Bộ 5 đề thi chọn HSG môn Tiếng Anh 12 có đáp án năm 2021 Trường THPT Lê Lai

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BỘ 5 ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI MƠN TIẾNG ANH 12

NĂM 2021 CĨ ĐÁP ÁN TRƯỜNG THPT LÊ LAI

1. Đề số 1

Part I- Choose the word A, B, C or D whose underlined part is pronounced differently
from the others in the group from questions 1 to 5.

1. A. chin B. chorus C. aching D. orchestra
2. A. dinosaur B. crocodile C. signature D. rise

3. A. thus B. thumb C. suppose D. supply

4. A. penalty B. scenic C. epidemic D. level
5. A. kissed B. washed C. practiced D. advertised
Part II- Choose the word A, B, C or D whose main stress is different from the others in
the group from questions 6 to 10.

6. A. responsible B. communicate C. technology D. electronic
7. A. difficulty B. anxiety C. enormously D. psychiatry
8. A. general B. understand C. popular D. telephone
9. A. traditional B. residential C. expectation D. competition
10. A. academy B. environment C. dictionary D. photography
Part III- Choose the answer A, B, C or D which best fits the space in each of the following
sentences from questions 11 to 25.

11. I have _________ information about her situation to tell you.

A. too few B. so many C. so little D. too little
12. America, as well as Japan, England, and Germany__________.

A. are developed countries B. are developing countries

C. is a developed country D. is developing countries
13. It's no good _________ your father about your failure.

A. to tell B. tell C. telling D. told
14. Since they aren't answering the phone, they __________ .

A. need have left B. can’t have left C. must have left D. should have left
15. I'd sooner they _________ deliver the new furniture tomorrow.

A. mustn't B. shouldn't C. didn't D. wouldn't
16. If we __________the first bus , we wouldn't be late now.

A. will take B. took C. had taken D. take
17. John: “Do you think that we should use public transportation to protect our
environment?”

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A. Yes, it's an absurd idea B. There's no doubt about it
C. Of course not. You bet D. Well, that's very surprising
18. A few animals sometimes fool their enemies ___________ to be dead.

A. to be appearing B. to appear C. by appearing D. have been appearing
19. _________ to his brother's graduation party, George wouldn't have met Mary

A. Had he not gone B. Hadn't he gone C. If he has not gone D. If he shouldn't have _gone
20. Nowadays children would prefer history _________ in more practical ways.

A. to be taught B. teach C. be taught D. to be teaching
21. I thought you said she was going away the next Sunday,_________ ?

A. wasn't she B. didn't you C. didn't I D. wasn't it

22. We bought some _________ glasses.

A. German lovely old B. German old lovely
C. lovely old German D. old lovely German

23. ________appears considerably larger at the horizon than it does overhead is merely an
optical illusion.

A. The Moon B. The Moon which C. When the Moon D. That the Moon
24. Jane: “It's going to rain”.

Mary: “___________”.

A. I hope not so B. I don't hope either
C. I don't hope so D. I hope not

25. The man __________ to having stolen the car.

A. refused B. admitted C. decided D. apologized

Part IV- Give the correct form of the word in bracket from 26 to 35 to complete the
following passage.

__26__ (work) at Shepparton Carpets Ltd voted today to continue with their industrial
action. Union leader Elaine Watkins issued a statement saying: “Although we do not
envisage an all-out strike at this stage, everyone at the plant will continue to refuse to work
__27__ (time) until this dispute is settled. We urge __28__ (manage) to reconsider their
proposals.” The industrial action, which began three weeks ago, has affected __29__

(produce) at the factory. Joe Turner. Managing Director of Shepparton Carpets has,

however, refused to bow to union demands. “If Shepparton Carpets wants to survive, it has
to become more __30__ (compete),” he said. “It’s my responsibility as an __31__ (employ)
of over 500 __32__ (employ) to ensure this company continues to make a profit. __33__

(period), we have to make changes to improve efficiency. If we don’t, we’ll all be out of a

