30 bài tập đọc HIỂU (225 câu ) từ đề cô HƯƠNG FIONA image marked image marked

BÀI TẬP ĐỌC HIỂU
Exercise 1: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Ambient divers are, unlike divers who go underwater in submersible vehicles of pressure resistant suits,
exposed to the pressure and temperature of the surrounding ambient water. Of all types of diving, the
oldest and simplest is free diving. Free divers may use no equipment at all, but most use a face mask, foot
fins, and a snorkel. Under the surface, free divers must hold their breath. Most free divers can only
descend 30 to 40 feet, but some skilled divers can go as deep as 100 feet.
Scuba diving provides greater range than free diving. The word scuba stands for self-contained
underwater breathing apparatus. Scuba divers wear metal tanks with compressed air or other breathing
gases. When using open-circuit equipment, a scuba diver simply breathes air form the tank through a hose
and releases the exhaled air into the water. A closed-circuit breathing device, also called a rebreather,
filters out carbon dioxide and other harmful gases and automatically adds oxygen. This enables the diver
to breathe the same air over and over. In surface-supplied diving, divers wear helmets and waterproof
canvas suits. Today, sophiticated plastic helmets have replaced the heavy copper helmets used in the
past.These divers get their air from a hose connected to compressors on a boat. Surface-supplied divers
can go deeper than any other type of ambient diver.
Question 1. Ambient divers are ones who_______
A. can descend to extreme depths

B. use submersible vehicles

C. use no equipment

D. are exposed to the surrounding water

Question 2. According to the passage, a free diver may use any of the following EXCEPT______
A. a rebreather

B. a snorkel

C. foot fins

D. a mask

Question 3. According to the passage, the maximum depth for free divers is around________
A. 40 feet

B. 100 feet

C. 200 feet

D. 1,000 feet

Question 4. When using closed-circuit devices, divers______
A. exhale air into the water

B. hold their breath

C. breathe the same air over and over

D. receive air from the surface

Question 5. What does the word "descend" in the paragraph probably mean?
A. move to a lower level

B. climb to a higher place

C. swim on the river bed

D. go up and down slowly

Question 6. The word "This" in bold in paragraph 2 refers to_______.

.

A. filtering out carbon dioxide

B. adding oxygen

C. exhaling air into the water

D. filtering out harmful gases and adding oxygen.

Question 7. What are the helmets that surface-supplied divers use today made from, according to the


passage?
A. glass

B. copper

C. plastic

D. canvas

( ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 1 – Cô HƯƠNG FIONA)
Exercise 2:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
Indicate the correct answer to each of the questions
There are a number of natural disasters that can strike across the globe. Two that are frequently linked to
one another are earthquakes and tsunamis. Both of them can cause a great amount of devastation when

they hit. However, tsunamis are the direct result of earthquakes and cannot happen without them.
The Earth has three main parts. They are the crust, the mantle, and the core. The crust is the outer layer of
the Earth.
It is not a single piece of land. Instead, it is comprised of a number of plates. There are a few enormous
plates and many smaller ones. These plates essentially rest upon the mantle, which is fluid. As a result,
the plates are in constant - yet slow - motion. The plates may move away from or toward other plates. In
some cases, they collide violently with the plates adjoining them. The movement of the plates causes
tension in the rock. Over a long time, this tension may build up. When it is released, an earthquake
happens.Tens of thousands of earthquakes happen every year. The vast majority are so small that only
scientific instruments can perceive them. Others are powerful enough that people can feel them, yet they
cause little harm or damage. More powerful earthquakes, however, can cause buildings, bridges, and
other structures to collapse. They may additionally injure and skill thousands of people and might even
cause the land to change it appearance.
Since most of the Earth's surface is water, numerous earthquakes happen beneath the planet's oceans.
Underwater earthquakes cause the seafloor to move. This results in the displacement of water in the
ocean. When this occurs, a tsunami may form. This is a wave that forms on the surface and moves in all
directions from the place where the earthquake happened. A tsunami moves extremely quickly and can
travel thousnads of kilometres. As it approaches land, the water near the coast gets sucked out to sea. This
causes the tsunamis to increase in height. Minutes later, the tsunami arrives. A large tsunami - one more
than ten meters in height - can travel far inland. As it does that, it can flood the land, destroy human
settlements, and kill large numbers of people.
Question 8. Which of the following statements does paragraph 1 support?
A. A tsunami happens in tandem with an earthquake.
B. The most severe type of natural disaster is an earthquake.
C. Earthquakes cause more destruction than tsunamis.
D. Earthquakes frequently take place after tsunamis do.
Question 9. The word “it ” in bold in paragraph 2 refers to_______.

.

A. The core

B. The crust

C. The Earth

D. The mantle

Question 10. What is the passage mainly about?
A. When earthquakes are the most likely to happen.
B. What kind of damage natural disasters can cause.
C. How earthquakes and tsunamis occur.
D. Why tsunamis are deadlier than earthquakes.
Question 11. The word "adjoining" in bold in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to_________.
A. residing

B. approaching

C. bordering

D. appearing

Question 12. The word "perceivee" in bold in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to________.
A. detect

B. prevent

C. comprehend

D. locate

Question 13. Which of the following is true regarding the crust?
A. It is the smallest of the Earth's three layers
B. It is thicker on land than it is under the water.
C. There many separate pieces that make it up
D. The mantle beneath it keeps it from moving too much.
Question 14. Based on the passage, what is probably true about tsunamis?
A. They kill more people each year than earthquakes.
B. They are able to move as fast as the speed of sound.
C. They cannot damage ships sailing on the ocean.
D. They can be deadly to people standing near shore.
Question 15. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 3 about earthquakes?
A. How severe the majority of them are

