Tải Bộ đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2016 môn Tiếng Anh - Số 19 - Đề thi thử Đại học môn Tiếng Anh năm 2016 có đáp án

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SỞ GD&ĐT HÀ TĨNH
TRƯỜNG THPT HỒNG LĨNH

---****---KỲ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2016
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút (không kể thời gian giao
đề)

SECTION A (8 points)

Choose the answer among A, B, C, D whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others:
1. A. father B. healthy C. other D. another

2. A. washed B. matched C. intended D. walked
Choose the answer among A, B, C, D whose stress position is different from the others:
3. A. appear B. decide C. require D. cancel
4. A. eradication B. resolution C. contradiction D. similarity
5. A. reformulate B. scientific C. considerable D. exclude
Choose the answer among A, B, C, D to complete each of the sentences below:

6. The book___________ you are reading is really useful for all the exams
A. which B. who C. what D. it

7. When I passed their house, all the lights had been turned off. They_____________ to bed already.
A. must go B. should have gone C. must have gone D. need have gone

8. __________ really worn out from hard work, she managed to amuse us with a funny story.
A. Despite B. Because of C. Because D. Although
9. By this time next year, my new house___________, and we can move into it.

A. will finish B. will have been finished C. will have finished D. will be finished
10. It is no good____________ to him about the problem. He’s as deaf as a pole.

A. complain B. to complain C. complaining D. complaint
11. I am wondering what____________if our ecosystem were completely destroyed?
A. will happen B. would have happened C. happened D. would happen
12. Jane: “Did you step on her foot by accident or________ purpose?” Mary: “Delibrately”
A. on B. in C. by D. through

13. My sister has just bought a___________at that shop, which is situated at the corner of Tran Phu Street.
A. pullover beautiful pink woolen B. pink beautiful woolen pullover

C. beautiful pink woolen pullover D. woolen beautiful pink pullover
14. Could you please give me a lift to work tomorrow? My motorbike is____________today.
A. out of date B. out of work C. out of mind D. out of order
15. We put his rude manner___________ignorance of the local customs .

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16. He has devoured to learn English the past months ___________getting a chance to study abroad.
A. with a view of B. with a view to C. in regard of D. on account of.

17. The more distance a star happens to be, ______________ to us.

A. it seems dimmer B. the dimmest it seems C. the dimmer it seems D. it seems dimmest.
18. The job was done____________, and we were extremely displeased.

A. incompetence B. incompetent C. competently D. incompetently

19. His change of job has___________ him with a new challenge in life.

A. presented B. introduced C. initiated D. led

20. Not until my mother got home________________that she had left the purse at the office.
A. that she realized B. she realized C. did she realize D. did she realized
21. In order to grow vegetables productively, gardeners must know______________.

A. that the requirements for each vegetable B. what the requirements for each vegetable are
C. what are each vegetables’ requirements D. that is required by each vegetable

22. David: “ The final exams are coming. I seem to be too nervous!”

Linda: “___________________. It will be not so hard as you’ve expected.
A. Be careful B. Good Luck C. Congratulations D. Take it easy

23. Son: “ Why don”t we buy a new car, Dad? This one is too old to go out with my friends.”
Dad: “ ______________. We don’t have much money.”

A. It is out of the question now B. I have to think it over
C. You are right D. That’s a great idea.
24. Kenny: “ Your hairstyle is terrific!” Linda: “____________”

A. It’s a nice complement. Thank you. B. Not at all

B. The same to you D. Really? Congratulations!

Choose the best answer among A,B,C,D whose meaning is CLOSEST to the underlined part in each
sentence below:

25. The population of the United States is roughly 240 million.

A. unfortunately B. ideally C. approximately D. usually

26. A legal combination of Delta Airlines and Air France was approved at a joint board of directors meeting.
A reconciliation B. strike C. memorandum D. merger

27. According to federal regulations, it is required that all canned and packaged food have a list of the items
used in the recipe printed in the label.

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Choose the best answer among A,B,C,D whose meaning is OPPOSITE to the underlined part in each
sentence below:

28. We didn’t plan to meet each other. We just met accidently.

A. intentionally B. simultaneously C. hurriedly D. coincidently
29. The smell of the fish put me off the meal.

A. interested me B. made me unable to eat the meal
C. made me want to eat the meal a lot D. made me feel hungry

Choose the answer among A,B,C,D whose underlined part needs correcting to make sentences below
complete:

30. Jim was upset last night because he had to do too many homeworks.
A B C D

31. The professor told him to write a short but it must b e comprehensive paper about the
A B C

experiment.
D

32. This table is not sturdy enough to support a television, and that one probably isn't neither.
A B C D
33. Lectures for the week of March 22-26 will include the following: The Causes of the Civil
A B C

War, The Economy of the South, Battle Strategies, and Assassinating Lincoln.
D

34. In 1975, according to the National Center for Health Statistics, the average life expectancy for
A

people born during that year is 72.4 years.
B C D

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disappear forever, (43)_________ you are one of those people disciplined enough to write them down as soon
as you (44)_________.

35. A. taken B. guided C. brought D. carried
36. A. contrast B. contrary C. other side D. opposite
37. A. spirit B. mind C. brain D. soul
38. A. unless B. but also C. or else D. or
39. A. said B. spoken C. declared D. started
40. A. become B. go C. turn D. get
41. A. real B. factual C. genuine D. actual
42. A. off B. up C. out D. down
43. A. except that B. therefore C. thus D. unless
44. A. wake up B. arise C. awake D. rise up

Read the passage and choose the best answer for each question ( 45-54) below.

It is estimated that over 99 percent of all species that ever existed have become extinct. What causes
extinction? When a species is no longer adapted to a changed environment, it may perish. The exact causes of a
species’ death vary from situation to situation. Rapid ecological change may render an environment hostile to a
species. For example, temperatures may change and a species may not be able to adapt. Food Resources may
be affected by environmental changes, which will then cause problems. For a species requiring these resources.
Other species may become better adapted to an Environment, resulting in competition and, ultimately, in the
death of a species.

The fossil record reveals that extinction has occurred throughout the history of Earth. Recent analyses
have also revealed that on some occasions many species became extinct at the same time – a mass extinction.
One of the best-known examples of mass extinction occurred 65 million years ago with the demise of
dinosaurs and many other forms of life.

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survive for no particular reason. A species’ survival may have nothing to do with its ability or inability to
adapt. If so, some of evolutionary history may reflect a sequence of essentially random events.

45. The word “it” in line 2 refers to

A. environment B. species C. extinction D. 99 percent
46. The word “ultimately” in line 7 is closest in meaning to

A. exceptionally B. dramatically C. eventually D. unfortunately
47. What does the author say in paragraph 1 regarding most species in Earth’s history
A. They have remained basically unchanged from their original forms.

B. They have been able to adapt to ecological changes.
C. They have caused rapid change in the environment.
D. They are no longer in existence.

48. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 1 as resulting from rapid ecological change?
A. Temperature changes B. Availability of food resources

C. Introduction of new species D. Competition among species
49. Why is “ plankton” mentioned in line 15?

A. To demonstrate the interdependence of different species

B. To emphasize the importance of food resources in preventing mass extinction.

C. To illustrate a comparison between organisms that live on the land and those that live in the ocean
D. To point out that certain species could never become extinct.

50. According to paragraph 2, evidence from fossils suggests that

A. extinction of species has occurred from time to time throughout Earth’s history.
B. Extinctions on Earth have generally been massive

C. there has been only one mass extinction in Earth’s history.

D. dinosaurs became extinct much earlier than scientists originally believed.
51. The word “finding” in line 18 is closest in meaning to

A. published information B. research method
C. ongoing experiment D. scientific discovery
52. The word “demise” in line 11 is closest in meaning to

A. change B. recovery C. help D. death

53. In paragraph 3, the author makes which of the following statements about a species’ survival?
A. It reflects the interrelationship of may species. B. It may depend on chance events.

