the park.
A. People should neither throw rubbish nor cut down the trees in the park.
B. People should not neither throw rubbish nor cut down the trees in the park.

C. People neither should neither throw rubbish nor cut down the trees in the park.
D. People should either throw rubbish or cut down the trees in the park.
Question 30: The villagers refuse to leave. Their food supply is threatened.
A. The villagers refuse to leave, so their food supply is threatened.
B. The villagers refuse to leave although their food supply is threatened.
C. The villagers refuse to leave despite their threatened food supply.
D. The villagers refuse to leave because their food supply is threatened.

Read the following passage and mark the the correct word or phrase that best fits
each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
Every culture has its own (31)___ list of behavior that is acceptable. Every society also has
its taboos, or types of behavior that are considered a violation of good manners. If you travel
to (32)___ country, on business or vacation, it is really (33)____ to learn some of that country’s
customs so that you don’t insult the local people there.
The word “taboo” comes from the Tongan language and is used in modern English to
describe verbal and non-verbal behavior that is forbidden or to be (34) ___. In spite of people’s
common thought, taboos are not universal and they tend to be specific to a certain culture or
country, and usually form around a community’s values and beliefs. (35)___, what is
considered acceptable behavior in one country may be a serious taboo in another.
Question
Question
Question
Question
Question

31:
32:
33:
34:
35:

A. written
B. spoken
A. another B. other
A. grateful B. doubtful
A. received B. performed
A. However B. Therefore


C. unwritten
C. one another
C. thankful
C. avoided
C. Together

D. unspoken
D. the other
D. helpful
D. completed
D. Then

Read the following passage and mark the correct answer to each of the questions
from 36 to 42.
Cities develop as a result of functions that they can perform. Some functions result
directly from the ingenuity of the citizenry, but most functions result from the needs of the
local area and of the surrounding hinterland (the region that supplies goods to the city and to
which the city furnishes services and other goods). Geographers often make a distinction
between the situation and the site of a city. Situation refers to the general position in relation
to the surrounding region, whereas site involves in physical characteristics of the specific
location. Situation is normally much more important to the continuing prosperity of a city. If a
city is well situated in regard to its hinterland, its development is much more likely to continue.
Chicago, for example, possesses an almost unparalleled situation: it is located at the southern
end of a huge lake that forces East-West transportation lines to be compressed into its vicinity,
and at a meeting of significant land and water transport routes. It also overlooks what is one of
the world’s finest large farming regions. These factors ensured that Chicago would become a
great city regardless of the disadvantageous characteristics of the available site, such as
being prone to flooding during thunderstorm activity.
Similarly, it can be argued that much of New York City’s importance stems from its early
and continuing advantage of situation. Philadelphia and Boston both originated at about the

same time as New York and shared New York’s location at the Western end of one of the
world’s most important oceanic trade routes, but only New York possesses an easy-access
functional connection (the Hudson-Mohawk lowland) to the vast Midwestern hinterland. This
account does not alone explain New York’s primacy, but it does include several important
factors. Among the many aspects of situation that help to explain why some cities grow and
others do not, original location on a navigable waterway seems particularly applicable. Of
course, such characteristic as slope, drainage, power resources, river crossings, coastal
shapes, and other physical characteristics help to determine city location, but such factors are
normally more significant in early stages of city development than later.
Question 36: What does the passage mainly discuss?

Page 6 of 9


A. The development of trade routes through United States cities
B.
The importance of geographical situation in the growth of United States cities
C.
Contrasts in settlement patterns in the Unites States
D. Historical differences among three large United States cities
Question 37: The word “ingenuity” is closest in meaning to _________.
A.
wealth
B. traditions
C. resourcefulness D. organization
Question 38: According to the passage, a city’s situation is more important than its site in
regard to the city’s _________.
A. long-term growth and prosperity
B.
ability to protect its citizenry

C.
possession of favorable weather conditions
D. need to import food supplies
Question 39: The author mentions each of the following as an advantage of Chicago’s
location EXCEPT its _________.
A.
hinterland
B. nearness to a large lake
C. position in regard to transport routes
D. flat terrain
Question 40: The primary purpose of paragraph 1 is to _________.
A.
summarize past research and introduce a new study
B.
describe a historical period
C.
define a term and illustrate it with an example
D.
emphasize the advantages of one theory over another
Question 41: The word “functional” is closest in meaning to _________.
A. alternate
B. useful
C. original
D. usable
Question 42: The word “it” refers to _________.
A.
hinterland
B. account
C. connection
D. primacy