B. What kind of damage they can cause

C. How often powerful ones take place

D. How many people they typically kill

( ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 1 – Cô HƯƠNG FIONA)
Exercise 3:Read the following passage and choose A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each
of the following questions.
In many ways, the increasingly rapid pace of climate change is a direct result of the growth of the
human population. In the last 100 years, the world population has more than tripled, from just under 2
billion at the beginning of the century to nearly 7 billion today. In addition, the average person uses more
energy and natural resources than the average person one hundred years ago, meaning that the rates of
consumption are actually much higher than just the increase in population would imply. For example, it
took the world 125 years to use the first one trillion barrels of oil. The next trillion barrels will be used in

less than 30 years, which is almost 5 times as fast, not three.
All of these activities: food production, energy usage, and the use of natural resources, contribute to


climate change in some way. The greater amounts of oil and other fuels burned to create energy release
chemicals which add to global warming. In order to produce more food, farmers cut down trees to gain
more land fortheir fields. In addition, we cut down trees to build the houses needed for a larger
population. Those trees are an essential part of controlling global warming; others are too numerous to
mention.
In addition to a growing population, the world also has a population that desires a higher standard
of living than in the past, and a higher standard of living requires the use of even more natural resources.
A look at one country will provide a clear example of this fact. China is the world's most populous nation,
with 1.3 billion people. Currently, the standard of living for most of those people is far below that of
people in first world nations. Therefore, the average Chinese citizen uses far fewer natural resources and
less energy than the average citizen of the US or Japan. But China is growing in power, and more of its
citizens are beginning to expect a first world lifestyle. If every Chinese person attains a first world
lifestyle, the amount of energy and natural resources needed in the world will double, even if the standard
of living in every other nation on Earth remains the same as it is today.
Question 16. How many years did it take the world years to use the first one trillion barrels of oil?
A. 100 years

B. 125 years

C. 30 years

D. 7 years

Question 17. The word "consumption" in the passage is closest in meaning to__________.
A. development

B. usage

C. population

D. increase

Question 18. According to the passage, which of these activities Does NOT contribute to climate
change in some way?
A. food production

B. energy usage

C. wild animals hunting

D. natural resources consumption

Question 19. According to the passage, how does food production contribute to global warming?
A. Producing more food leads to growth in the world population.
B. Food production uses many chemicals which add to global warming.
C. Food production requires that the forests be cleared to create farmland.
D. Food production decreases the ability of the air to release heat.
Question 20. The word "others" in the passage refers to________.
A. problems of global warming in the modern world
B. examples of the environmental consequences of population growth
C. ways in which our usage of oil will affect the world climate.
D. the reasons why trees are essential in controlling global warming
Question 21. According to the passage, how does the standard of living affect global warming?
A. Higher standards of living are better for the environment.

B. First world nations create less population than developing nations.
C. The use of natural resources is directly related to the standard of living.
D. High standards of living lead to increases in world population.
Question 22. Why does the author discuss China, Japan, and the United States?
A. To compare the standard of their citizens.
B. To explain why China will not be able to become a first world nation.
C. To better illustrate the effects of an increase in standards of living.
D. To explain why the world's use of energy will need to double soon.
( ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 2 – Cô HƯƠNG FIONA)
Exercise 4:Read the following passage and choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to
each of the following questions.
Carnegie Hall, the famous concert hall in New York City, has again undergone a restoration. While this
is not the first, it is certainly the most extensive in the building's history. As a result of this new
restoration, Carnegie Hall once again has the quality of sound that it had when it was first built.
Carnegie Hall owes its existence to Andrew Carnegie, the wealthy owner of a steel company in the late
1800s. The hall was finished in 1891 and quickly gained a reputation as an excellent performing arts hall
where accomplished musicians gained fame. Despite its reputation, however, the concert hall suffered
from several detrimental renovations over the years. During the Great Depression, when fewer people
could afford to attend performances, the directors sold part of the building to commercial businesses. As a
result, a coffee shop was opened in one corner of the building, for which the builders replaced the brick
and terra cotta walls with windowpanes. A renovation in 1946 seriously damaged the acoustical quality of
the hall when the makers of the film Carnegie Hall cut a gaping hole in the dome of the ceiling to allow
for lights and air vents. The hole was later covered with short curtains and a fake ceiling, but the hall
never sounded the same afterwards.
In 1960, the violinist Isaac Stern became involved in restoring the hall after a group of real estate
developers unveiled plans to demolish Carnegie Hall and build a high-rise office building on the site.
This threat spurred Stern to rally public support for Carnegie Hall and encourage the City of New York to
buy the property. The movement was successful, and the concert hall is now owned by the city. In the
current restoration, builders tested each new material for its sound qualities, and they replaced the hole in
the ceiling with a dome. The builders also restored the outer walls to their original appearance and closed

the coffee shop. Carnegie has never sounded better, and its prospects for the future have never looked
more promising.
Question 23. This passage is mainly about_____.
A. changes to Carnegie Hall


B. the appearance of Carnegie Hall
C. Carnegie Hall's history during the Great Depression
D. damage to the ceiling in Carnegie Hall
Question 24. The word "it" in the first paragraph refers to______.
A. Carnegie Hall
B. New York City
C. a restoration.
D. a plan
Question 25. What major change happened to the hall in 1946?
A. The acoustic dome was damaged.
B. Space in the building was sold to commercial businesses.
C. The walls were damaged in an earthquake.
D. The stage was renovated.
Question 26. Who was Andrew Carnegie?
A. A violinist.
B. An architect.
C. A steel mill owner.
D. Mayor of New York City.
Question 27. What was Isaac Stern's relationship to Carnegie Hall?
A. He made the movie “Carnegie Hall” in 1946.
B. He performed on opening night in 1891.
C. He tried to save the hall, beginning in 1960.
D. He opened a coffee shop in Carnegie Hall during the Depression.
Question 28. What was probably the most important aspect of the recent renovation?

A. Restoring the outer wall.
B. Expanding the lobby.
C. Restoring the plaster trim.
D. Repairing the ceiling.
Question 29. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word "unveiled" in paragraph 3?
A. Announced.

B. Restricted.

C. Overshadowed.

D. Located.

Question 30. How does the author seem to feel about the future of Carnegie Hall?
A. Ambiguous.

B. Guarded.

( ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 2 – Cô HƯƠNG FIONA)

C. Optimistic.

D. Negative.


Exercise 5: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
We live in a world of tired, sleep deprived people. In his book Counting Sheep, Paul Martin - a
behavioural biologist - describes a society which is just too busy to sleep and which does not givesleeping
the importance it deserves.

