Đề thi thử vào lớp 10 chuyên môn Tiếng Anh năm 2013 - 2014 THPT chuyên Quang Trung có đáp án - Đề số 20 | Tiếng Anh, Đề thi vào lớp 10 - Ôn Luyện

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UBND TỈNH BÌNH PHƯỚC KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 THPT CHUYÊN QUANG TRUNG

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO NĂM HỌC 2013-2014

Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH (chuyên)

Ngày thi: 30/06/2013.
(Đề thi này gồm có 06 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút.

Họ và tên thí sinh: ……….……….. Số báo danh: ………...
Chú ý: Thí sinh làm bài vào phiếu trả lời (có phát kèm đề).

A. PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM.

I. PHONETICS (1 pt)

1. Choose a word (A, B, C, D) that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others.(0.5 pt)

1. A. school B. food C. tooth D.flood

2. A. go B. got C. note D. so

3. A. life B. wife C. mine D. dinner

4. A. this B. there C. think D. though

5. A. invited B. visited C. wished D. rested

2. Choose the word (A, B, C, D) whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others. (0.5 pt)

6. A. harvest B. circumstances C. produce D. ceremony

7. A. research B. ability C. companion D. understand

8. A. primitive B. particular C. continuous D. connected

9. A. amount B. mental C. dependence D. opinion

10. A. section B. grammar C. unsuccessful D. demonstrate

II. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR. (5 pts)

Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes the sentences.

11. The shopping center was ______of people on the first day of the sales.

A. crowded B. full C. busy D. hurry

12. Hardly ______believes that.

A. somebody B. every body C. anybody D. all

13. I was ______ in the countryside and went to a village school.

A. brought up B. carried on C. given up D. taken up
14. We usually watch the news on TV because It is very ______.

A. information B. informative C. formal D. informal
15. The father was very angry ______ the noise upstairs.

A. for B. with C. because D. about

16. We tried a lot of hotels but ______of them had any free rooms.

A. neither B. none C. no D. not

17. ______people go to soccer matches now than twenty years ago.

A. less B. lesser C. fewer D. few

18. You have never been to Nha Trang, ______?

A. have you B. haven’t you C. you have D. you haven’t.
19. I wish this exam ______easier.

A is B. will be C. would D. were

20. After arriving home, they usually______ their uniforms.

A. take out B. put out C. take off D. put off.

21. They haven’t seen each other, but they write to each other frequently. They are ________.

A. pen pals B. writers C. co-writers D. paper pals

22. English ________ widely ________ in this country nowadays.

A. is / speaking B. is / spoken C. was / spoken D. is / spoke
23. This is the first time she ________ traditional costume.

A. wears B. wore C. is wearing D. has worn

24. Her house is ________ situated near the beach. She can go swimming every morning.
A. convenience B. convenient C. conveniently D. inconveniently

TEST NUMBER 20

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25. ________ does it take to get there?

A. How B. How long C. How often D. How soon

26. Will you join us on a ________ trip to Vung Tau?

A. two days B. two-days C. two-day D. day-two

27. He’ll show the photos he has taken ________ his parents.

A. from B. for C. with D. to

28. The interviewer asked her ________ her name ________.

A. what / was B. if / was C. what / is D. if / is
29. The excited children were looking forward ________with the foreign teacher.

A. to speak B. spoke C. to speaking D. for speaking

30. The house comprises two bedrooms, a kitchen and a bathroom.

A. consists of B. gets C. divides D. takes

31. I want to get in touch with Jane. If only I ________ her phone number.

A. know B. to know C. knowing D. knew

32. If you study ________, you will pass the examination.

A. hard B. hardly C. careful D. fastly

33. Nobody helped me to make this cake. Means that

A. It’s all my work all B. It’s all my own work
C. It’s all the own work D. It’s my whole own work
34. You ________ do morning exercises regularly if you want to be healthy.