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Part V- For questions 36 -50, read the text below and look carefully at each line. Some of
the lines are correct, and some have a word which should not be there. If a line is

correct, put a tick ( P) by the number. If a line has a word which should not be there,

write the word out. There are three examples at the beginning.
Hibernation syndrome

I don’t know about you, but come to the winter months, my body
seems to require more sleep than in summer and I’m definitely
at

my happiest when I’m being curled up in a hedgehog-style ball.
“Wanting to sleep more in the winter is not natural and nothing
to worry about, unless you are sleeping for more than 12 hours
a

day,” says sleep expert Dr James B Maas. The reason for we
feel drowsy has as much to do with our biochemistry as it does
so with wanting to sniggle up line a couch potato indoors. “it’s
all to do with

melatonin,” explains Dr Maas, “a hormone with which is

secreted by the brain’s pineal gland in response to darkness”.
They

may feel more sleepy, but as many people find getting to sleep
in winter is a problem. It’s hardly surprising. When lounging
around indoors drinking mugs of warming up coffee and
snacking

on chocolate bars doesn’t always prepare you for a good
night’s rest. If you do have trouble nodding off. Deepak Chopra
has tip. “Try a soothing mix of the sweet and sour

essential oils, such as orange, geranium and clove are mixed
with

almond oil and rubbed it on to your forehead just before
bedtime.”

0: ………to………
0: ………P………
0: …… being…..
36:………
37:………
38:………
39:………
40: ………..
41:………
42:………
43:………
44:………

45:………
46:………
47:………
48:………
49:………
50:………

Part VI- Read the passage carefully then choose the best answer A, B, C or D for each
question from 51 to 60.

Bees, classified into over 10,000 species, are insects found in almost every part of the
world except the northernmost and southernmost regions. One commonly known species is the
honeybee, the only bee that produces honey and wax. Humans use the wax in making candles,
lipsticks, and other products, and they use the honey as a substance that people eat to

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compartments, or cells. The queen lays eggs in completed cells. As the workers build more
cells, the queen lays more eggs.

All workers, like the queen, are female, but the workers are smaller than the queen. The
male honeybees are called drones; they do no work and can not sting. They are developed
from unfertilized eggs, and their only job is to impregnate a queen. The queen must be fertilized
in order to lay more worker eggs. During the season when less honey is available and the
drone is of no further use, the workers block the drones from eating the honey so that they will
starve to death.

51. Which of the following is the best title for the reading?

A. Many Species of Bees B. The Useless Drone
C. The Honeybee - Its characteristics and

Usefulness D. Making Honey

52. What is the closest meaning of the word "concurrently"?

A. independently B. hardly

C. variously D. simultaneously

53. According to the passage, the drone__________.

A. can be male or female B. mates with the queen and has no other _purpose
C. comes from eggs fertilized by other drones D. All are correct

54. According to the passage, people use honey __________.
A. to make candles B. as foods
C. as cosmetics D. all are correct
55. The author implies that __________.

A. bees are unnecessary in the food chain B. drones are completely dispensable
C. the queen can be a worker D. drones are never females.

56. In what way does the reading imply that bees are useful in nature?

A. They pollinate fruit and vegetable plants B. They make marvelous creation from max
C. They skill the dangerous drones D. They create storage spaces

57. The passage implies that bees can be found in each of the following parts of the world
except ______.

A. Africa B. China

C. Europe D. Antarctica

58. What is the closest meaning of the word " distinct "?

A. seclude B. unique

C. dependent D. complex

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C. it is made of wax D. it is impermeable
60. It can be inferred from the reading that bee wax is _________.

A. absorbent B. complex in structure

C. easily bent and shaped D. poisonous

Part VII- Read the following passage and choose the most suitable answer A, B, C, or D
to complete each of the blanks from 61 to 70.