Modern society has invented reasons not to sleep. We are now a 24/7 society where shops and
services must be available all hours. We spend longer hours at work than we used to, and more time
getting to work. Mobile phones and email allow us to stay in touch round the clock and late-night TV
and the Internet tempt us away from our beds. When we need more time for work or pleasure, the easy
solution is to sleep less. The average adult sleeps only 6.2 hours a night during the week, whereas
research shows that most people need eight or even eight and a half hours' sleep to feel at their best.
Nowadays, many people have got used to sleeping less than they need and they live in an almost
permanent state of 'sleep debt'.
Until the invention of the electric light in 1879 our daily cycle of sleep used to depend on the hours of
daylight. People would get up with the sun and go to bed at nightfall. But nowadays our hours of sleep are
mainly determined by our working hours (or our social life) and most people are woken up artificially by
an alarm clock. During the day caffeine, the world's most popular drug, helps to keep us awake. 75% of
the world's population habitually consume caffeine, which up to a point masks the symptoms of sleep
deprivation.
What does a chronic lack of sleep do to us? As well as making us irritable and unhappy as humans, it
also reduces our motivation and ability to work. This has serious implications for society in general.
Doctors, for example, are often chronically sleep deprived, especially when they are on 'night call', and
may get less than three hours' sleep. Lack of sleep can seriously impair their mood, judgment, and ability
to take decisions. Tired engineers, in the early hours of the morning, made a series of mistakes with
catastrophic results. On our roads and motorways lack of sleep kills thousands of people every year. Tests
show that a tired driver can be just as dangerous as a drunken driver. However, driving when drunk is
against the law but driving when exhausted isn't. As Paul Martin says, it is very ironic that we admire
people who function on very little sleep instead of criticizing them for being irresponsible. Our world
would be a much safer, happier place if everyone, whatever their job, slept eight hours a night.
New English File Upper-intermediate by Clive Oxenden and Christina Latham-Koenig, OUP
Question 31: The phrase "round the clock" in the second paragraph is similar in meaning to_____.
A. surrounded with clocks

B. all day and night

C. during the daytime

D. having a round clock

Question 32: The writer mentions the Internet in the passage as_______.


A. a temptation that prevents us from sleeping
B. an easy solution to sleep deprivation
C. an ineffective means of communication
D. a factor that is not related to sleep deprivation
Question 33: According to the third paragraph, which of the following statements is NOT TRUE?
A. Our social life has no influence on our hours of sleep.
B. The sun obviously determined our daily routines.
C. The electric light was invented in the 19th century.
D. The electric light has changed our daily cycle of sleep.
Question 34: The word "which" in the third paragraph refers to________.
A. reaching a point

B. masking the symptoms

C. the world's population

D. caffeine consumption

Question 35: Which of the following would the writer of the passage approve of?
A. Our world would be a much safer place without drinkers.
B. Both drunken drivers and sleep-deprived people should be criticized.
C. There is no point in criticizing irresponsible people in our society.
D. We certainly can function well even when we hardly sleep.

Question 36: All of the following are mentioned as those whose performance is affected by 'sleep
debt' EXCEPT________.
A. doctors

B. drivers

C. biologists

D. engineers

Question 37: Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage?
A. Accident Prevention: Urgent!

B. Sleep Deprivation: Causes and Effects

C. A Society of Sleepless People

D. A Well-known Biologist

( ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 3 – Cô HƯƠNG FIONA)
Exercise 6:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
choose the best answer for each of the question
American movies create myths about college life in the United States. These stories are entertaining,
but they are not true. You have to look beyond Hollywood movies to understand what college is really
like.
Thanks to the movies, many people believe that college students party and socialize more than they
study. Movies almost never show students working hard in class or in the library. Instead, movies show
them eating, talking, hanging out, or dancing to loud music at wild parties. While it is true that American
students have the freedom to participate in activities, they also have academic responsibilities. In order to
succeed, they have to attend classes and study hard.

Another movie myth is that athletics is the only important extracurricular activity. In fact, there is a
wide variety of nonacademic activities on campus such as special clubs, service organizations, art, and
theater programs. This variety allows students to choose what interests them. Even more important, after
graduation, students' résumés look better to employers if they list a few extracurricular activities.
Most students in the movies can easily afford higher education. If only this were true! While it is true
that some American college students are wealthy, most are from families with moderate incomes. Up to
80% of them get some type of financial aid. Students from middle and lower-income families often work
part-time throughout their college years. There is one thing that many college students have in common,
but it is not something you will see in the movies. They have parents who think higher education is a
priority, a necessary and important part of their children's lives.
Movies about college life usually have characters that are extreme in some way: super athletic, super
intelligent, super wealthy, super glamorous, etc. Movies use these stereotypes, along with other myths of
romance and adventure because audiences like going to movies that include these elements. Of course,
real college students are not like movie characters at all.
So the next time you want a taste of the college experience, do not go to the movies. Look at some
college websites or brochures instead. Take a walk around your local college campus. Visit a few classes.
True, you may not be able to see the same people or exciting action you will see in the movies, but you
can be sure that there are plenty of academic adventures going on all around you!
Question 38. Which of the following is true according to the passage?
A. American students do not like to watch Hollywood movies.
B. You should see college movies to understand college life.
C. American colleges in the movies are not like those in reality.
D. Movies about college life are similar to life and fun to watch.
Question 39. Which of the following is NOT true?
A. There is a wide choice of extracurricular activities for college students.
B. Extracurricular activities are of no importance to employers.
C. Not all extracurricular activities are students' academic responsibilities.
D. Learning is not only part of students' college life.

Question 40. The word "they" in the third paragraph refers to________.
A. activities

B. résumés

C. employers

D. students

Question 41. The word "moderate" in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to "____".
A. not steady

B. sensible

C. unlimited

Question 42. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Most college students' families are not well-off.

D. not high


B. All college students have to work part-time.
C. It is important for students to get higher education.
D. Most students in the movies can afford college expenses.
Question 43. American parents believe in

.

A. the necessity of higher education in their children's lives

B. the quality of their children's college lives
C.the extracurricular activities that help ensure their children's jobs
D. how movie-makers describe American college life
Question 44. Many American students have to work part-time throughout their college years
because

.