A. should B. ought to C. had to D. Both A and B

35. I didn’t have time to study, ________ I failed the exam.

A. since B. because C. so D. so that

36. I would rather you ________ the problem by yourself.

A. solve B. solving C. to solve D. solved

37. Unless you hurry, we ________ catch the bus.

A. can B. can’t C. must D. mustn’t

38. These two new buildings will be completed this year. ____buildings will be open by the mayor.

A. All B. Any C. Both D. Every

39. John swims very well and ________ does his brother.

A. also B. even C. so D. too

40. I understand you, you understand me, ______________.

A. We understand one another B. We understand together
C. Each of us understands another D. We understand each other
41. Jim doesn’t speak Chinese ________ George.

A. as well than B. well than C. as well as D. well as
42. Your car is much more expensive than ________.

A. I B. me C. my D. mine

43. He has _______ knowledge of history.

A. many B. much C. a few D. some

44. Don’t go anywhere until I_______ back.

A. come B. came C. will come D. am coming

45. I am going to speak with the boss when the meeting _______.

A. will end B. ends C. is ending D. would end

46. Before she came to England, she ______ English.

A. studied B. will study C. had studied D was studying
47. _____, Peter came to see me.

A. While having dinner B. While I was having dinner
C. When having dinner D. When lam having dinner
48. If she _____ the train last night , she _______here now.

A. had taken / would have been B. were taking / is

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49. I _______any letter from him yet.

A. don’t receive B. haven’t received C. will receive D. didn’t receive
50. Mike said “We have bought these books today.”

A. Mike said they had bought those books that day.
B. Mike said they bought those books that day.
C. Mike said they have bought those books that day.
D. Mike said they had bought those books today.

51. The Lunar New Year holiday is the mist important_______for Vietnamese people.
A. celebration B. congratulation C. competition D. consideration
52. She has been ______ as the president of our company.

A. nominate B. nomination C. nominated D. nominative
53. On this festival, people celebrate _______ from slavery.

A. happiness B. freedom C. life D. survival

54. What __________advice she gave us!

A. so good B. such good C. a good D. good

55. My dog as well as my cats ________twice a day.

A. eat B. eats C. has eaten D. have eaten

56. When I came into the class, I realized I knew _____________.

A. them all B. all them C. they all D. all of they

57. He was _________that we turned off the TV set immediately.

A. so bad singer B. such bad singer C. such bad a singer D. so bad a singer
58. I wish you _____________that! It’s really annoying habit.

A. won’t do B. couldn’t do C. wouldn’t do D. don’t do
59. “I’m sorry about that!” – “_____________!”

A. That’s right B. Of course C. It’s OK D. You’re welcome
60. I find it difficult to make a good _________ on this problem.

A. want B. decision C. thought D. view

III. LANGUAGE FUNTIONS (0.5 pt)

Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes the sentences.
61. –“How was the concert last night?” - “It was __________”

A. disappointing B. disappointed C. disappoint D. being disappointed
62. –“I’m leaving a note to Marry” – Hurry up,__________ you will miss the train.

A. or B. and C. but D. so

63. –“Would you mind if I turned on TV?” – “I’d really rather you __________”.

A. not to do B. didn’t C. don’t D. don’t mind

64. –“Someone is knocking at the door. _________ it be Mary?”.
–“It__________ Mary. To my certain knowledge she is in Moscow.”

A. May - isn’t B. Could – can’t be C. Is – can’t be D. Might–may not be
65. –“___________”. –“Don’t worry. I can fix it.”

A. Are you worried? B. May I fix your TV?

C. The TV is out of order again D. I want to fix your TV.

IV. GUIDED CLOZE TEST (1 PT)

Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best fits each blank space in the following passage.

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on the left while the much larger owner China uses right-hand traffic. The true reason (75) _______ left or right
traffic is therefore mainly political and economical.

66. A on B. with C. by D. from

67. A. collected B. gathered C. raised D. conquered

68. A. needed B. must C. had to D. ought to

69. A. influence B. standard C. regulations D. tradition
70. A. neither B. either C. both D. as well as
71. A. except B. exception C. exceptional D. exceptionally
72. A. amount B. quality C. number D. crowd
73. A. dependent B. independent C. dependence D. independence
74. A. changed B. exchange C. transfer D. transport

75. A. for B. of C. to D. on

V. READING COMPREHENSION (0.5 pt)

Read the passage below and choose the best answer for each question.