C. It does not vary greatly from species to species D. It is associated with astronomical conditions.
54. According to the passage, it is believed that the largest extinction of a species occurred

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C. 225 million years ago D. 250 million years ago

Read the passage and choose the best answer for each question (55-64) below.

By far the most important United States export product in the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries was
cotton, favored by the European textile industry over flax or wool because it was easy to process and soft to
tile touch. Mechanization of spinning and weaving allowed significant centralization and expansion in the
textile industry during this period, and at the same time the demand for cotton increased dramatically.
American producers were able to meet this demand largely because of tile invention of the cotton gin by Eli
Whitney in 1793. Cotton could be grown throughout the South, but separating the fiber – or lint – from the
seed was a laborious process. Sea island cotton was relatively easy to process by hand, because its fibers were
long and seeds were concentrated at the base of the flower, but it demanded a long growing season, available
only along the nation's eastern seacoast. Short-staple cotton required a much shorter growing season, but the
shortness of the fibers and their mixture with seeds meant that a worker could

hand-process only about one pound per day. Whitney's gin was a hand-powered machine with revolving drums
and metal teeth to pull cotton fibers away from seeds. Using the gin, a worker could produce up to 50 pounds
of lint a day. The later development of larger gins, powered by horses, water, or steam, multiplied productivity
further.

The interaction of improved processing and high demand led to the rapid spread of the cultivation of
cotton and to a surge in production. It became the main American export, dwarfing all others. In 1802, cotton
composed 14 percent of total American exports by value. Cotton had a 36 percent share by 1810 and over a 50
percent share

in 1830. In 1860, 61 percent of the value of American exports was represented by cotton. In contrast, wheat
and wheat flour composed only 6 percent of the value of American exports in that year. Clearly, cotton was
king in the trade of the young republic. The growing market for cotton and other American agricultural
products led to an unprecedented expansion of agricultural settlement, mostly in the eastern half of the United
States---west of the Appalachian Mountains and east of the Mississippi River.

55. The main point of the passage is that the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries were a time when
A. the European textile industry increased its demand for American export products

B. mechanization of spinning and weaving dramatically changed the textile industry
C. cotton became a profitable crop but was still time-consuming to process

D. cotton became the most important American export product
56. The word "favored" in line 2 is closest in meaning to

A. preferred B. recommended C. imported D. included

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C. a shortage of flax and wool D. the growth that occurred in the textile industry.
58. The word "laborious" in line 6 is closest in meaning to

A. unfamiliar B. primitive C. skilled D. difficult
59. According to the passage, one advantage of sea island cotton was its

A. abundance of seeds B. long fibers

C. long growing season D. adaptability to different climates

60. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about cotton production in the United States after
the introduction of Whitney's cotton gin?

A. More cotton came from sea island cotton plants than before.
B. More cotton came from short-staple cotton plants than before.
C. Most cotton produced was sold domestically.

D. Most cotton produced was exported to England.
61. The word "surge" in line 14 is closest in meaning to

A. sharp increase B. sudden stop C. important change D. excess amount
62. The author mentions "wheat and wheat flour" in line 17 in order to

A. show that Americans exported more agricultural products than they imported.
B. show the increase in the amount of wheat products exported.

C. demonstrate the importance of cotton among American export products.
D. demonstrate that wheat farming was becoming more profitable.

63. The word "unprecedented" in line 18 is closest in meaning to

A. slow B. profitable C. not seen before D. never explained
64. According to the passage, the Mississippi River was

A. one of the boundaries of a region where new agricultural settlement took place
B. a major source of water for agricultural crops

C. the primary route by which agricultural crops were transported
D. a main source of power for most agricultural machinery
SECTION B (2 points)

I. Finish each of the sentence below in such that it means the same as the sentence printed before it.

1. The car costs too much. I can’t afford it.

=> If the_______________________________________________________.
2. “Why don’t we go out and have a drink?” said David

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4. He has been working very hard for years. However, he has not been promoted.
=> No matter ____________________________________________________.
5. It is not worth trying to explain anything to Johnny.

=> It is a waste___________________________________________________.

II. In about 140 words, write a paragraph about what kind of job you would like to do after you finish
your education?

The cues below may be useful to your writing:
- Name of the job

- Reasons that make you like the job
+ benefits of the job

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ANSWER KEYS

1-B 17-C 33-D 49-A

2-C 18-D 34-D 50-A

3-D 19-A 35-D 51-D

4-A 20-C 36-B 52-D

5-B 21-B 37-B 53-B

6-A 22-D 38-D 54-C

7-C 23-A 39-A 55-A

8-D 24-A 40-B 56-A

9-B 25-C 41-A 57-C

10-C 26-D 42-C 58-D

11-D 27-D 43-D 59-B

12-A 28-A 44-A 60-D

13-C 29-B 45-B 61-A

14-D 30-D 46-C 62-C

15-A 31-B 47-D 63-C

16-B 32-D 48-C 64-A

PHẦN TỰ LUẬN (2Đ)
I. Viết lại câu: (0.5 đ)

1. => If the car didn’t cost too much/ cost less, I could/ would be able to manage it.
2. => David suggested going out and having a drink.

3. => It is said that many species of animals and plants are in danger of extinction.
4. => No matter how hard he has been working for years, he has not been promoted.
5. => It is a waste of time to try to/ and explain anything to Johnny.

II. Viết theo topic: (1.5 đ)
- Ideas

- coherence

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- correct grammar

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO HÀ TĨNH
TRƯỜNG THPT LÝ CHÍNH THẮNG

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
(Đề thi có 06 trang)

KỲ THI THỬ TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THƠNG QUỐC GIA
Mơn Tiếng Anh - Năm học 2015 – 2016

Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút

Họ, tên thí sinh: ...
Số báo danh: ...
SECTION A (8 points)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. lean B. teammate C. beacon D. overhead

Question 2: A. booked B. missed C. described D. pronounced

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following question.

Question 3: A. capture B. ensure C. pleasure D. picture
Question 4: A. particular B. circumstancesC. advertisementD. environment
Question 5: A. psychiatryB. inexpensive C. patriotic D. scientific

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.

Question 6: Children enjoy telling and listening to ghosts stories, especially on Halloween night.
 A B C D

Question 7: We had better to review this chapter carefully because we will have some questions on
A B C D

it on our test tomorrow.

Question 8: Professor Jones said that a good way to improve your language are learning to practise
A B C D
it.

Question 9: Helen likes to listen to music, to go to the cinema, to chat on the phone and going 
 A B C D

shopping.

Question 10: Many people have found the monotonous buzzing of the vuvuzela in the

A B C
Cup matches so annoyed.

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Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.

Question 11: People _________can speak English can be understood in many countries.

A. whose B. who C. whom D. which

Question 12: If she ________ sick, she would have gone out with me to the party.
A. wasn’t B. hadn’t been C. hasn’t been D. weren’t
Question 13: ________you do better work than this, you won't pass the exam

A. If B. Although C. When D. Unless

Question 14: Nam’s score on the test is the highest in the class; he _________ hard last night.
A. should have studied B. may have to study

C. must have studied D. could have studied

Question 15: The government travel health advisory body recommends that pregnant women should
“consider _________ travel” to areas where Zika outbreaks are currently reported.

A. to avoid B. avoiding C. being avoided D. avoid

Question 16: I’d prefer to do it _________ myself, because other people make me nervous.
A. on B. in C. by D. at

Question 17: After John _________ a rough outline of the model, he will begin painting.
A. had drawn B. has drawn C. has been drawn D. is drawing.

Question 18: To our surprise, the so-called cheap shop was ________ was expected.

A. as twice as expensive B. expensive as twice as

C. twice as expensive as D. as expensive as twice

Question 19: The picture is _________; the thief will be most disappointed when he tries to sell it

A. invalid B. priceless C. worthless D. unprofitable

Question 20: We regret to tell you that the materials you have ordered are ________
A. out of work B. out of stock C. out of order. D. out of reach

Question 21: Sir Bobby Charton scored so many goals for Manchester United that no players of the
club have ________ him so far.