A. they are not allowed to work full-time

B. their parents force them to

C. they can earn money for their expenses

D. they want to gain experience

Question 45. Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage?
A. Extracurricular Activities and Job Opportunities
B. American College Life and the Movies
C. Hollywood Movies: The Best About College Life
D. Going to College: The Only Way to Succeed in Life
( ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 3 – Cô HƯƠNG FIONA)
Exercise 7: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Paul Watson is an environmental activist. He is a man who believes that he must do something, not just
talk about doing something. Paul believes in protecting endangered animals, and he protects them in
controversial ways. Some people think that Watson is a hero and admire him very much. Other people
think that he is a criminal.
On July 16th, 1979, Paul Watson and his crew were on his ship, which is called the Sea Shepherd.
Watson and the people who work on the Sea Shepherd were hunting on the Atlantic Ocean near Portugal.

However, they had a strange prey; instead of hunting for animals, their prey was a ship, the Sierra. The
Sea Shepherd found the Sierra, ran into it and sank it. As a result, the Sierra never returned to the sea. The
Sea Shepherd, on the other hand, returned to its home in Canada. Paul Watson and his workers thought
that they had been successful.
The Sierra had been a whaling ship, which had operated illegally. The captain and crew of the Sierra did
not obey any of the international laws that restrict whaling. Instead, they killed as many whales as they
could, quickly cut off the meat, and froze it. Later, they sold the whale meat in countries where it is


eaten.
Paul Watson tried to persuade the international whaling commission to stop the Sierra. However, the
commission did very little, and Paul became impatient. He decided to stop the Sierra and other whaling
ships in any way that he could. He offered to pay $25,000 to anyone who sank any illegal whaling ship,
and he sank the Sierra. He acted because he believes that the whales must be protected. Still, he acted
without the approval of the government; therefore, his actions were controversial.
Paul Watson is not the only environmental activist. Other men and women are also fighting to protect the
Earth. Like Watson, they do not always have the approval of their governments, and like Watson, they
have become impatient. Yet, because of their concern for the environment, they will act to protect it.
(Adapted from "Eco fighters"by Eric Schwartz, OMNI)
Question 46: According to the reading, an environmental activist is someone who_______.
A. runs into whaling ship.

B. does something to protect the Earth.

C. talks about protecting endangered species.

D. is a hero, like Paul Watson.

Question 47: When something is “controversial”, __________.
A. everyone agrees with it.

B. everyone disagrees with it.

C. people have different ideas about it.

D. people protect it.

Question 48: The main idea of paragraph one is that __________.
A. Paul Watson is a hero to some people.
B. activists are people who do something.
C. Paul Watson is a controversial environmental activist.
D. Paul Watson does not believe in talking.
Question 49: The Sea Shepherd was hunting ______.
A. the Atlantic Ocean

B. whales

C. the Sierra

D. Portugal

Question 50: The author implies that Paul Watson lives in ______.
A. Portugal

B. a ship on the Atlantic C. the Sierra

D. Canada

Question 51: In paragraph 3, the phrase “and froze it” refers to ______.
A. whale meat

B. the Sierra

C. whales

Question 52: The main idea of paragraph three is that _______.
A. the Sierra sold whale meat in some countries.
B. the people on the Sierra did not obey international laws.
C. the people on the Sierra killed as many whales as they could.
D. whaling is illegal according to international law.
( ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 4 – Cô HƯƠNG FIONA)

D. the Sierra crew


Exercise 8:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
choose the best answer for each of the question
The ocean bottom - a region nearly 2.5 times greater than the total land area of Earth - is a vast
frontier that even today is largely unexplored and uncharted. Until about a century ago, the deep-ocean
floor was completely inaccessible, hidden beneath waters averaging over 3,600 meters deep. Totally
without light and subjected to intense pressures hundreds of times greater than at the Earth's surface, the
deep-ocean bottom is a hostile environment to humans, in some ways as forbidding and remote as the
void of outer space.
Although researchers have taken samples of deep-ocean rocks and sediments for over a century, the
first detailed global investigation of the ocean bottom did not actually start until 1968, with the beginning
ofthe National Science Foundation's Deep Sea Drilling Project (DSDP). Using techniques first developed
for the offshore oil and gas industry, the DSDP's drill ship, the Glomar Challenger, was able to maintain a
steady position on the ocean's surface and drill in very deep waters, extracting samples of sediments and
rock from the ocean floor.
The Glomar Challenger completed 96 voyages in a 15-year research program that ended in

November 1983. During this time, the vessel logged 600,000 kilometers and took almost 20,000 core
samples of seabed sediments and rocks at 624 drilling sites around the world. The Glomar Challenger's
core samples have allowed geologists to reconstruct what the planet looked like hundreds of millions of
years ago and to calculate what it will probably look like millions of years in the future. Today, largely on
the strength of evidence gathered during the Glomar Challenger's voyages, nearly all earth scientists
agree on the theories of plate tectonics and continental drift that explain many of the geological processes
that shape the Earth.
The cores of sediment drilled by the Glomar Challenger have also yielded information critical to
understanding the world's past climates. Deep-ocean sediments provide a climatic record stretching back
hundreds of millions of years, because they are largely isolated from the mechanical erosion and the
intense chemical and biological activity that rapidly destroy much land-based evidence of past climates.
This record has already provided insights into the patterns and causes of past climatic change information that may be used to predict future climates.
Question 53. The author refers to the ocean bottom as a “frontier” because it _______
A. is not a popular area for scientific research
B. contains a wide variety of life forms
C. attracts courageous explorers
D. is an unknown territory
Question 54. The word “inaccessible” is closest in meaning to _______.


A. unrecognizable

B. unreachable

C. unusable

D. unsafe

Question 55. The author mentions “outer space” because _______.
A. the Earth's climate millions of years ago was similar to conditions in outer space.

B. it is similar to the ocean floor in being alien to the human environment.
C. rock formations in outer space are similar to those found on the ocean floor.
D. techniques used by scientists to explore outer space were similar to those used in ocean exploration.
Question 56. Which of the following is true of the Glomar Challenger?
A. It is a type of submarine.

B. It is an ongoing project.

C. It has gone on over 100 voyages.

D. It made its first DSDP voyage in 1968.

Question 57. The Deep Sea Drilling Project was significant because it was ______.
A. an attempt to find new sources of oil and gas
B. the first extensive exploration of the ocean bottom
C. composed of geologists from all over the world
D. funded entirely by the gas and oil industry
Question 58. The word “they” refers _______.
A. years

B. climates

C. sediments

D. cores

Question 59. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as being a result of the Deep
Sea Drilling Project?
A. Geologists were able to determine the Earth's appearance hundreds of millions of years ago.
B. Two geological theories became more widely accepted by scientists.