Strange things happen to time when you travel, because the earth is divided into twenty- four time zones,
one hour apart. You can have days with more or fewer than twenty- four hours, and weeks with more or fewer
than seven days.

If you make a five- day trip across the Atlantic Ocean, your ship enters a different time zone every day. As
you enter each one, the time changes one hour. Traveling west, you set your clock back, traveling east, you set it
ahead. Each day of your trip has either twenty- five or twenty- three hours.

If you travel by ship across the Pacific, you cross the International Date Line. By agreement, this is the
point where a new day begins. When you cross the line, you change your calendar one full day, backward or
forward. Traveling east, today becomes yesterday, traveling west, it is tomorrow!

76. The difference in time between zones is _________.

A. seven days B. twenty- four hours C. one hour D. more than seven days
77. From this selection it seems true that the Atlantic Ocean_________.

A. is in one time zone B. is divided into twenty- four zones
C. is divided into five time zones D. cannot be crossed in five days
78. If you cross the ocean going east, you set your clock_________.

A. ahead one hour in each new time zone B. ahead one hour for the whole trip
C. back one full day for each time zone D. ahead by twenty- three hours
79. The international date line is the name for_________.

A. the beginning of any new time zone B. any point where time changes by one hour
C. the point where a new day begins D. any time zone in the Pacific Ocean

80. The best title for this selection is _________.

A. A trip Across the Atlantic B. How Time Changes Around the World

C. Crossing the International date line D. How time zone were set up

B. PHẦN TỰ LUẬN. 
I. VERB FORMS. (1.5 pts)

Give the correct form of the verbs in brackets to complete the sentences.

1. I (81. spend) ______________ this weekend in Dalat. I (82. go) ______________there nearly every month.
2. When I was fifteen, I usually (83. go) ______________ to school by bike.

3. Paper money (84. use) ______________ for over a thousand years.

4. The house (85. be) ______________ quiet when I got home. Everybody (86. go) ______________to bed.
5. Remember (87. lock) ______________ the door before going to bed.

6. Nancy talks as if she (88. know) ______________ everything.
7. I tried (89. catch) ______________ the bus, but I missed it.

8. How much time do you spend (90. surf) ______________ the Internet each day?

II. WORD FORMS. (1.5 pts)

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94. He had his phone ______________ because he is going away for some time. (CONNECT)
95. That ______________ should be stopped at any rate. (PRACTICE)

96. Michael Jordan is one of the greatest ______________ of all times. (BASKET)
97. ______________ is what he takes up as a hobby? (CARPENTER)

98. I wish I had her ______________ hair. (MANAGE)

99. The fire was ______________, and the loss was high. (CONTROL)

100. She is always _______________ and polite in front of the elders. (BEHAVE)

III. READING COMPREHENSION. (1 pts)

Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer: True (T), False (F).

IV. PREPOSITIONS AND PHRASAL VERBS.

Supply each space with a suitable preposition to complete each sentence.
V. ERROR CORRECTION (2 pts)

There are ten errors in the following passage. Identify the errors, then underline and correct them. Write
your answers in the numbered spaces.

There are about 5,000 living language in the world today, but only about six of it are major languages of
the world. Two-threes of the world's population speak those six languages. More than 300 million people speak
English as its first language. Another 300 million speak it like a second language.

No one knows how many people speak it as a foreigner language. Chinese is the only language with more
speakers than English. This is because the huge population of Chinese, more than one billion people. More people
study English as any other language. In many countries, the textbooks in universities are by English. Many
university classes are teach in English although their first language is not English.

Error Correction Error Correction

116. 121.

117. 122.

118. 123.

119. 124.

120. 125.

VI. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION (2.5 pts)

126. He said the she would come back the following year.

=> According to him, ...
127. It was careless of you to park you car there.

=> You should...

128. Without your information I would not have made the beautiful speech.

=> Thanks to ...
129. I am interested in why she didn’t turn up at the meeting.

=> The only thing ...
130. What I saw astonished me.

=> I ...
131. His speech was so interesting that everyone paid attention to it.