A. come up with B. caught up with C. put up with D. look up to
Question 22: We bought some __________

A. old lovely German glasses B. German old lovely glasses

C. German lovely old glasses D. lovely old German glasses

Question 23: Toxic chemicals in the air and land, contaminated water and increased water temperatures have
also driven many spices to the verge _________ extinction.

A. for B. in C. to D. of

Question 24: If you run _________Nam, give him my best wishes.

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Question 25: The primary causes of species extinction result _________habitat destruction, commercial
exploitation and pollution.

A. in B. of C. for D. from

Question 26:

________successful 'hydrogen bomb' test when many countries reacted with 
condemnation and suspicion

A. Hardly North Korea had claimed B. Hardly had North Korea claimed

C. No sooner North Korea had claimed D. No sooner had North Korea claimed
Question 27: People who suffer from lung _________ should not smoke.

A. disease B. sickness C. illness D. ill health

Question 28: Nga: “Do you think that we should use public transportation to protect our environment?”
Nam: “ _________”

A. Yes, it’s an absurd idea. B. Well, that’s very surprising.
C. Of course not. You bet ! D. There’s no doubt about it
Question 29: “ Happy New Year! “ “_________”

A. Thank you, I am very happy to hear that.
B. Thank you, I am too.

C. Thank you, the same to you.

D. Thank you. I wish you a happy birthday.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s)CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 30: Lack of water and nutrients has i m p e d e d the growth of these cherry tomato plants.
A. promoted B. assisted C. realized D. prevented

Question 31: I take my hat off to all those people who worked hard to get the contract.
A. respect B. discourage C. detest D. dislike

Question 32: The sale of drugs is controlled by law in most countries.
A. permitted B. restricted C. illegal D. binding

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 33 to 42.

TRAFFIC LIGHTS

The first traffic signal was invented by a railway signaling engineer. It was installed (33) ___ the Houses
of Parliament in 1868. It (34)_____ like any railway signal of the time, and was operated by gas. (35)
____, it exploded and killed a policeman, and the accident discouraged further development until cars
became common.

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junction between St. James’s Street and Piccadilly, in 1925. Automatic signals were installed (40) ____
year later.

In the past, traffic lights were special. In New York, some lights had a statue on top. In Los Angeles the
lights did not just change silently, but would ring bells to (41) _____ the sleeping motorists of the 1930s.

These are gone and have been (42) ____ by standard models which are universally adopted.

Question 33: A. outside B. out C.out of D. outdoors

Question 34: A. resembled B. looked C. showed D. seemed
Question 35: A. However B. Therefore C. Although D. Despite
Question 36: A. New B. Recent C. Modern D. Late

Question 37: A. by B. with C. through D. in

Question 38: A. middle B. heart C. focus D. halfway
Question 39: A. show B. appear C. happen D. become
Question 40: A. a B. in the C. in a D. the

Question 41: A. rise B. raise C. wake D. get up

Question 42: A. reproduced B. replaced C. removed D. remained

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the 
correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 52.

Human Nutrition is the study of how food affects the health and survival of the human body. Human
beings require food to grow, reproduce, and maintain good health. Without food, our bodies could not stay
warm, build or repair tissue, or maintain the heartbeat. Eating the right foods can help us avoid certain
diseases or recover faster when illness occurs. These and other important functions are fueled by chemical
substances in our food called nutrients. Nutrients are classified as carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins,
minerals, and water.

When we eat a meal, nutrients are released from food through digestion. Digestion begins in the mouth 
by the action of chewing and the chemical activity of saliva, a watery fluid that contains enzymes, certain

proteins that help break down food. Further digestion occurs as food travels through the stomach and the
small intestine, where digestive enzymes and acids liquefy food and muscle contractions push it along the
digestive tract. Nutrients are absorbed from the inside of the small intestine into the bloodstream and
carried to the sites in the body where they are needed. At these sites, several chemical reactions occur,
which ensures the growth and function of body tissues. The parts of foods that are not absorbed continue to
move down the intestinal tract and are eliminated from the body as feces.

Once digested, carbohydrates, proteins, and fats provide the body with the energy it needs to maintain 
its many functions. Scientists measure this energy in kilocalories, the amount of energy needed to raise one
kilogram of water one degree Celsius. In nutrition discussions, scientists use the term calorie instead of
kilocalorie as the standard unit of measure in nutrition.

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and do not need to be obtained from food. Examples include cholesterol, a fatlike substance present in all
animal cells. Essential nutrients must be obtained from food sources, because the body either does not
produce them or produces them in amounts too small to maintain growth and health. Essential nutrients
include water, carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, and minerals.

An individual needs varying amounts of each essential nutrient, depending upon such factors as gender
and age. Specific health conditions, such as pregnancy, breast-feeding, illness, or drug use, make unusual
demands on the body and increase its need for nutrients. Dietary guidelines, which take many of these 
factors into account, provide general guidance in meeting daily nutritional needs.

From “Human Nutrition” by Worthington-Roberts, Bonnie, Microsoft ® Student 2009.
Question 43: The first paragraph mainly discusses ______.

A. chemical substances in our food

B. a variety of essential nutrients to human beings
C. the importance of food to human beings

D. the study of human nutrition

Question 44: The word “released” in the second paragraph mostly means “ ”
A. refused B. produced C. expressed D. renewed
Question 45: Which of the following is NOT true about the process of digestion

A. The small intestine covers the whole digestive system.
B. The small intestine helps the body absorb nutrients.
C. Nutrients are carried to different sites in the body

D. Saliva plays an important role in the first stage of digestion

Question 46: The word “maintain” in the paragraph is closest meaning to “ ”
A. obtain B. provide C. keep performing D. carry on making
Question 47: According to the passage, nutrients are absorbed ______.

A. over the whole body B. in the mouth
C. in the stomach D. in the small intestine

Question 48: According to the passage, which of the following provides energy for the body?
A. Proteins, fats, and minerals

B. Carbohydrates, proteins, and fats
C. Carbohydrates, minerals, and water
D. Proteins, vitamins, and carbohydrates

Question 49: In nutrition discussions, the standard unit used to measure nutrients is ________.
A. kilocalorie B. kilogram C. calorie D. gram

Question 50: The word “which” in the last paragraph refers to______.

A. general guidance B. unusual demands C. dietary guidelines D. nutritional needs
Question 51: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?

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B. The body’s need of nutrients
C. The effects of food on the body
D. Food sources from animals

Question 52: Through the passage, the author provides the readers with _______.
A. instructions B. some information C. some proposalD. orders

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 53: She is a very generous old woman. She has given most of her wealth to a charity 
organization.

A. mean B. kind C. hospitable D. amicable

Question 54: After five days on trial, the court found him innocent of the crime and he was released.
A. guilty B. naive C. benevolent D. innovative

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 55 to 64.

Very few people in the modern world obtain their food supply by hunting and gathering in the natural
environment surrounding their homes. This method of harvesting from nature's provision is the oldest
known subsistence strategy and has been practised for at least the last two million years. It was, indeed, the
only way to obtain food until rudimentary farming and the domestication of wild animals were introduced
about 10,000 years ago.

Because hunter-gatherers have fared poorly in comparison with their agricultural cousins, their
numbers have dwindled, and they have been forced to live in marginal environments, such as deserts and
arctic wastelands. In higher latitudes, the shorter growing seasons have restricted the availability of plant
life. Such conditions have caused a greater dependence on hunting, and on fishing along the coasts and
waterways. The abundance of vegetation in the lower latitudes of the tropics, on the other hand, has
provided a greater opportunity for gathering a variety of plants. In short, the environmental differences
have restricted the diet and have limited possibilities for the development of subsistence societies.

Contemporary hunter-gatherers may help us understand our prehistoric ancestors. We know from the
observation of modern hunter-gatherers in both Africa and Alaska that a society based on hunting and
gathering must be very mobile. While the entire community camps in a central location, a smaller party
harvests the food within a reasonable distance from the camp. When the food in the area has become
exhausted, the community moves on to exploit another site. We also notice seasonal migration patterns
evolving for most hunter-gatherers, along with a strict division of labor between the sexes. These patterns
of behavior may be similar to those practised by mankind during the Paleolithic Period.