In the western customs (61) _____ hands is the customary form of greeting, but in China a nod
of the head or (62) _____ bow is sufficient. Hugging and kissing when greeting are uncommon.
Business cards are often (63) _____ and yours should be printed in your own language and in
Chinese. Also, it is more respectful to present your card or a gift or any other article using (64)
_____ hands. The Chinese are (65) _____ applauders. You may be greeted with group
clapping, even by small children. When a person is applauded in this practice it is the custom
for that person to return the applause or a "thank you." When walking in public places, direct
eye (66) _____ or staring is uncommon in the large cities, especially in those areas accustomed
to foreign visitors. (67) _____, in smaller communities, visitors may be the subject of much
curiosity and therefore you may notice some stares. (68) _____ speaking, the Chinese are not
a touch-oriented society, especially true for visitors. So, avoid (69) _____ or any prolonged form

of body contact. Public displays of affection are very rare. On the other hand, you may note
people of the same sex walking hand-in-hand, which is simply a gesture of friendship. Do not
worry about a bit of pushing and shoving in stores or when groups board public buses or trains.
In this case, (70) _____ are either offered or expected. The Chinese will stand much closer than
Westerners.

61. A. taking B. shaking C. grasping D. hugging
62. A. small B. bit C. slight D. light
63. A. exchanged B. changed C. transferred D. converted
64. A. pair B. couple C. double D. both
65. A. enthusiast B. enthusiastic C. enthusiasm D.
enthusiastically

66. A. contact B. look C. stare D. watch
67. A. Moreover B. Furthermore C. However D. Whatever
68. A. Generally B. Successfully C. Fortunately D. Expectedly
69. A. touch B. to touch C. touched D. touching
70. A. contacts B. apologies C. gestures D. saying
goodbye

PART VIII- Read the passage then choose the best sentences A-K to fill in each gap from
71 to 80. There is one extra sentence which you do not need to use.

BITTER WATER HITS THE BIG TIME

Chocolate, which has its origins in South America, is now part of a multi-million pound
worldwide business.

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(71)____. Although the large scale industrial production of chocolate began in the last century,
the cacao plant was first cultivated by the Aztec, Toltec and Mayan civilizations of Central

America over three thousand years ago.

The cacao tree is an evergreen, tropical plant which is found in Africa, South and Central

America, the West Indies and South East Asia. The fruit of this tree is melon-sized and contains
20-40 seeds. (72)____. In English – speaking countries, they are called cocoa beans. This is a
misspelling from the 17th_{century when they were also called cacoa and cocao beans.}

The Aztecs used cocoa beans as money. (73)____. This is from the world in the Aztec
language, Nahuatl, meaning “bitter water”. (74)____. The Spanish found the drink more
palatable mixed with cinnamon and sugar, but the recipe did not spread to the rest of Europe
for another century. In the late 17th_{century, chocolate houses were set up in Europe’s capital}
cities, where people gathered to drink chocolate.

(75)____. But in 1826, CJ van Houten of the Netherlands invented chocolate powder. (76)____.
The age of the chocolate bar as we know it began in 1847 when a Bristol company, Fry and
Sons, combined cocoa butter with pure chocolate liquor and sugar to produce a solid block that
you could eat. (77)____.

At the turn of the century, the British chocolate market was dominated by French companies. In
1879 the English company Cadbury even named their Birmingham factory Bournville (ville is the
French word for town) in the hope that a little glamour would rub off. But then came Cadbury’s
famous Dairy Milk bar which began life as a Dairymaid in 1905. (78)____.

It seems that, for the time being at least, chocolate intake in Britain has established at about
four bars each week. (79)____. The latest market trick is the so-called “extended line”. This is
when the humble chocolate bar becomes an ice cream, a soft drink or a dessert, to tempt
chocoholics who have grown tired of conventional snacks.

At the other end of the production process, cacao farmers are still feeling the effects of a crash

in cocoa bean prices at the end of 1980s. (80)____. Perhaps you could spare a thought for
them as you munch your next chocolate bars.

A. This was made by extracting most of the cocoa butter from the crushed beans.
B. A Swiss company then introduced milk solids to the process which gave us milk _chocolate.
C. They also used them to make a drink called xocoatl.