=> He made ...
132. They refused to accept her application for the job.

=> Her ...
133. Since we had anything else to do, we decided to go the cinema.

=> Having ...
134. They missed the flight.

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=> He denied ...

Part 7: Between 150-200 words write to describe the house you are living in. Why do you love it?

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UBND TỈNH BÌNH PHƯỚC KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 THPT CHUYÊN QUANG TRUNG

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO NĂM HỌC 2013-2014

Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH (chuyên)

Ngày thi: 30/06/2013.
(Đề thi này gồm có 06 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút.

Họ và tên thí sinh: ……….……….. Số báo danh: ………...
Chú ý: Thí sinh làm bài vào phiếu trả lời (có phát kèm đề).

A. PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM.

I. PHONETICS (1 pt)

1. Choose a word (A, B, C, D) that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others.(0.5 pt)

1. A. school B. food C. tooth D. flood

2. A. go B. got C. note D. so

3. A. life B. wife C. mine D. dinner

4. A. this B. there C. think D. though

5. A. invited B. visited C. wished D. rested

2. Choose the word (A, B, C, D) whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others. (0.5 pt)

6. A. harvest B. circumstances C. produce D. ceremony

7. A. research B. ability C. companion D. understand

8. A. primitive B. particular C. continuous D. connected

9. A. amount B. mental C. dependence D. opinion

10. A. section B. grammar C. unsuccessful D. demonstrate

II. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR. (5 pts)

Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes the sentences.

11. The shopping center was ______of people on the first day of the sales.

A. crowded B. full C. busy D. hurry

12. Hardly ______believes that.

A. somebody B. every body C. anybody D. all

13. I was ______ in the countryside and went to a village school.

A. brought up B. carried on C. given up D. taken up
14. We usually watch the news on TV because it is very ______.

A. information B. informative C. formal D. informal
15. The father was very angry ______ the noise upstairs.

A. for B. with C. because D. about

16. We tried a lot of hotels but ______of them had any free rooms.

A. neither B. none C. no D. not

17. ______people go to soccer matches now than twenty years ago.

A. less B. lesser C. fewer D. few

18. You have never been to Nha Trang, ______?

A. have you B. haven’t you C. you have D. you haven’t.
19. I wish this exam ______easier.

A is B. will be C. would D. were

20. After arriving home, they usually______ their uniforms.

A. take out B. put out C. take off D. put off.

21. They haven’t seen each other, but they write to each other frequently. They are ________.

A. pen pals B. writers C. co-writers D. paper pals

22. English ________ widely ________ in this country nowadays.

A. is / speaking B. is / spoken C. was / spoken D. is / spoke
23. This is the first time she ________ traditional costume.

A. wears B. wore C. is wearing D. has worn

24. Her house is ________ situated near the beach. She can go swimming every morning.
A. convenience B. convenient C. conveniently D. inconveniently

TEST NUMBER 20

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25. ________ does it take to get there?

A. How B. How long C. How often D. How soon

26. Will you join us on a ________ trip to Vung Tau?

A. two days B. two-days C. two-day D. day-two

27. He’ll show the photos he has taken ________ his parents.

A. from B. for C. with D. to

28. The interviewer asked her ________ her name ________.

A. what / was B. if / was C. what / is D. if / is
29. The excited children were looking forward ________with the foreign teacher.

A. to speak B. spoke C. to speaking D. for speaking

30. The house comprises two bedrooms, a kitchen and a bathroom.

A. consists of B. gets C. divides D. takes

31. I want to get in touch with Jane. If only I ________ her phone number.

A. know B. to know C. knowing D. knew

32. If you study ________, you will pass the examination.

A. hard B. hardly C. careful D. fastly

33. Nobody helped me to make this cake. Means that

A. It’s all my work all B. It’s all my own work
C. It’s all the own work D. It’s my whole own work
34. You ________ do morning exercises regularly if you want to be healthy.