Question 55: A typical feature of both modern and prehistoric hunter-gatherers is that ____________.
A. they don't have a healthy and balanced diet B. they live in the forests for all their life

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Question 56: The word "marginal" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ____________.
A. suburban B. disadvantaged C. forgotten D. abandoned

Question 57: According to the passage, studies of contemporary subsistence societies can provide a 
_________.

A. deeper insight into the dry-land farming B.further understanding of modern subsistence
societies

C. broader vision of prehistoric natural environments D. further understanding of prehistoric times

Question 58: According to the passage, subsistence societies depend mainly on ____________.

A. agricultural products B. nature's provision C. farming methods D. hunter-gatherers' tools
Question 59: According to the author, most contemporary and prehistoric hunter-gatherers share
___________.

A. only the way of duty division B. some restricted daily rules
C. some methods of production D. some patterns of behavior

Question 60: Which of the following would serve as the best title of the passage?

A. Hunter-gatherers: Always on the Move B. Evolution of Humans' Farming Methods
C. Hunter-gatherers and Subsistence Societies D. A Brief History of Subsistence Farming
 Question 61: In the lower latitudes of the tropics, hunter- gatherers ____________.

A. have better food gathering from nature B. live along the coasts and waterways for fishing
C. harvest shorter seasonal crops D. can free themselves from hunting

Question 62: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned?
A. The environmental differences produce no effect on subsistence societies.
B. Hunting or fishing develops where there are no or short growing seasons.
C. The number of hunter-gatherers decreases where farming is convenient.

D. Harvesting from the natural environment had existed long before farming was taken up.
 Question 63: The word "conditions" in the second paragraph refers to ____________.

A. the situations in which hunter-gatherers hardly find anything to eat
B. the places where plenty of animals and fish can be found

C. the environments where it is not favorable for vegetation to grow

D. the situations in which hunter-gatherers can grow some crops

Question 64: The word "domestication" in the first paragraph mostly means ____________. 
A. making wild animals used to living with and working for humans

B. adapting animals to suit a new working environment

C. hatching and raising new species of wild animals in the home
D. teaching animals to do a particular job or activity in the home
SECTION B (2 points)

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Question 1: People believe that the Chinese invented paper in 105 A.D.

Paper _____________________________________________________________
Question 2: “You didn’t pay attention to what I said,” the teacher said to him

The teacher accused _________________________________________________
Question 3: It was such a boring film that we left before the end.

The film __________________________________________________________
Question 4: Jenny finds it very much relaxing to listen to this wonderful type of music.

It’s very much _____________________________________________________
Question 5: I'd never seen such a gigantic fish before!

Never ____________________________________________________________

II. In about 140 words, write a paragraph about the advantages of the Internet. Write your
paragraph on your answer sheet.

The following prompts might be helpful to you.
- A source of information

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA MÔN TIẾNG ANH
Năm học 2015 - 2016

SECTION A (8 points)

Câu Mã đề 223 Mã đề 224 Mã đề 232 Mã đề 242

Question 1 D B A A

Question 2 C B B B

Question 3 B D D A

Question 4 B C B C

Question 5 A B D A

Question 6 B C C A

Question 7 A B A B

Question 8 C C A A

Question 9 D C C C

Question 10 D B A B

Question 11 B B A C

Question 12 B D A B

Question 13 D D D A

Question 14 C C C C

Question 15 B D B D

Question 16 C B B B

Question 17 B C D C

Question 18 C D C C

Question 19 C C B D

Question 20 B D C B

Question 21 B A B A

Question 22 D B C A

Question 23 D A C A

Question 24 C B B B

Question 25 D A B D

Question 26 B C D B

Question 27 C A D D

Question 28 D A C C

Question 29 C B D A

Question 30 D A B A

Question 31 A C C C

Question 32 B B D A

Question 33 A C C D

Question 34 B B D C

Question 35 A A A B

Question 36 C C B B

Question 37 A D A A

Question 38 A B B B

Question 39 B C A A

Question 40 A C C C

Question 41 C D A D

Question 42 B B A D

Question 43 C A B B

Question 44 B A A B

Question 45 A A C D

Question 46 C B B C

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Question 48 B B B C

Question 49 C D A B

Question 50 C C C C

Question 51 D A D C

Question 52 B A B B

Question 53 A C C B

Question 54 A A C D

Question 55 D D D D

Question 56 B C B C

Question 57 D B B D

Question 58 B B A B

Question 59 D A C C

Question 60 C B D D

Question 61 A A D C

Question 62 A C B D

Question 63 C D B A

Question 64 A D A B

SECTION B (2 points)

I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. Write
your answers on your answer sheet - (0.5 points – each correct answer: 0.1 point).

Question 1: Paper is believed to have been invented by the Chinese in 105 A.D.
Question 2: The teacher accused him of not paying attention to what he had said
Question 3: The film was so boring that we left before the end

Question 4: It’s very much relaxing for Jenny to listen to this wonderful type of music
Question 5: Never had I seen such a gigantic fish before

II. In about 140 words, write a paragraph about the advantages of the Internet. Write your
paragraph on your answer sheet - (1.5 points)

Marking scheme:

The impression mark given is based on the following scheme:

1. Content: 50% of total mark: a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate

2. Language: 30% of total mark: a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English
language gifted upper-secondary school students

3. Presentation: 20% of total mark: coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level of English
language gifted upper-secondary school students.

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN HÀ TĨNH

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC

Mơn: TIẾNG ANH

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Họ, tên thí sinh:... Mã đề thi 
247

Số báo danh:...

ĐỀ THI GỒM 80 CÂU (TỪ QUESTION 1 ĐẾN QUESTION 80)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the 
following questions.

Question 1. He tries to _______ himself with everyone by paying them compliments.
A. gratify B. please C. ingratiate D. commend

Question 2. As he made no ______ to our quarrel, I assumed he had forgiven me.
A. statement B. mention C. reference D. comment

Question 3. It was found that he lacked the ________ to pursue a difficult task to the very end.
A. persuasion B. commitment C. engagement D. obligation

Question 4. The newspaper did not mention the ______ of the damage caused by the fire.
A. range B. extent C. amount D. quality

Question 5. Frankly, I'd rather you _______ anything about it for the time being.
A. don't do B. hadn't done C. didn't do D. haven't done

Question 6. Since they aren't answering their telephone, they _____

A. must have left B. should have left C. need have left D. can have left

Question 7. He can not ________ ignorance as his excuse; he should have known what was happening in 
his own department.

A. insist B. plead C. refer D. defend

Question 8. I was angry when you saw me because I ______ with my sister.

A. have been arguing B. had been arguing C. argued D. would argue

Question 9. Luckily, I _______ a new pair of sunglasses as I found mine at the bottom of a bag.
A. needn't have bought B. needed not to buy C. didn't need to by D. hadn't to buy

Question 10. The book would have been perfect ________ the ending.

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Question 11. I'm __________ my brother is.

A. nowhere like so ambitious B. nothing near as ambitious as

C. nothing as ambitious than D. nowhere near as ambitious as

Question 12. _________ I'd like to help you out, I'm afraid I just haven't got any spare money at the 
moment.

A. Even B. Despite C. Much as D. Try as

Question 13. Hardly ________ of the paintings at the gallery were for sale

A. none B. few C. some D. any

Question 14. Mr. Nixon refused to answer the questions on the ________ that the matter was confidential.
A. reasons B. excuses C. grounds D. foundation

Question 15. William is an authority _______ medieval tapestries.

A. on B. with C. about D. in

Question 16. They attempted to __________ the painting to its original condition.
A. restore B. renovate C. repair D. refurbish

Question 17. Jane's very modest, always ________ her success.