C. Information was revealed about the Earth's past climatic changes.
D. Geologists observed forms of marine life never before seen.
Question 60. How long did the Glomar Challenger conduct its research?
A. 3 years

B. 5 years

C. 15 years

D. 16 years

( ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 4 – Cô HƯƠNG FIONA)
Exercise 9: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
It is hard to get any agreement on the precise meaning of the term "social class". In everyday life,
people tend to have a different approach to those they consider their equals from which they assume with
people they consider higher or lower than themselves in social scale. The criteria we use to 'place' a new
acquaintance, however, are a complex mixture of factors. Dress, way of speaking, area of residence in a
given city or province, education and manners all play a part.
In ancient civilizations, the Sumerian, for example, which flourished in the lower Euphrates valley
from 2000 to 5000 B.C. social differences were based on birth, status or rank, rather than on wealth. Four


main classes were recognized. These were the rulers, the priestly administrators, the freemen (such as
craftsmen, merchants or farmers) and the slaves.
In Greece, after the sixth-century B.C., there was a growing conflict between the peasants and the
aristocrats, and a gradual decrease in the power of the aristocracy when a kind of 'middle class' of traders
and skilled workers grew up. The population of Athens, for example, was divided into three main classes
which were politically and legally distinct. About one-third of the total population was slaves, who did
not count politically at all, a fact often forgotten by those who praise Athens as the nursery of democracy.

The next main group consisted of resident foreigners, the, 'metics' who were freemen, though they too
were allowed no share in political life. The third group was the powerful body of 'citizens", who were
themselves divided into sub-classes.
In the later Middle Ages, however, the development of a money economy and the growth of cities
and trade led to the rise of another class, the 'burghers' or city merchants and mayors. These were the
predecessors of the modern middle classes. Gradually high office and occupation assumed importance in
determining social position, as it became more and more possible for a person born to one station in life
to move to another. This change affected the towns more than the country areas, where remnants of
feudalism lasted much longer.
Question 61: According to the passage, we evaluate other people's social position by_____.
A. questioning them in great details
B. their dress, manners, area of residence and other factors
C. finding out how much their salary is
D. the kind of job they do
Question 62: The word "criteria" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to ________ .
A. characteristics

B. words

C. standards of judgment D. criticisms

Question 63: The word “which” in the paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. ancient civilizations

B. Sumerian

C. example

D. Euphrates valley

Question 64: The decline of the Greek aristocracy's power in the sixth century B.C ________ .
A. caused international conflicts in the area
B. coincided with the rise of a new "middle class" of traders and peasants
C. was assisted by a rise in the number of slaves
D. lasted for only a short time
Question 65: Athens is often praised as the nursery of democracy_______.
A. even though slaves were allowed to vote
B. because its three main classes were politically and legally distinct.
C. in spite of its heavy dependence on slave labor


D. because even very young children could vote
Question 66: The word "predecessors" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to_____.
A. supporters

B. descendants

C. ancestors

D. authorities

Question 67: The passage is mainly about__________.
A. the human history
B. the modern society
C. the division of social classes in the ancient world
D. the social life in ancient Greece
( ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 5 – Cô HƯƠNG FIONA)
Exercise 10:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose the best answer for
each of the question
The National Automobile Show in New York has been one of the top auto shows in the United States

since 1900. On November 3 of that year, about 8,000 people looked over the "horseless carriages." It was
the opening day and the first opportunity for the automobile industry to show off its wares to a large
crowd; however, the black-tie audience treated the occasion more as a social affair than as a sales
extravaganza. It was also on the first day of this show that William McKinley became the first U.S.
president to ride in a car.
The automobile was not invented in the United States. That distinction belongs to Germany. Nicolaus
Otto built the first practical internal-combustion engine there in 1876. Then, German engineer Karl Benz
built what are regarded as the first modern automobiles in the mid-1880s. But the United States pioneered
the merchandising of the automobile. The auto show proved to be an effective means of getting the public
excited about automotive products.
By happenstance, the number of people at the first New York show equaled the entire car population of
the United States at that time. In 1900, 10 million bicycles and an unknown number of horse-drawn
carriages provided the prime means of personal transportation. Only about 4,000 cars were assembled in
the United States in 1900, and only a quarter of those were gasoline powered. The rest ran on steam or
electricity.
After viewing the cars made by forty car makers, the show's audience favored electric cars because they
were quiet. The risk of a boiler explosion turned people away from steamers, and the gasoline-powered
cars produced smelly fumes. The Duryea Motor Wagon Company, which launched the American auto
industry in 1895, offered a fragrant additive designed to mask the smells of the naphtha that it burned.
Many of the 1900 models were cumbersome - the Gasmobile, the Franklin, and the Orient, for example,
steered with a tiller like a boat instead of with a steering wheel. None of them was equipped with an
automatic starter.


These early model cars were practically handmade and were not very dependable. They were basically
toys of the well-to-do. In fact, Woodrow Wilson, then a professor at Princeton University and later
President of the United States, predicted that automobiles would cause conflict between the wealthy and
the poor. However, among the exhibitors at the 1900 show was a young engineer named Henry Ford. But
before the end of the decade, he would revolutionize the automobile industry with his Model T Ford. The
Model T, first produced in 1909, featured a standardized design and a streamlined method of production –

the assembly line. Its lower costs made it available to the mass market.
Cars at the 1900 show ranged in price from $1,000 to $1,500, or roughly $14,000 to $21,000 in today’s
prices. By 1913, the Model T was selling for less than $300, and soon the price would drop even further.
“I will build cars for the multitudes,” Ford said, and he kept his promise.
Question 68. The passage implies that the audience viewed the 1900 National Automobile Show
primarily as a(n)_____
A. formal social occasion.
B. chance to buy automobiles at low prices
C. opportunity to learn how to drive
D. chance to invest in one of thirty-two automobile manufacturers
Question 69. According to the passage, who developed the first modern car?
A. Karl Benz

B. Nikolaus Otto

C. William McKinley

D. Henry Ford

Question 70. Approximately how many cars were there in the United States in 1900?
A. 4,000

B. 8,000

C. 10 million

D. An unknown number

Question 71. The phrase "by happenstance" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to_______.
A. Generally