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
WORLD POPULATION and CLIMATE CHANGE
In many ways, the increasingly rapid pace of climate change is a direct result of the
growth of the human population. In the last hundred years, the world population has more the
tripled, from just below two billion at the beginning of the century to nearly seven billion today.
In addition, the average person uses more energy and natural resources than the average
person one hundred years ago, meaning that the rates of consumption are actually much
higher than just the increase in population would imply. For example, it took the world one
hundred and twenty five years to use the first one trillion barrels of oil. The next trillion barrels
will be used in less than thirty years, which is almost five times as fast, not three.
All of these activities: food production, energy usage, and the use of natural resources,
contribute to climate change in some way. The greater amounts of oil and other fuels burned to
create energy release chemicals which add to global warming. In order to produce more food,
farmers cut down trees to gain more land for their fields. In addition, we cut down trees to
build the houses needed for a larger population. Those trees are an essential part of controlling
global warming. These are just two examples of the impacts that the growing population has
on global warming; others are too numerous to mention.
In addition to a growing population, the world also has a population that desires a higher
standard of living than in the past, and a higher standard of living requires the use of even
more natural resources. A look at one country will provide a clear example of this fact. China is
the world’s most populous nation, with 1.3 billion people. Currently, the standard of living for
most of those people is far below that of people in first world nations. Therefore, the average
Chinese citizen uses far fewer natural resources and less energy than the average citizen of the
US or Japan. But China is growing in power, and more of its citizens are beginning to expect a
first world lifestyle. If every Chinese person attains a first world lifestyle, the amount of energy
and natural resources needed in the world will double, even if the standard of living in every
other nation on Earth remains the same as it is today.
Question 43: The word “pace” in the passage is closest in meaning to _______.
A. growth

B. problem
C. speed
D. pollution

Question 44: The word “consumption” in the passage is closest in meaning to _______. A.
development
B. increase
C. population
D. usage
Question 45: Why does the author mention the rate at which oil is being used in paragraph
1?
A. To suggest that our oil is likely to run out some times in the next thirty years.
B. To illustrate that we are using resources faster than the speed at which the
population is growing.
C. To suggest that most of the problems of global warming are associated with our rapid use of
oil.
D. To contrast the differences in lifestyle between people living 100 years ago and people living
today.
Question 46: According to the passage, how does food production contribute to global
warming?
A. Producing more food leads to growth in the world population.
B. Food production decreases the ability of the air to release heat.
C. Food production uses many chemicals which add to global warming.
D. Food production requires that the forests be cleared to create farmland.
Question 47:The word “others” in the passage refers to _______.
A. examples of the environmental consequences of population growth
B. problems of global warming in the modern world
C. ways in which our usage of oil will affect the world climate
D. the reasons why trees are essential in controlling global warming
Question 48: According to the passage, how does the standard of living affect global

warming?
A. Higher standards of living are better for the environment.
B. The use of natural resources is directly related to the standard of living.
C. High standards of living lead to increases in world population.
D. First world nations create less population than developing nations.
Question 49:Why does the author discuss China, Japan, and the United States?
A. To explain why the world’s use of energy will need to double soon.
B. To compare the standards of their citizens.
C. To explain why China will not be able to become a first world nation.
D. To better illustrate the effects of an increase in standards of living.
Question 50: Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the
italicized sentence in the passage? (Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways
or leave out essential information.)
A. When China attains a first world lifestyle, the amount of energy and natural resources used
by other nations to keep their current standard of living will double.
B. If China becomes a first world nation and all other nations keep their current
standard of living, the usage of energy and natural resources will double.
C. If China doubles its usage of natural resources, it will attain a better standard of living, but
other nations will have to remain as they are today.
D. Even if the standard of living in every other nation on Earth remains as it is today, China
will still try to attain a first world standard of living.
THE END
Mark the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in.
Question 1. A . sticks
B. pops
C. washes
D. speaks
Question 2. A. compose
B. opponent
C. wholesale