A. playing down B. turning around C. keeping down D. pushing back

Question 18. I feel _________ to inform the committee that a number of members are very unhappy with 
the decision.

A. my duty B. it my duty C. this my duty D. that my duty

Question 19. I'm sure when you've stopped looking for your keys, they'll _____ up somewhere.

A. take B. look C. turn D. pull

Question 20. It's very easy to _______ over when the snow is hard.

A. slide B. skid C. skate D. slip

Question 21. All things_________, he is the best president we are likely to get.
A. considered B. thought C. taken D. added

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Question 23 Harry:" _______"

Kate: "Yes. I'd like to buy a computer."

A. Do you look for something? B. Good morning. Can I help you?

C. Excuse me. Do you want to buy it? D. Can you help me buy something?

Question 24. Peter: “I’ve been awarded a scholarship to study in America.”
Kate: “Uh, really? __________!”

A. Take care of yourself B. Congratulations

C. You are always lucky D. Lucky as you are

Question 25. Tom:" Would you take this along to the office for me?" 
Jerry:"_________"

A. Never mind B. Yes, with pleasure C. Yes, that's right D. Not at all

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is closest in meaning to the
underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 26. The famous racehorse Secretariat had to be destroyed because of a painful, incurable hoof
disease.

A. disabling B. vexatious C. dangerous D. irreparable

Question 27. In most countries, compulsory military service does not apply to women.
A. superior B. mandatory C. beneficial D. constructive

Question 28. Scientists warn of the impending extinction of many species of plants and animals.
A. irrefutable B. imminent C. formidable D. absolute

Question 29. The aircraft carrier is indispensable in naval operations against sea or shore based enemies.
A. unique B. novel C. exotic D. vital

Question 30. The use of lasers in surgery has become relatively commonplace in recent years.
A. absolutely B. relevantly C. almost D. comparatively

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the
position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

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Question 32. A. Forgettable B. Philosophy C. Humanism D. Objectively

Question 33. A. Disappear B. Arrangement C. Opponent D. Contractual

Question 34. A. Respectable B. Affectionate C. Occasional D. Kindergarten

Question 35. A. Environmental B. Conservatively C. Approximately D. Considerable

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction

Question 36. Ancient people made a clay pottery because they needed it for their survival.

A B C D

Question 37. Full time jobs for men are declining, while more women are finding part-time or full-time 
work.

A B

The result is declining social status for men so they lose their role as the sole finance provider.

C D

Question 38. In just three months H.G. Wells wrote the famous classic The Time Machine for what

A B C

he won a Newberry Caldecot award.

Question 39. Students s up p o s e to read a l l t h e qu e s t i o n s carefully and find o u t the answers to t h e m .

A B C D

Question 40. Food prices have raised so rapidly in the past few months that some families have been

A B C

forced to alter their eating habits.

D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to 
each of the following questions.

Question 41. Considering that we travelled right across the country, the bus ticket was surprisingly 
reasonable.

A. Because we were able to move right through the country, the price of the bus ticket didn't bother us.

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we could find.

C. The most reasonable way to go right across the country was by bus, so we bought ourselves a ticket.

D. As the bus brought us right across the country, we found the price of the ticket to be cheaper than its
value to us.

Question 42. When he called to tell me that he was studying, I didn't believe him because I could hear the 
noise of a party in the background.

A. I didn't believe that he could study properly with the noise of a party in the background and I told
him that when he telephoned.

B. Although he rang me to tell me that he was studying, I couldn't hear what he was saying properly
because of my unbelievably noisy party.

C. Because of the sounds of a party I heard in the background when he phoned, I didn't believe his
claim that he was studying.

D. Though he was studying when he called, I thought he was lying because in the background there
were party-like sounds.

Question 43. I feel completely exhausted when I've listened to Marion for half-an-hour.

A. It is completely exhausting after half-an-hour I listening to Marion.

B. Half-an-hour listening to Marion leaves me feeling completely exhausted.

C. Feeling completely exhausted, I spent half-an-hour listening to Marion.

D. When I've listened to Marion for half-an-hour, she feels exhausting completely.

Question 44. They were exposed to biased information, so they didn't know the true story.

A. If they got unbiased information, they could know the true story.

B. If they had unbiased the information, they could have known the true story.

C. If they had been exposed to unbiased information, they would have known the true story.

D. If they have exposed to the unbiased information, they could have seen the true story.

Question 45. It was not until after I had got home that I realized I had not set the burglar alarm in the 
office.

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B. Fortunately, I realized that I hadn't set the burglar alarm just before I left for home; otherwise, I
would have had to travel all the way back to the office.

C. I didn't turn the burglar alarm on before I left the office, but I only became aware of this after I'd
arrived home.

D. I wish I had realized before I arrived home that I hadn't turned on the burglar alarm in the office;
then it would have been easier to go and set it.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best forms from the 
given words.

Question 46. They/ leave/ early/ not catch/ traffic.

A. They left early so that not to catch in the traffic.

B. They left early to avoid being caught in the traffic.

C. They left early so as to not get caught in the traffic.

D. They left early in order to not get caught in the traffic.

Question 47. It/ not easy/ remain/ tranquil/ events/ suddenly/ change/ life.

A. It is not easy remain tranquil when events suddenly change life.

B. It is not easy to remain tranquil when events suddenly change your life.

C. It is not easy remaining tranquil when events suddenly change your life.

D. It is not easy to remain tranquil if events suddenly change life.

Question 48. You/ should/ doctor/ see/ that cut.

A. You should have a doctor seen to that cut.

B. You should get a doctor seen to that cut.

C. You should have a doctor see to that cut.

D. You should ask a doctor see to that cut.

Question 49. She/ urge/ her husband/ accept/ post.

A. She urged that her husband accept the post.

B. She urged her husband accept the post.

C. She urged her husband accepted the post.

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Question 50. Committee members/ resent/ treat/ that.

A. The committee members resented to treat as that.

B. The committee members resented to be treated as that.

C. The committee members resented to treat like that.

D. The committee members resented being treated like that.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the 
correct answer to each of the questions from 51 to 60.

Most people can remember a phone number for up to thirty seconds. When this short amount of time
elapses, however, the numbers are erased from the memory. How did the information get there in the first
place? Information that makes its way to the short term memory (STM) does so via the sensory storage
area. The brain has a filter which only allows stimuli that is of immediate interest to pass on to the STM,
also known as the working memory.

There is much debate about the capacity and duration of the short term memory. The most accepted theory
comes from George A. Miller, a cognitive psychologist who suggested that humans can remember
approximately seven chunks of information. A chunk is defined as a meaningful unit of information, such
as a word or name rather than just a letter or number. Modern theorists suggest that one can increase the
capacity of the short term memory by chunking, or classifying similar information together. By organizing
information, one can optimize the STM, and improve the chances of a memory being passed on to long
term storage.

When making a conscious effort to memorize something, such as information for an exam, many people
engage in "rote rehearsal". By repeating something over and over again, one is able to keep a memory alive.

Unfortunately, this type of memory maintenance only succeeds if there are no interruptions. As soon as a
person stops rehearsing the information, it has the tendency to disappear. When a pen and paper are not
handy, people often attempt to remember a phone number by repeating it aloud. If the doorbell rings or the
dog barks to come in before a person has the opportunity to make a phone call, he will likely forget the
number instantly. Therefore, rote rehearsal is not an efficient way to pass information from the short term
to long term memory. A better way is to practice "elaborate rehearsal". This involves assigning semantic
meaning to a piece of information so that it can be filed along with other pre-existing long term memories.

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The more cues a person is given (such as pictures), the more likely a memory can be retrieved. This is why
multiple choice tests are often used for subjects that require a lot of memorization.

Question 51. According to the passage, how do memories get transferred to the STM?

A. They revert from the long term memory.

B. They are filtered from the sensory storage area.

C. They get chunked when they enter the brain.

D. They enter via the nervous system.

Question 52. The word elapses in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to:

A. passes B. adds up C. appears D. continues

Question 53. All of the following are mentioned as places in which memories are stored EXCEPT the:

A. STM B. long term memory C. sensory storage area D. maintenance area

Question 54. Why does the author mention a dog's bark?