B. For example

C. Coincidentally

D. By design

Question 72. The word "they" in the paragraph 2 refers to_________.
A. car makers

B. model cars

C. audience

D. electric cars

Question 73. Approximately how many of the cars assembled in the year 1900 were gasoline
powered?
A. 32

B. 1,000

C. 2,000

D. 4,000

Question 74. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as steering with a tiller rather
than with a steering wheel?
A. A Franklin

B. A Gasmobile

C. An Orient

D. A Duryea

Question 75. What was the highest price asked for a car at the 1900 National Automobile Show in
the dollars of that time?
A. $300

B.$1,500

( ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 5 – Cô HƯƠNG FIONA)

C. $14,000

D. $21,000


Exercise 11: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Biological diversity has become widely recognized as a critical conservation issue only in the past two
decades. The rapid destruction of the tropical rain forests, which are the ecosystems with the highest
known species diversity on Earth, has awakened people to the importance and fragility of biological
diversity. The high rate of species extinctions in these environments is jolting, but it is important to
recognize the significance of biological diversity in all ecosystems. As the human population continues to
expand, it will negatively affect one after another of Earth’s ecosystems. In terrestrial ecosystems and in
fringe marine ecosystems (such as wetlands), the most common problem is habitat destruction. In most
situations, the result is irreversible. Now humans are beginning to destroy marine ecosystems through
other types of activities, such as disposal and runoff of poisonous waste; in less than two centuries, by

significantly reducing the variety of species on Earth, they have irrevocably redirected the course of
evolution.
Certainly, there have been periods in Earth’s history when mass extinctions have occurred. The extinction
of the dinosaurs was caused by some physical event, either climatic or cosmic. There have also been less
dramatic extinctions, as when natural competition between species reached an extreme conclusion. Only
0.01 percent of the species that have lived on Earth have survived to the present, and it was largely chance
that determined which species survived and which died out.
However, nothing has ever equaled the magnitude and speed with which the human species is altering the
physical and chemical world and demolishing the environment. In fact, there is wide agreement that it is
the rate of change humans are inflicting, even more than the changes themselves, that will lead to
biological devastation. Life on Earth has continually been in flux as slow physical and chemical changes
have occurred on Earth, but life needs time to adapt-time for migration and genetic adaptation within
existing species and time for the proliferation of new genetic material and new species that may be able to
survive in new environments.
Question 76: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The variety of species found in tropical rain forests
B. The cause of the extinction of the dinosaurs
C. The time required for species to adapt to new environments
D. The impact of human activities on Earth’s ecosystems
Question 77: The word “jolting” is closest in meaning to______.
A. illuminating

B. unknown

C. shocking

D. predicted


Question 78: The author mentions all of the following as examples of the effect of humans on the

world’s ecosystems EXCEPT______.
A. damage to marine ecosystems

B. habitat destruction in wetlands

C. the introduction of new varieties of plant species D. destruction of the tropical rain forests
Question 79: The author mentions the extinction of the dinosaurs in paragraph 2 to emphasize that
______.
A. not all mass extinctions have been caused by human activity
B. actions by humans could not stop the irreversible process of a species’ extinction
C. Earth’s climate has changed significantly since the dinosaurs’ extinction
D. the cause of the dinosaurs’ extinction is unknown
Question 80: According to the passage, natural evolutionary change is different from changes
caused by humans in that changes caused by humans _______.
A. affect fewer ecosystems

B. are occurring at a much faster rate

C. are reversible

D. are less devastating to most species

Question 81: The word “they” in paragraph 1 refer to _________.
A. humans

B. marine ecosystems

C. other types of activities

D. poisonous waste

Question 82: With which of the following statements would the author be most likely to agree?
A. The extinction of a few species is an acceptable consequence of human progress
B. Technology will provide solutions to problems caused by the destruction of ecosystems
C. Human influence on ecosystems should not be a factor in determining public policy
D. Humans should be more conscious of the influence they have on ecosystems
( ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 6 – Cô HƯƠNG FIONA)
Exercise 12:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
choose the best answer for each of the question .
Of all the aspirations which make up the American Dream, perhaps the most prominent is to own one’s
own home. Americans are very proud of their homes and spend a great deal of time maintaining their
houses and keeping the property in good condition. A man's home is often called his castle, and the hours
spent keeping his fortress safe and secure become one of his greatest pleasures.
If a home is in an especially fashionable neighborhood, the owners may consult an interior decorator to
give the home a certain coordinated appearance. If there is a large back yard, great care may be spent in
having it properly landscaped with exotic trees, shrubs and plants.
It is almost a certainty that you should be the first visitor to an American home, you will be taken on a
grand tour of the premises. The owner will take great pride in showing to you the place he calls home.


Every closet, every cabinet and closed door will be opened so that you can actually see the extent and
value of his home.
You will even be taken into the father's den and the mother's sewing room. These are special rooms for
the respective man and woman of the house to insure their privacy. They may be off-limits to the rest of
the family but, for the visitor they are open to scrutiny and inspection.
It is, of course, considered polite on the tour to comment favorably on each room picking out its most
salient, important feature, such as the special view from the window, the vaulted ceiling in the foyer or
the exotic choice of wallpaper in the bathroom.
The finished basement is a special cause for pride for the family with its exercise room, video games,
carpenter shop and launderette. In most homes it is here that the family entertains itself in the evening

while the rest of the house becomes more of a showcase. On your tour you may be reminded of the hours
the owners had spent "fixing up the house" so it would be "nice for the kids to bring over their friends".
You may even sense a feeling of competition in knowing that they have not only "kept up with the
Joneses" but also have far surpassed them.
The tour will terminate after an hour or so somewhere on the back lawn next to the two-car airconditioned garage where you may be treated to a snack and light refreshment.
Showing off one's home is more than an exercise in vanity. It is a tribute to one's accomplishment. It is a
way of saying that a man has been a good provider for his family and that he has realized one of his
dreams.
Question 83. What is considered the biggest reachable dream for most Americans?
A. To be president of the United States of America
B. To be rich and famous for fifteen minutes
C. To be a movie or rock star
D. To own one's own house
Question 84. What is often called “castle” for many Americans?
A. One's own home

B. Mc Donald's

C. Disneyland

D. The White House

Question 85. If a man lives in a good neighborhood, who may be consulted to fix up the appearance
of the home?
A. An architect

B. A house designer

C. An interior decorator D. One's mother-in-law

Question 86. If it is your first visit to an American home, what will the owner probably do?
A. Ask you for a gift

B. Ask you if you like the house

C. Treat you to coffee and refreshment

D. Give you a grand tour of his home

Question 87. What is considered polite behavior if you are taken on a grand tour of someone's
home?