D. colony
Mark the word whose underlined part differs from the other three.
Question 3. A. difficulty
B. simplicity
C. discovery
D. commodity
Question 4. A. understand B. geographical
C. international
D. undergraduate
Mark the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. Tom looks so frightened and upset. He _______ something terrible.
A. must experience
B. can have experienced
C. should have experienced
D. must have experienced

Page 7 of 9


Question 6. If I had studied harder, I________better in the last exam.
A. would do
B. would have doneC. had done
D. wouldn’t have done
Question 7. The larger the apartment, the _______ the rent is.
A. expensive
B. more expensive C. expensively
D. most expensive
Question 8. Last year Matt earned …………. his brother, who had a better position.
A. twice as much as B. twice more than C. twice as more as
D. twice as many as

Question 9. ________ of popular expressions in our language have interesting backgrounds.
A. A large number
B. The large number C. A great deal
D. A sum of
Question 10. After his illness, Robert had to work hard to ________ his classmate.
A. catch sight of
B. keep pace with C. get in touch with D. make allowance for
Question 11. ________ had she opened the door than the phone rang.
A. Hardly
B. No sooner
C. Scarcely
D. Barely
Question 12. Peter: “Thanks a lot for your wonderful gift.” – Mary: “____________”.
A. You are welcome B. Thank you
C. Cheers
D. Have a good day
Question 13. Tim: “____________”
– Jeycy: “Certainly”
A. Welcome back!
B. What are you doing there?
C. I’m sorry I am late
D. May I borrow a pencil , please?
Question 14. It is a ……………………… .
A. polyester sleeping blue bag
B. blue sleeping polyester bag
C. blue polyester sleeping bag
D. sleeping blue polyester bag
Question 15. It is essential that every student ………….. to learn English at university.
A. had
B. have

C. has
D. to have
Question 16. We usually do go by train, even though the car _________ is a lot quicker.
A. travel
B. Journey
C. trip
D. voyage
Question 17. _______ my knowledge, the chemicals which were found are not dangerous.
A. To the best of
B. For the most of
C. To the farthest of
D. For the best of
Question 18. Long lost his job _______ no fault of his own.
A. through
B. by
C. with
D. over
Question 19. Only if you promise to study hard …………..to help you.
A. agree I
B. I agree
C. I will agree
D. will I agree
Question 20.………….so aggressive, we’d get on much better.
A. If she weren’t
B. Weren’t she
C. She was not
D. Had she not
Mark the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 21. Laura was suspected to have stolen credit cards. The police have investigated
her for days.

A. Laura has been investigated for days, suspected to have stolen credit cards.
B Suspecting to have stolen credit cards, Laura has been investigated for days.
C. Having suspected to have stolen credit cards, Laura has been investigated for days.
D. Suspected to have stolen the credit cards, Laura has been investigated for days.
Question 22. “Be careful! The knife is sharp!” she shouted.
A. Because the knife was sharp, she ordered me to be careful.
B . Because of the sharp knife, she shouted to me to be careful.
C. Being careful, she asked me if the knife was sharp.
D. She told me to be careful as the knife was sharp.
Question 23. The robber made the bank clerk hand over the money.
A. The bank clerk was pleased to hand over the money to the robber.
B. The bank clerk was made to hand over the money to the robber.
C. The bank clerk was ready to hand over the money to the. robber.
D. The bank clerk was pleased to give money over his hand to the robber.
Question 24. In spite of having a broken leg he managed to get out of the car.
A. In spite of the fact that his leg was broken he managed to get out of the car.
B. In spite of having broken legs he managed to get out of the car.
C. Despite of the fact that his leg was broken he managed to get out of the car.
D. Although his leg was broken but he managed to get out of the car.
Question 25. If we had lost the map, we would have never found our way.
A. We didn't lose our way because we didn't lose the map.

B. We will find our way unless we lose the map.
C. Supposing we lost the map, we would not find our way
D. We would have lost our way provided we had lost- the map.
Mark the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part.
Question 26. We went away on holiday last week, but it rained day in day out.
A. every single day
B. every other day C. every second day D. every two days
Question 27. We can use either verbal or non – verbal forms of communication.