A. To give an example of a type of memory

B. To provide a type of interruption

C. To prove that dogs have better memories than humans

D. To compare another sound that is loud like a doorbell

Question 55. How do theorists believe a person can remember more information in a short time?

A. By organizing it B. By repeating it

C. By giving it a name D. By drawing it

Question 56. The author believes that rote rotation is:

A. the best way to remember something B. more efficient than chunking

C. ineffective in the long run D. an unnecessary interruption

Question 57. The word elaborate in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to:

A. complex B. efficient C. pretty D. regular

Question 58. Which of the following is NOT supported by the passage?

A. The working memory is the same as the short term memory.

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C. Cues help people to recognize information.

D. Multiple choice exams are the most difficult.

Question 59. The word cues in the passage is closest in meaning to

A. questions B. clues C. images D. tests

Question 60. Which of the following best provides the important information in the bold sentence from 
the passage.

Incorrect answer choices leave out essential information or change the meaning of it

A. Prompting is the easiest way to retrieve short term memory after an extended period of time.

B. A memory can be retrieved by prompting, in a case where it has been rarely used.

C. It's easier to remember short term memories than long term memories due to regular prompts.

D. Recalling a long term memory that is often used is easy, while forgotten memories often require
prompting.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the 
correct answer to each of the questions from 61 to 70.

The lack of printing regulations and the unenforceability of British copyright law in the American
colonies made it possible for colonial printers occasionally to act as publishers. Although they rarely
undertook major publishing project because it was difficult to sell books as cheaply as they could be
imported from Europe, printers in Philadelphia did publish work that required only small amounts of
capital, paper, and type. Broadsides could be published with minimal financial risk. Consisting of only one
sheet of paper and requiring small amounts of type, broadsides involved lower investments of capital than

longer works. Furthermore, the broadside format lent itself to subjects of high, if temporary, interest,
enabling them to meet with ready sale. If the broadside printer miscalculated, however, and produced a
sheet that did not sell, it was not likely to be a major loss, and the printer would know this immediately,
There would be no agonizing wait with large amounts of capital tied up, books gathering dust on the
shelves, and creditors impatient for payment.

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By far, the most appealing publishing investments were to be found in small books that had proven to
be steady sellers, providing a reasonably reliable source of income for the publisher. They would not, by
nature, be highly topical or political, as such publications would prove of fleeting interest. Almanacs,
annual publications that contained information on astronomy and weather patterns arranged according to
the days, week, and months of a given year, provided the perfect steady seller because their information
pertained to the locale in which they would be used

Question 61. Which aspect of colonial printing does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Laws governing the printing industry. B. Competition among printers

C. Types of publications produced D. Advances in printing technology

Question 62. According to the passage, why did colonial printers avoid major publishing projects?

A. Few colonial printers owned printing machinery that was large enough to handle major projects.

B. There was inadequate shipping available in the colonies.

C. Colonial printers could not sell their work for a competitive price.

D. Colonial printers did not have the skills necessary to undertake large publishing projects.

Question 63. Broadsides could be published with little risk to colonial printers because they

A. required a small financial investment and sold quickly

B. were in great demand in European markets

C. were more popular with colonists than chapbooks and pamphlets

D. generally dealt with topics of long-term interest to many colonists

Question 64. The word "they" refers to

A. chapbooks B. tales C. jokes D. pages

Question 65. The word "antecedent" is closest in meaning to

A. predecessor B. format C. imitation D. component

Question 66. Chapbooks produced in colonial America were characterized by

A. fine paper B. cardboard covers

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Question 67. The word "appealing" is closest in meaning to

A. dependable B. respectable C. enduring D. attractive

Question 68. What were "steady sellers"?

A. Printers whose incomes were quite large

B. People who traveled from town to town selling Books and pamphlets

C. Investors who provided reliable financial Support for new printers

D. Publications whose sales were usually consistent from year to year

Question 69. The word "locale" is closest in meaning to

A. topic B. season C. interest D. place

Question 70. All of the following are defined in the passage EXCEPT

A "Broadsides" B. "catechisms"

C "chapbooks” D. "Almanacs"

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word for each of the blanks from 71 to 80

The texting pigeons

Not everybody recognises the benefits of new developments in communications technology. Indeed,
some people fear that text messaging may actually be having a negative (71)_____ on young people's
communication and language skills, especially when we hear that primary school children may be at
(72)______ of becoming addicted to the habit. So widespread has texting become, however, that even
pigeons have started doing it. (73) _____, in this case, it's difficult to view the results as anything but
positive.

Twenty of the birds are about to (74) ______ to the skies with the task of measuring air pollution,
each (75) _____ with sensor equipment and a mobile phone. The (76) _____ made by the sensors will be
automatically (77) _____ into text messages and beamed to the Internet - where they will appear on a

dedicated 'pigeon blog'.

The birds will also each have a GPS receiver and a camera to capture aerial photos, and researchers
are building a tiny 'pigeon kit' containing all these (78)_____. Each bird will carry these in a miniature
backpack, (79) _____ , that is, from the camera, which will hang around its neck.

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Question 71. A. result B. outcome C. effect D conclusion

Question 72. A. danger B. threat C. risk D. peril

Question 73. A. Therefore B. What's more C. Whereas D. That is

Question 74. A. make B. launch C. reach D. take

Question 75. A. armed B. loaded C. granted D. stocked
Question 76. A. studies B. readings C. reviews D. inquiries
Question 77. A. adapted B. converted C. revised D. applied
Question 78. A. gadgets B. utensils C. appliances D. implements
Question 79. A. instead B. except C. apart D. besides

Question 80. A. shape B. way C. form D. size

ĐÁP ÁN

Câu

Mã đề

Câu

Mã đề

247 578 749 963 247 578 749 963

1 C D B C 41 D B C A

2 C C A C 42 C B A B

3 B A D B 43 B A B C

4 B D B D 44 C C B D

5 C A A A 45 C C C A

6 A D C B 46 B C C D

7 B B A B 47 B C C B

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9 C D B C 49 A A D B

10 A D D C 50 D A A C

11 D D A B 51 B B B C

12 C C C B 52 A D B B

13 D B C C 53 D D A B

14 C C A A 54 B D C C

15 A C A D 55 A B C A

16 A B B C 56 C A D B

17 A A B C 57 A A C A

18 B D C A 58 D B B D

19 C B A A 59 B C C B

20 D A D A 60 D D C A

21 A C A B 61 C A D C

22 D A D D 62 C D C A

23 B D C D 63 A B A D

24 B B D D 64 A B D B

25 B D C B 65 A B A D

26 D A A D 66 B C C D

27 B C A C 67 D C C C

28 B C A A 68 D B A B

29 D A B D 69 D B A C

30 D A C A 70 B C A C

31 D B D B 71 C A B D

32 C B A B 72 C B D B

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34 D A B A 74 D C D D

35 A D B D 75 A A B D

36 A C B C 76 B D D A

37 C C C D 77 B C B C

38 C B C C 78 A D B C

39 A D B A 79 C C D A

40 A A B A 80 C A D A

SỞ GD – ĐT HÀ TĨNH
TRƯỜNG THPT N.T. MINH KHAI

ĐỀ THI THỦ THPT QUỐC GIA LẦN 1 NĂM 2015
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH

Họ và tên:

……….
Số báo danh:

……….

ĐỀ THI GỒM 80 CÂU (TỪ QUESTION 1 ĐẾN QUESTION 80) CÓ 06 TRANG

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose
the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 1 to 10.

English in Europe

Whoever learns English knows that it is an international language or a lingua franca. English has without a
____1____become the second language of Europe and the world. European countries which have most
____2____ assimilated English into daily life are England's neighbours in Northern Europe: Ireland, the
Netherlands, Sweden, Norway, and the _____3____ of Scandanavia.