A. should B. ought to C. had to D. Both A and B

35. I didn’t have time to study, ________ I failed the exam.

A. since B. because C. so D. so that

36. I would rather you ________ the problem by yourself.

A. solve B. solving C. to solve D. solved

37. Unless you hurry, we ________ catch the bus.

A. can B. can’t C. must D. mustn’t

38. These two new buildings will be completed this year. ____buildings will be open by the mayor.

A. All B. Any C. Both D. Every

39. John swims very well and ________ does his brother.

A. also B. even C. so D. too

40. I understand you, you understand me, ______________.

A. We understand one another B. We understand together
C. Each of us understands another D. We understand each other
41. Jim doesn’t speak Chinese ________ George.

A. as well than B. well than C. as well as D. well as
42. Your car is much more expensive than ________.

A. I B. me C. my D. mine

43. He has _______ knowledge of history.

A. many B. much C. a few D. some

44. Don’t go anywhere until I_______ back.

A. come B. came C. will come D. am coming

45. I am going to speak with the boss when the meeting _______.

A. will end B. ends C. is ending D. would end

46. Before she came to England, she ______ English.

A. studied B. will study C. had studied D was studying
47. _____, Peter came to see me.

A. While having dinner B. While I was having dinner
C. When having dinner D. When lam having dinner

48. If she _____ the train last night , she _______here now.

A. had taken / would have been B. were taking / is

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49. I_______ any letter from him yet.

A. don’t receive B. haven’t received C. will receive D. didn’t receive
50. Mike said,” We have bought these books today.”

A. Mike said they had bought those books that day.
B. Mike said they bought those books that day.

C. Mike said they have bought those books that day.
D. Mike said they had bought those books today.

51. The Lunar New Year holiday is the mist important_______for Vietnamese people.
A. celebration B. congratulation C. competition D. consideration
52. She has been ______ as the president of our company.

A. nominate B. nomination C. nominated D. nominative
53. On this festival, people celebrate _______ from slavery.

A. happiness B. freedom C. life D. survival

54. What __________ advice she gave us!

A. so good B. such good C. a good D. good

55. My dog as well as my cats ________twice a day.

A. eat B. eats C. has eaten D. have eaten

56. When I came into the class, I realized I knew _____________.

A. them all B. all them C. they all D. all of they

57. He was _________that we turned off the TV set immediately.

A. so bad singer B. such bad singer C. such bad a singer D. so bad a singer
58. I wish you _____________that! It’s really annoying habit.

A. won’t do B. couldn’t do C. wouldn’t do D. don’t do
59. “I’m sorry about that!” – “_____________!”

A. That’s right B. Of course C. It’s OK D. You’re welcome
60. I find it difficult to make a good _________ on this problem.

A. want B. decision C. thought D. view

III. LANGUAGE FUNTIONS (0.5 pt)

Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes the sentences.
61. –“How was the concert last night?” - “It was __________”

A. disappointing B. disappointed C. disappoint D. being disappointed
62. –“I’m leaving a note to Marry” – Hurry up, __________ you will miss the train.

A. or B. and C. but D. so

63. –“Would you mind if I turned on TV?” – “I’d really rather you __________”.

A. not to do B. didn’t C. don’t D. don’t mind

64. –“Someone is knocking at the door. _________ it be Mary?”.
–“It__________ Mary. To my certain knowledge she is in Moscow.”

A. May - isn’t B. Could – can’t be C. Is – can’t be D. Might–may not be
65. –“___________”. –“Don’t worry. I can fix it.”

A. Are you worried? B. May I fix your TV?

C. The TV is out of order again D. I want to fix your TV.

IV. GUIDED CLOZE TEST (1 PT)

Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best fits each blank space in the following passage.

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on the left while the much larger owner China uses right-hand traffic. The true reason (75) _______ left or right
traffic is therefore mainly political and economical.

66. A on B. with C. by D. from

67. A. collected B. gathered C. raised D. conquered

68. A. needed B. must C. had to D. ought to

69. A. influence B. standard C. regulations D. tradition
70. A. neither B. either C. both D. as well as
71. A. except B. exception C. exceptional D. exceptionally
72. A. amount B. quality C. number D. crowd

73. A. dependent B. independent C. dependence D. independence 
74. A. changed B. exchange C. transfer D. transport

75. A. for B. of C. to D. on

V. READING COMPREHENSION (0.5 pt)

Read the passage below and choose the best answer for each question.