A. using gesture
B. using speech
C. using verbs D. using facial expressions
Mark the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined one.
Question 28. Biologists long regarded it as an example of adaptation by natural selection,
but for physicists it bordered on the miraculous.
A. adjustment
B. agility
C. flexibilit
D. inflexibility
Question 29. She is a very generous woman. She has given most of her wealth to a charity
organization.
A. mean
B. amicable
C. kind
D. hospitable
Read of the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
We are using up the world’s petroleum. We use it in our cars and to heat our building in
winter. Farmers use petrochemicals to make the soil rich. They use them to kill insects which
eat plants. These chemicals go (30) ______ rivers and lakes and kill the fish there. Thousands of
pollutants also go into the air and pollute it. Winds carry this polluted air to other countries and
other continents.
Poor farmers use the same land over and (31) _____ The land needs a rest so it will be
better next year. However, the farmers must have food this year. Poor people cut down forests
for firewood. In some areas when the trees are gone, the land (32) ______ desert. Poor people
can’t save the environment for the (33) _____ .
This is not a problem for one country or one area of the world. It is a problem for allhumans. The people and the nations of the world must work together to (34) _______ the
world’s resources.
Question 30. A. out

B. for
C. at
D. into
Question 31. A. over
B. again
C. repeatedly
D. repeating
Question 32. A. gets
B. changes
C. turns
D. becomes
Question 33. A. future
B. time being
C. times
D. period
Question 34. A. recycle
B. preserve
C. keep
D. reuse
Read of the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions .
Bringing up children
Where one stage of child development has been left out, or not sufficiently experienced,
the child may have to go back and capture the experience of it. A good home makes this
possible , for example , by providing the opportunity for the child to play with a clockwork car
or toy railway train up to any age if he still needs to do so. This principle, in fact, underlies all
psychological treatment of children in difficulties with their development, and is the basic of
work in child clinics.
The beginnings of discipline are in the nursery. Even the youngest baby is taught by
gradual stages to wait for food, to sleep and wake at regular intervals and so on. If the child

feels the world around him is a warm and friendly one, he slowly accepts its rhythm and
accustoms himself to conforming to its demands. Learning to wait for things, particularly for
food, is a very important element in upbringing, and is achieved successfully only if too great
demands are not made before the child can understand them. Every parent watches eagerly
the child's acquisition of each new skill: the first spoken words, the first independent steps, or
the beginning of reading and writing. It is often tempting to hurry the child beyond his natural
learning rate, but this can set up dangerous feelings of failure and states of anxiety in the
child. This might happen at any stage. A baby might be forced to use a toilet too early, a
young child might be encouraged to learn to read before he knows the meaning of the words

Page 8 of 9


he reads. On the other hand, though, if a child is left alone too much, or without any learning
opportunities, he loses his natural zest for life and his desire to find out new things for himself.
Learning together is a fruitful source of relationship between children and parents. By
playing together, parents learn more about their children and children learn more from their
parents. Toys and games which both parents and children can share are an important means
of achieving this co-operation. Building-block toys, jigsaw puzzles and crosswords are good
examples.
Parents vary greatly in their degree of strictness or indulgence towards their children.
Some may be especially strict in money matters; others are severe over times of coming home
at night, punctuality for meals or personal cleanliness. In general, the controls imposed
represent the needs of the parents and the values of the community as much as the child's
own happiness and well-being.
With regard to the development of moral standards in the growing child, consistency is
very important in parental teaching. To forbid a thing one day and excuse it the next is no
foundation for morality. Also, parents should realize that “example is better than precept”. If
they are hypocritical and do not practise what they preach, their children may grow confused
and emotionally insecure when they grow old enough to think for themselves, and realize they

have been, to some extent, deceived. A sudden awareness of a marked difference between
their parents' ethics and their morals can be a dangerous disillusion.
Questions 35. Learning to wait for things is successfully taught ______.
A. in spite of excessive demands being made
B. only if excessive demands are avoided
C. because excessive demands are not advisable
D. is achieved successfully by all children
Questions 36. The encouragement of children to achieve new skills ______.
A. should be focused on only at school
B. can never be taken too far
C. will always assist their development
D. should be balanced and moderate
Questions 37. The practice of the rule “Example is better than precept” ______.
A. only works when the children grow old enough to think for themselves
B. would help avoid the necessity for ethics and morals
C. will free a child from disillusion when he grows up
D. is too difficult for all parents to exercise
Questions 38. In the 1st paragraph, the author lays some emphasis on the role of the ______
in helping the child in trouble.
A. psychiatrists
B. community
C. family
D. nursery
Questions 39. The phrase ‘conforming to’ in the 2nd paragraph means ______.
A. adapting to
B. accepting
C. agreeing with
D. following
Questions 40. The word ‘zest’ in the 2nd paragraph can be best replaced by ______.
A. appetite