The influence of Great Britain and the United States on international relations and political affairs for the
past century has ensured acceptance and proliferation of English as the main language spoken in many

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countries. Take the Netherlands for example. The situation is so ____4____ that any visitor to this country
will soon be _ 5____ of the pressure of English on daily life: television, radio and print _____6____ it
into every home and the schoolyard ___7___ of children; advertisers use it to ___8____ up their
message, journalists take refuge in it when their home-bred skills 9 them. Increasingly one hears
the _ 10 that Dutch will give way to English as the national tongue within two or three generations ...

Question 1: A. fail B. doubt C. likelihood D. question

Question 2: A. lucrative B. dominant C. successful D. successfully

Question 3: A. rest B. leftovers C. remaining D. extra

Question 4: A. plain B. interesting C. blatant D. marked

Question 5: A. ignorant B. aware C. oblivious D. acquainted

Question 6: A. guide B. bring C. shift D. haul

Question 7: A. conversation B. head-to-head C. consultation D. dialogue

Question 8: A. life B. energy C. enthusiasm D. pep

Question 9: A. succeed B. fall C. fail D. fizzle

Question 10: A. feeling B. posture C. judgement D. view

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs 
correction in each of the following questions.

Question 11: After missing a term through illness, he had to work hard to catch with up the others.

A B C D

Question 12: This is the only place which we can obtain scientific information.

A B C D

Question 13: It was only when Mr Hoan announced the result did he know that he was the winner of the
contest.

A B C D

Question 14: The headmaster with over 70 teachers are ready to apply the new teaching methods 
focusing on

A B C D

learners.

Question 15: One of the worst disease that mankind has ever had is cancer.

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is 
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 16: Teacher shortages hinder new English training programmes carried out in Ho Chi Minh 
City.

A. facilitate B. prevent C. impede D. obstruct

Question 17: TPOTY is one of the world's most prestigious photography awards, receiving entries 
from nearly 100 countries annually.

A. distinguished B. renowned C. ordinary D. famed

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in 
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 18: When he won the first prize, he realised that this was the highest attainment of his life.

A. accomplishment B. task C. surprise D. shock

Question 19: According to scientists, it is possible that another Ice Age will soon be upon us.

A. some day B. now C. in the near future D. undoubtedly

Question 20: The value of an old item increases with time.

A. a facsimile B. a bonus C. an antique D. an original

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the 
correct answer to each of the questions from 21 to 30.

Ocean water plays an indispensable role in supporting life. The great ocean basins hold about
300 million cubic miles of water. From this vast amount, about 80,000 cubic miles of water are sucked
into the atmosphere each year by evaporation and returned by precipitation and drainage to the ocean.
More than 24,000 cubic miles of rain descend annually upon the continents. This vast amount is
required to replenish the lakes and streams, springs and water tables on which all flora and fauna
are dependent. Thus, the hydrosphere permits organic existence.

The hydrosphere has strange characteristics because water has properties unlike those of any
other liquid. One anomaly is that water upon freezing expands by about 9 percent, whereas most
liquids contract on cooling. For this reason, ice floats on water bodies instead of sinking to the bottom. If
the ice sank, the hydrosphere would soon be frozen solidly, except for a thin layer of surface melt water
during the summer season. Thus, all aquatic life would be destroyed and the interchange of warm and
cold currents, which moderates climate, would be notably absent.

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vast quantities of heat, thereby often preventing climatic extremes. In addition, water dissolves more
substances than any other liquid. It is this characteristic that helps make oceans a great storehouse for
minerals which have been washed down from the continents. In several areas of the world these
minerals are being commercially exploited. Solar evaporation of salt is widely practiced, potash is
extracted from the Dead Sea, and magnesium is produced from sea water along the American Gulf
Coast.

Question 21: The word "replenish" can best be replaced by .

A. replace B. fill again C. form D. evaporate

Question 22: According to the passage, fish can survive in the oceans because .

A. ice floats B. they do not need oxygen

C. evaporation and condensation create a water cycle D. there are currents in the ocean
Question 23: The author's main purpose in this passage is to .

A. explain how water is used in commerce and industry B. compare water with other liquids
C. describe the properties and uses of water D. illustrate the importance of conserving 
water

Question 24: The phrase "This vast amount" in line 4 refers to .

A. 300 million cubic miles of water B. 24,000 cubic miles of rain
C. 80,000 cubic miles of water D. 80,000 million cubic of water
Question 25: The author's tone in the passage can best be described as .

A. dispassionate B. dogmatic C. biased D. speculative

Question 26: According to the passage, the hydrosphere is NOT .

A. responsible for all forms of life B. that part of the earth covered by water
C. a source of natural resources D. in danger of freezing water

Question 27: The word "outstanding" is closest in meaning to .

A. important B. amusing C. exceptionally good D. special

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A. juxtaposition of true and untrue ideas B. comparison and contrast

C. hypothesis and proof D. general statements followed by examples
Question 30: Which of the following statements would be most likely to begin the paragraph 
immediately following the passage?

A. Another remarkably property of ice is its strength.
B. Magnesium is widely used in metallurgical processes.
C. Water has the ability to erode land.

D. Drought and flooding are two types of disasters associated with water.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in 
meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions.

Question 31: “Shall I bring you some food?” he said to me.

A. He advised me to bring some food. B. He invited me to eat some food.
C. He told me to bring him some food. D. He offered to bring me some food.
Question 32: People believe that there is another world after Death.

A. It is believed that there is another world after Death.
B. It was believed that there is another world after Death.
C. That there is another world after Death is believed by people.
D. There is believed to have another world after Death.

Question 33: What a pity I failed the writing test !

A. I wish I had passed the writing test. B. I wish I have passed the writing test.
C. I wish I will pass the writing test. D. I wish I pass the writing test.

Question 34: Jack has not had his hair cut for over four months.
A. It's over four months since Jack has his hair cut.

B. It's over four months since Jack has had his hair cut.
C. It's over four months since Jack had his hair cut.
D. It's over four months since Jack had had his hair cut.

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Question 36: She is too weak, she can't sit up and talk to you.
A. If she hadn't been too weak, she could sit up and talk to you.
B. If she weren't too weak, she could sit up and talk to you.
C. If she isn't too weak, she can sit up and talk to you.
D. If she wasn't too weak, she can sit up and talk to you.

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs 
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 37: A. mixed B. watched C. laughed D. wanted

Question 38: A. walks B. stops C. roofs D. plays

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word differs from the other 
three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 39: A. agree B. invent C. parent D. thirteen

Question 40: A. essential B. ability C. political D. entertain

Question 41: A. international B. television C. conversation D. disagree

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 42 to 50.

The cause of tooth decay is acid, which is produced by bacteria in the mouth. The acid removes
minerals from tooth enamel, allowing tooth decay to begin; the saliva in your mouth encourages
remineralization and neutralizes the acid. The rate at which bacteria in the mouth produce acid depends
on the amount of plaque on the teeth, the composition of the microbial flora, and whether the
bacteria of the plaque have been "primed" by frequent exposure to sugar. To keep your teeth
healthy, a regular dental hygiene program should be followed.

Removing plaque with a toothbrush and dental floss temporarily reduces the numbers of
bacteria in the mouth and thus reduces tooth decay. It also makes the surfaces of the teeth more
accessible, enabling saliva to neutralize acid and remineralize lesions. If fluoride is present in
drinking water when teeth are forming, some fluoride is incorporated into the enamel of the teeth,
making them more resistant to attack by acid. Fluoride toothpaste seems to act in another way,
by promoting the remineralization of early carious lesions.

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reduce your intake of sweet food. The least cavity-causing way to eat sweets is to have them with meals
and not between. The number of times you eat sweets rather than the total amount determines how
much harmful acid the bacteria in your saliva produce. But the amount of sweets influences the quality
of your saliva. Avoid, if you can, sticky sweets that stay in your mouth a long time. Also try to brush
and floss your teeth after eating sugary foods. Even rinsing your mouth with water is effective.
Whenever possible, eat foods with fiber, such as raw carrot sticks, apples, celery sticks, etc., that
scrape off plaque, acting as a toothbrush. Cavities can be greatly reduced if these rules are followed
when eating sweets.