76. The difference in time between zones is _________.

A. seven days B. twenty- four hours C. one hour D. more than seven days
77. From this selection it seems true that the Atlantic Ocean_________.

A. is in one time zone B. is divided into twenty- four zones
C. is divided into five time zones D. cannot be crossed in five days
78. If you cross the ocean going east, you set your clock_________.

A. ahead one hour in each new time zone B. ahead one hour for the whole trip
C. back one full day for each time zone D. ahead by twenty- three hours
79. The International Date Line is the name for_________.

A. the beginning of any new time zone B. any point where time changes by one hour
C. the point where a new day begins D. any time zone in the Pacific Ocean

80. The best title for this selection is _________.

A. A trip Across the Atlantic B. How Time Changes Around the World
C. Crossing the International Date Line D. How time zone were set up

B. PHẦN TỰ LUẬN. 
I. VERB FORMS. (1.5 pts)

Give the correct form of the verbs in brackets to complete the sentences.

1. I (81. spend) __am going to spend_ this weekend in Dalat. I (82. go) ___go___ there nearly every month.
2. When I was fifteen, I usually (83. go) ____went___ to school by bike.

3. Paper money (84. use) ___has been used___ for over a thousand years.

4. The house (85. be) ____was___ quiet when I got home. Everybody (86. go) ___had gone__ to bed.
5. Remember (87. lock) ___to lock___ the door before going to bed.

6. Nancy talks as if she (88. know) ____knew____ everything.
7. I tried (89. catch) ____to catch___ the bus, but I missed it.

8. How much time do you spend (90. surf) __surfing___ the Internet each day?

II. WORD FORMS. (1.5 pts)

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94. He had his phone __disconnected __because he is going away for some time. (CONNECT)
95. That __malpractice___ should be stopped at any rate. (PRACTICE)

96. Michael Jordan is one of the greatest ___basket-ballers __________of all times. (BASKET)
97.____Carpentry___is what he takes up as a hobby. (CARPENTER)

98. I wish I had her ____manageable ___hair. (MANAGE)

99. The fire was ___uncontrollable __, and the loss was high. (CONTROL)
100. She is always __well-behaved _and polite in front of the elders. (BEHAVE)

III. READING COMPREHENSION. (1 pts)

Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer: True (T), False (F).

IV. PREPOSITIONS AND PHRASAL VERBS.

Supply each space with a suitable preposition to complete each sentence.
V. ERROR CORRECTION (2 pts)

There are ten errors in the following passage. Identify the errors, then underline and correct them. Write
your answers in the numbered spaces.

No one knows how many people speak it as a foreigner language. Chinese is the only language with

more speakers than English. This is because the huge population of Chinese, more than one billion people. More
people study English as any other language. In many countries, the textbooks in universities are by English.
Many university classes are teach in English although their first language is not English.

Error Correction Error Correction

116. language Languages 121. foreigner Foreign

117. it Them 122. because Because of

118. two-threes Two-thirds 123. as like

119. its Their 124. by In

120. like as 125. teach taught

VI. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION (2.5 pts)

126. He said the she would come back the following year.
=> According to him, she would come back the following year.
127. It was careless of you to park you car there.

=> You shouldn’t have parked your car there.

128. Without your information I would not have made the beautiful speech.
=> Thanks to your information, I was able to make the beautiful speech.
129. I am interested in why she didn’t turn up at the meeting.

=> The only thing I am interested in is why she didn’t turn up at the meeting.
130. What I saw astonished me.

=> I was astonished by/at what I saw.

131. His speech was so interesting that everyone paid attention to it.
=> He made such an interesting speech that everyone paid attention to it.
132. They refused to accept her application for the job.

=> Her application for the job was turn down.

133. Since we had anything else to do, we decided to go the cinema.
=> Having nothing else to do, we decided to go the cinema.

134. They missed the flight.

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=> He denied stealing/having stolen your pen.

Part 7: Between 150-200 words write to describe the house you are living in. Why do you love it?

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