B. excitement
C. enthusiasm
D. enjoyment
Questions 41. The word ‘imposed’ in the 4th paragraph is closest in meaning to ______.
A. excepted
B. introduced
C. made
D. constrained
Questions 42. Hypocrisy on the part of the parents may ______.
A. result in their children’s wrong behaviour B. make their children lose faith in them
C. disqualify their teachings altogether
D. impair their children’s mind
Read of the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions .
(1) One of the most important social developments that helped to make possible a shift in
thinking about the role of public education was the effect of the baby boom of the 1950s and
1960s on the schools. In the 1920s, but especially in the Depression conditions of the 1930s,
the United States experienced a declining birth rate – every thousand women aged fifteen to
forty-four gave birth to about 118 live children in 1920, 89.2 in 1930, 75.8 in 1936 and 80 in
1940.
With the growing prosperity brought on by the Second World War and the economic boom
that followed it, young people married and established households earlier and began to raise

larger families than had their predecessors during the Depression. Birth rates rose to102 per
thousand in 1946, 106.2 in 1950 and 118 in 1955. Although economics was probably the most
important determinant, it is not the only explanation for the baby boom. The increased value
placed on the idea of the family also helps to explain this rise in birth rates. The baby boomers
began streaming into the first grade by the mid-1940s and became a flood by the 1950s. The
public school system suddenly found itself overtaxed. While the number of school children rose
because of wartime and postwar conditions, these same conditions made the schools even less

prepared to cope with the flood. The wartime economy meant that few new schools were built
between 1940 and 1945. Moreover, during the war and in the boom times that followed
large numbers of teachers left their profession for better-paying jobs elsewhere in the
economy.
Therefore, in the 1950s and 1960s, the baby boom hit an antiquated and inadequate
school system. Consequently, the "custodial rhetoric" of the 1930s and early 1940s no longer
made sense; that is, keeping youths aged sixteen and older out of the labor market by keeping
them in school could no longer be a high
priority for an institution unable to find space and staff to teach younger children aged
five to sixteen. With
the baby boom, the focus of educators and of laymen interested in education inevitably
turned toward the lower grades and back to basic academic skills and discipline. The system
no longer had much interest in offering non-traditional, new, and extra services to older
youths.
Question 43. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The teaching profession during the baby boom.
B. Birth rates in the United States in the 1930s and 1940s.
C. The impact of the baby boom on public education
.
D. The role of the family in the 1950s and 1960s.
Question 44. The word "it" in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. 1950
B. economics
C. the baby boom
D. value
Question 45. The public school of the 1950s and 1960s faced all of the following problems
EXCEPT
A. a declining number of students
C. a shortage of teachers
B. old-fashioned facilities

D. an inadequate number of school buildings
Question 46. According to the passage, why did teachers leave the teaching profession after
the outbreak of the war?
A. They needed to be retrained.
B. They were dissatisfied with the curriculum.
C. Other jobs provided higher salaries. D. Teaching positions were scarce.
Question 47. The word "inadequate "in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. deficient
B. expanded
C. innovative
D. specialized
Question 48: The word "inevitably" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. unwillingly
B. impartially
C. irrationally
D. unavoidably
Question 49: Where in the passage does the author refer to the attitude of Americans toward
raising a family in the 1950s and 1960s?
A. Lines 1-2
B. Lines 6-7
C. Lines 14-15
D. Lines 17-18
Question 50: Which of the following best characterizes the organization of the passage?
A. The second paragraph presents the effect of circumstances described in the
first paragraph.
B. The second paragraph provides a fictional account to illustrate a problem presented in
the first paragraph.
C. The second paragraph argues against a point made in the first paragraph.
D. The second paragraph introduces a problem not mentioned in the first paragraph.


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