Question 42: What does this passage mainly discuss?

A. Good nutrition C. Ways to keep your teeth healthy

B. Food with fiber D. Fluoridization and cavities

Question 43: According to the passage, all of the following statements about plaque are true EXCEPT 
.

A. It consists of acid producing bacteria.
B. It is not affected by eating sweets.

C. It can be removed from teeth by brushing and flossing.
D. It reduces the positive effect of saliva.

Question 44: We can infer from the passage that one benefit of fluoride to healthy teeth is that

A. It strengthens tooth enamel. B. It stimulates saliva production.

C. It makes teeth whiter. D. It is a replacement for brushing and flossing in 
dental care.

Question 45: The word "it" in line 7 refers to .

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Question 46: What can be concluded from the passage about sweets?
A. All sweets should be avoided.

B. Sweets should be eaten with care.

C. It is better to eat sweets a little at a time throughout the day.
D. Sticky sweets are less harmful than other sweets.

Question 47: The word "scrape off" in line 17 is closest in meaning to .

A. repel B. rub together with C. remove D. dissolve

Question 48: It can be inferred from the passage that foods with fiber are _ .

A. sugary B. expensive C. sticky D. abrasive

Question 49: According to the passage, the value of eating foods with fiber is that .

A. they contain Vitamin A. B. they are less expensive than a toothbrush.
C. they are able to remove the plaque from your teeth. D. they contain no sugar.

Question 50: The author of the passage states that the amount of acid produced by the bacteria in 
your saliva increases .

A. with the amount of sweets you eat. B. with the number of times you eat sweets.
C. if you eat sweets with your meals. D. if you eat sticky sweets.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct sentence that is made from 
the words given in each of the following questions.

Question 51: Developing countries/ need / do / research / find / solutions /agriculture problems.
A. Developing countries need doing research to find solutions to agriculture problems.

B. Developing countries need to do researching to find solutions to agriculture problems.

C. Developing countries need to do research to find solutions to agriculture problems.
D. Developing countries need doing research to finding solutions to agriculture problems.
Question 52: The boy / he / his father / homework / home / come / finish / last night.

A. The boy had finished his homework before his father came home last night.
B. His father came home before the boy had finished his homework last night.
C. Before his father had finished his homework, the boy came home last night.
D. Before the boy had come home, his father finished his homework last night.

Question 53: Tam / the novel / he / its ending / read / not remember / three times / however
A. Tam had read the novel three times; however, he can’t remember its ending.

B. Tam can’t remember its ending; however, he had read the novel three times.
C. Tam has read the novel three times; however, he can’t remember its ending.
D. However, Tam reads the novel three times, he can’t remember its ending.

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B. There are a number of measures that should be taken to protect endangered species.
C. There are a number of measures that should be take to protect endangered species.
D. There are a number of measures should take to protect endangered species.

Question 55: Say / English / be / important / be / of / all / most / the / language
A. English says to be most the important of all language.

B. English is said to be the language most important of all.
C. English is said to be the most important language of all.
D. All of the most important language is said to be English.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct sentence in each of the 
following questions.

Question 56: He promised to try his best _hard the work was.

A. however B. wherever C. whenever D. whatever

Question 57: His father often says that it is essential that he a practical goal to get.

A. set B. sets C. will set D. has

set
Question 58: The teacher advised him harder.

A. to study B. study C. studying D. studies

Question 59: I have two sisters, are working in New York.

A. all of them B. none of them C. two of whom D. both of

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Question 60: We would rather Tuyen late for school last Friday.

A. wasn't B. weren't C. hadn't been D. wouldn't

have been

Question 61: Ask her to leave.

A. when does she plan B. when she plans C. when did she plan D. when does 
she plans

Question 62: David in jail now if he had not trafficked with those gangsters in the past.

A. won't have been B. won't be C. wouldn't have been D. wouldn't be
Question 63: The problem was we thought at first.

A. more much serious than B. much more serious than C. much serious than D. seriouser 
than

Question 64: The little girl wouldn't go into the sea her father went, too.

A. except B. but C. also D. unless

Question 65: Whenever something goes wrong, everyone it on me.

A. charges B. blames C. insists D. accuses

Question 66: - Dung: “Thanks for the nice gift!” - Chuong: “ .”

A. You’re welcome. B. But do you know how much it costs?

C. In fact, I myself don’t like it. D. I’m glad you like it.

Question 67: A fire must have a readily available supply of oxygen. _, it will stop burning.

A. Consequently B. Furthermore C. Otherwise D. However

Question 68: Last year Mark earned _ his brother, who had a better position.

A. twice as much as B. twice more than C. twice as many as D. twice as more
as

Question 69: Tom didn’t do his homework, so the teacher became very angry. He his homework.

A. will have done B. must have done C. might have done D. should have 
done

Question 70: It is a .

A. blue sleeping polyester bag B. blue polyester sleeping bag
C. polyester sleeping blue bag D. sleeping blue polyester bag
Question 71: There was a sign, but Charles couldn’t what it said.

A. see off B. hang on C. make up D. make out

Question 72: The man is drinking orange juice is my eldest brother.

A. whom B. whose C. who D. which

Question 73: There isn't any sugar, I'm afraid. You'll have to it.

A. run out B. put up with C. do without D. make for.

Question 74:Ho Chi Minh City, the Pearl of the Far East, attracts many tourists every year.

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Question 75: "I'm so sorry I forgot your birthday!" - " "

A. Oh, not really! B. It's good of you to say so!

C. My pleasure! D. Oh, don't worry, there's always next year!

Question 76: A certificate from Ha Noi National University is a valuable _ .

A. examination B. qualification C. production D. paper

Question 77: By the time he for Paris, the contract will have completed.

A. has left B. will leave C. left D. leaves

Question 78: Our village had money available for education that the schools had to close.

A. so little B. such little C. so much D. such much

Question 79: Nobody is ready to go, ?

A. isn’t he B. are they C. is he D. aren’t they

Question 80: The firework went and lightened the sky with colors.

A. out B. off C. on D. away

TH
E
EN

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SỞ GD – ĐT HÀ TĨNH 
TRƯỜNG THPT N.T. MINH 
KHAI

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI THỬ KÌ THI QUỐC GIA NĂM
2015 Môn: TIẾNG ANH

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Câu số Mã đề thi Câu số Mã đề thi Câu số Mã đề thi

185 236 351 467 185 236 351 467 185 236 351 467

1 B A C D 31 D D A D 61 B C B A

2 D B C D 32 A C B B 62 D A B D

3 A B B C 33 A B D D 63 B A A B

4 D C C B 34 C C D B 64 D B B A

5 B A D C 35 D B C D 65 B D C D

6 B A C D 36 B D B D 66 D B D B

7 A B C D 37 D B D B 67 C C B D

8 D D D C 38 D B C A 68 A C C C

9 C C B A 39 C C D B 69 D A B D

10 D C B B 40 D D C D 70 B B A D

11 D B C C 41 B C B A 71 D B C C

12 C D A B 42 C B B B 72 C C D A

13 C B C B 43 B D B C 73 C C B B

14 B A C C 44 A C B A 74 B A C A

15 B A C B 45 C B B A 75 D D C B

16 A D B D 46 B D B B 76 B C B B

17 C B D D 47 C B D C 77 D C B C

18 A D B C 48 D D C B 78 A B A C

19 C B C A 49 C B B B 79 B A A B

20 C C B B 50 B C C A 80 B A C D

21 B C B B 51 C A A C

22 A B A A 52 A B C D

23 C A C D 53 C D B C

24 B C D C 54 B B A A

25 A A C B 55 C B C D

26 D A A A 56 A D C B

27 D C D B 57 A A B C

28 C A B D 58 A C C A

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<b>ANSWER KEYS</b>

<b>Question 26:</b>

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