A. To praise everything you see

B. To listen carefully to everything that is said

C. To comment favorably on each room

D. To be careful not to break anything

Question 88. What is the purpose of a finished basement?
A. It is used as a family recreation room

B. It is used as a storage room

C. It is a place to watch TV

D. It is a sound-proofed room for the kids

Question 89. What is meant by "keep up with the Joneses"?
A. It means to be a good neighbor
B. It means to earn as much as you can
C. It means to make one's home look better than one's neighbors
D. It means to remain competitive with one's neighbor
Question 90. What is the ultimate purpose in showing off one’s home to friends?
A. To show off one’s wealth

B. It’s a tribute to one’s accomplishments

C. To impress one’s neighbors

D. To show that you are richer than your friends

( ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 6 – Cô HƯƠNG FIONA)
Exercise 13: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
The principle of use and disuse states that those parts of organisms’ bodies that are used grow
larger. Those parts that are not tend to wither away. It is an observed fact that when you exercise
particular muscles, they grow. Those that are never used diminish. By examining a man’s body, we can
tell which muscles he uses and which he does not. We may even be able to guess his profession or his
recreation. Enthusiasts of the ‘body-building’ cult make use of the principle of use and disuse to ‘build’
their bodies, almost like a piece of sculpture, into whatever unnatural shape is demanded by fashion in
this peculiar minority culture. Muscles are not the only parts of the body that respond to use in this kind
of way. Walk barefoot and you acquire harder skin on your soles. It is easy to tell a farmer from a bank
teller by looking at their hands alone. The farmer’s hands are horny, hardened by long exposure to rough
work. The teller’s hands are relatively soft.
The principle of use and disuse enables animals to become better at the job of surviving in their
world, progressively better during their lifetime as a result of living in that world. Humans, through direct
exposure to sunlight, or lack of it, develop a skin color which equips them better to survive in the

particular local conditions. Too much sunlight is dangerous. Enthusiastic sunbathers with very fair skins
are susceptible to skin cancer. Too little sunlight, on the other hand, leads to vitamin-D deficiency. The
brown pigment melanin which is synthesized under the influence of sunlight, makes a screen to protect
the underlying tissues from the harmful effects of further sunlight. If a suntanned person moves to a less
sunny climate, the melanin disappears, and the body is able to benefit from what little sun there is. This


can be represented as an instance of the principle of use and disuse: skin goes brown when it is “used’,
and fades to white when it is not.
Question 91: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. How the principles of use and disuse change people’s concepts of themselves.
B. The way in which people change themselves to conform to fashion
C. The changes that occur according to the principle of use and disuse.
D. The effects of the sun on the principle of use and disuse
Question 92: The word ‘Those’ in line 3 refers to _____.
A. organisms

B. bodies

C. parts

D. muscles

Question 93: According to the passage, men who body build_____.
A. appear like sculptures

B. change their appearance

C. belong to strange cults

D. are very fashionable

Question 94: From the passage, it can be inferred that the author views body building _____.
A. with enthusiasm

B. as an artistic form

C. with scientific interest

D. of doubtful benefit

Question 95: It can be inferred from the passage that the principle of use and disuse enables
organisms to _____.
A. change their existence

B. automatically benefit

C. better survive in their conditions

D. improve their lifetime

Question 96: The author suggests that melanin _____.
A. is necessary for the production of vitamin-D

B. is beneficial in sunless climates.

C. helps protect fair-skinned people

D. is a synthetic product

Question 97: The word ‘susceptible’ could be best replaced by _____.
A. condemned

B. vulnerable

C. allergic

D. suggestible

( ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 7 – Cô HƯƠNG FIONA)
Exercise 14:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
choose the best answer for each of the question
MOBILE PHONES: ARE THEY ABOUT TO TRANSFORM OUR LIVES?
We love them so much that some of us sleep with them under the pillow, yet we are increasingly
concerned that we cannot escape their electronic reach. We use them to convey our most intimate secrets,
yet we worry that they are a threat to our privacy. We rely on them more than the Internet to cope with
modern life, yet many of us don’t believe advertisements saying we need more advanced services.
Sweeping aside the doubts that many people feel about the benefits of new third generation phones
and fears over the health effects of phone masts, a recent report claims that the long-term effects of new


mobile technologies will be entirely positive so long as the public can be convinced to make use of them.
Research about users of mobile phones reveals that the mobile has already moved beyond being a mere
practical communications tool to become the backbone of modern social life, from love affairs to
friendship to work.
The close relationship between user and phone is most pronounced among teenagers, the report
says, who regard their mobiles as an expression of their identity. This is partly because mobiles are seen
as being beyond the control of parents. But the researchers suggest that another reason may be that
mobiles, especially text messaging, were seen as a way of overcoming shyness. The impact of phones,
however, has been local rather than global, supporting existing friendship and networks, rather than

opening users to a new broader community. Even the language of texting in one area can be
incomprehensible to anybody from another area.
Among the most important benefits of using mobile phones, the report claims, will be a vastly
improved mobile infrastructure, providing gains throughout the economy, and the provision of a more
sophisticated location-based services for users. The report calls on government to put more effort into the
delivery of services by mobile phone, with suggestion including public transport and traffic information
and doctors’ text messages to remind patients of appointments. There are many possibilities. At a recent
trade fair in Sweden, a mobile navigation product was launched. When the user enters a destination, a
route is automatically downloaded to their mobile and presented by voices, pictures and maps as they
drive. In future, these devices will also be able to plan around congestion and road works in real time.
Third generation phones will also allow for remote monitoring of patients by doctors. In Britain, scientists
are developing an asthma management solution using mobiles to detect early signs of an attack.
Mobile phones can be used in education. A group of teachers in Britain use third generation phones
to provide fast internet service to children who live beyond the reach of terrestrial broadband services and
can have no access to online information. ‘As the new generation of mobile technologies takes off, the
social potential will vastly increase,’ the report argues.
Question 95. What does the writer suggest in the first paragraph about our attitudes to mobile
phones?
A. We are worried about using them so much
B. We have contradictory feelings about them
C. We need them more than anything else to deal with modern life.
D. We cannot live without them
Question 99. What does “them” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. new mobile technologies

B. benefits

C. doubts

D. long-term effects

Question 100. What is the connection between social life and mobile phones?
A. Mobile phones make romantic communication easier.
B. Mobile phones enable people to communicate while moving around.
C. Modern social life relies significantly on the use of mobile phones.
D. Mobile phones encourage people to make friends.
Question 101. Why do teenagers have such a close relationship with their mobile phones?
A. They are more inclined to be late than older people
B. They feel independent when they use them.
C. They tend to feel uncomfortable in many situations.
D. They use text messages more than any other group
Question 102. Which of the following is NOT true?
A. People can overcome shyness by using texting to communicate things that make them uncomfortable
B. There is no need to suspect the harmfulness of mobile phones
C. Mobile phone is considered as a means for the youth to show their characters
D. Mobile phones are playing a wide range of roles in people’s life
Question 103. In what sense has the impact of phones been “local” in paragraph 3?
A. People tend to communicate with people they already know.
B. Users generally phone people who live in the same neighbourhood.
C. It depends on local dialects.
D. The phone networks use different systems.
Question 104. The navigation product launched in Sweden is helpful for drivers because ______.
A. it shows them how to avoid road works
B. it can suggest the best way to get to a place
C. it tells them which roads are congested
D. it provides directions orally
Question 105. Where is this passage most likely to appear?
A. fashion magazine

B. school bulletin

C. technical magazine

D. advertising section

( ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 7 – Cô HƯƠNG FIONA)
Exercise 15: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Ranked as the number one beverage consumed worldwide, tea takes the lead over coffee in both
popularity and production with more than 5 million tons of tea produced annually. Although much of this
tea is consumed in Asian, European and African countries, the United States drinks its fair share.
According to estimates by the Tea Council of the United States, tea is enjoyed by no less than half of the


U.S. population on any given day. Black tea or green tea - iced, spiced, or instant - tea drinking has
spurred a billion-dollar business with major tea producers in Africa and South America and throughout
Asia.
Tea is made from the leaves of an evergreen plant, Camellia sinensis, which grows tall and lush in
tropical regions. On tea plantations, the plant is kept trimmed to approximately four feet high and as new
buds called flush appear, they are plucked off by hand. Even in today’s world of modern agricultural
machinery, hand harvesting continues to be the preferred method. Ideally, only the top two leaves and a
bud should be picked. This new growth produces the highest quality tea.
After being harvested, tea leaves are laid out on long drying racks, called withering racks, for 18 to 20
hours. Next, depending on the type of tea being produced, the leaves may be crushed or chopped to
release flavor, and then fermented under controlled conditions of heat and humidity. For green tea, the
whole leaves are often steamed to retain their green color, and the fermentation process is skipped.
Producing black teas requires fermentation during which the tea leaves begin to darken. After
fermentation, black tea is dried in vats to produce its rich brown or black color.
No one knows when or how tea became popular, but legend has it that tea as a beverage, was discovered

in 2737 B.C. by Emperor Shen Nung of China when leaves from a Camellia dropped into his drinking
water as it was boiling over a fire. As the story goes, Emperor Shen Nung drank the resulting liquid and
proclaimed the drink to be most nourishing and refreshing. Though this account cannot be documented,
it is thought that tea drinking probably originated in China and spread to other parts of Asia, then to
Europe, and ultimately to America colonies around 1650.
With about half the caffeine content as coffee, tea is often chosen by those who want to reduce, but not
necessarily eliminate their caffeine intake. Some people find that tea is less acidic than coffee and
therefore easier on the stomach. Others have become interested in tea drinking since the National Cancer
Institute published its findings on the antioxidant properties of tea. But whether tea is enjoyed for its
perceived health benefits, its flavor, or as a social drink, teacups continue to be filled daily with the
world’s most popular beverage.
Question 106: Why does the author include statistics on the amount of tea produced, sold and
consumed?
A. To show the expense of processing such a large quantity of tea.
B. To explain why coffee is not the most popular beverage worldwide
C. To demonstrate tea’s popularity.
D. To impress the reader with factual sounding information.
Question 107: Based on the passage, what is implied about tea harvesting?
A. It is totally done with the assistance of modern agricultural machinery


B. It is no longer done in China
C. The method has remained nearly the same for a long time
D. The method involves trimming the uppermost branches of the plant
Question 108: What does the word “they” in paragraph 2 of the passage refer to?
A. Tea pickers

B. New buds

C. Evergreen plants

D. Tropical regions

Question 109: According to the passage, what is true about the origin of tea drinking?
A. It began during the Shen Nung dynasty
B. It may have begun sometime around 1650
C. It is unknown when tea first became popular
D. It was originally produced from Camellia plants in Europe
Question 110: The word “eliminate” in paragraph 5 could be best replaced by which of the
following word?
A. decrease

B. increase

C. reduce

D. remove

Question 111: According to the passage, which may be the reason why someone would choose to
drink tea instead of coffee?
A. Because it’s easier to digest than coffee
B. Because it has a higher nutritional content than coffee
C. Because it helps prevent cancer
D. Because it has more caffeine than coffee
Question 112: What best describes the topic of this passage?
A. Tea consumption and production

B. The two most popular types of tea

C. The benefits of tea consumption worldwide

D. How tea is produced and brewed

( ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 8– Cô HƯƠNG FIONA)
Exercise 16:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
choose the best answer for each of the question
In the last third of the nineteenth century a new housing form was quietly being developed. In 1869 the
Stuyvesant, considered New York’s first apartment house, was built on East Eighteenth Street. The
building was financed by the developer Rutherfurd Stuyvesant and designed by Richard Morris Hunt, the
first American architect to graduate from the Ecole des Beaux Arts in Paris. Each man had lived in Paris,
and each understood the economic and social potential of this Parisian housing form. But the Stuyvesant
was at best a limited success. In spite of Hunt’s inviting facade, the living place was awkwardly arranged.
Those who could afford them were quite content to remain in the more sumptuous, single-family homes,
leaving the Stuyvesant to young married couple and bachelors.