D. Until the last century, the chocolate drink was made from solid blocks of chocolate which _{had to be melted down in hot water.}
E. When dried they become cacao beans, which can be used to make chocolate.

F. Clever advertising which associated it with the healthy qualities of milk from the English _{countryside quickly established the bar as a rival to the more decadent French brands.}
G. British manufacturers include up to 5 per cent vegetable fat in their chocolate, something _{forbidden elsewhere.}
H. As most cacao farmers operate on a very small scale, many were forced out of business.
I. This has forced manufacturers to look for new ways to attract customers.

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Part IX- Rewrite each of the following sentences from 81 to 85 so that its meaning stays
the same as the original sentence.

81. The fire was brought under control thanks to the night watchman.
à If it ………
82. I haven’t been to the cinema for two months.

à The last time ……….
83. Nobody had invited Jean to the party, which annoyed her.

à As she ………
84. "Don't break my doll, John, or I will scream," said Mary.

à Mary threatened...

85. Alice and Charles did not decide to move to a bigger house until after the birth of their
second child.

à Only when Alice ………

Part X- Complete the second sentence from 86 to 90 so that it has a similar meaning to
the first sentence, using the word given. You mustn’t change the given words in any
way.

86. Entry is free if you are under 18 years old. (WITHOUT)

………
87. In my opinion, classical music is far superior than jazz. (RATHER)
………..………..
88. I suppose it's possible that she didn't understand my message. (MAY)
……….
89. My grandfather was sixty when he learnt to swim. (AGE)

……….
90. The result of the match was a deep disappointment to the fan. (DEEPLY)
………

Part XI- Write an essay of about 200 words, giving your opinions on the following
problem:

The world is experiencing a dramatic increase in population. This is causing problems not only
for

poor, developing countries, but also for industrialized and developed nations. Describe the
problems

that overpopulation causes and suggest possible solutions to stop the world population growth.
--- THE END ---

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PART I– (0.5 điểm): 0,1 điểm / câu

1. A 2. C 3. B 4. B 5. D

PART II- (0.5 điểm) : 0,1 điểm / câu

6. D 7. A 8. B 9. A 10. C

PART III - (3.0 điểm) : 0,2 điểm / câu

11. D 12. C 13. C 14. C 15. C

16. C 17. B 18. C 19. A 20. A

21. B 22. C 23. D 24. D 25. B

PART IV- (2.0 điểm) : 0,2 điểm / câu

26. workers 27. overtime 28. management
managers

29. productivity
Production

30. competitive
31. employer 32. employees 33. periodically 34. unpleasant 35. inapplicable

PART V- (3.0 điểm) : 0,2 điểm / câu

36. NOT 37. P 38. FOR 39. SO 40. P

41. WITH 42. P 43. AS 44. WHEN 45. UP

46. P 47. P 48. THE 49. ARE 50. IT

PART VI - (2.0 điểm) : 0,2 điểm / câu

51. C 52. D 53. B 54. B 55. D

56. A 57. D 58. B 59. B 60. C

PART VII - (2.0 điểm) : 0,2 điểm / câu

61. B 62. C 63. A 64. D 65. B

66. A 67. C 68. A 69. D 70. B

PART VIII - (1.0 điểm) : 0,1 điểm / câu

71. K 72. E 73. C 74. J 75. D

76. A 77. B 78. F 79. I 80. H

PART IX- (1.5 điểm) : 0,3 điểm / câu

81. à If it had not been for the night watchman, the fire would not have been brought
under control.

82. à The last time I went to the cinema was two months ago.
83. à As she had not been invited to the party, Jean was annoyed.
84. à Mary threatened to scream if John broke her doll.

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à Only when Alice had given/gave birth to the second child, did
……….

PART X- (1.5 điểm) : 0,3 điểm / câu

86. You can enter / go in without (paying) money if you are under 18 years old.
87. I’d rather listen to classical music than (listen to) jazz.

88. She may not have understood my message.
89. My grandfather learnt to swim at the age of sixty.

90. The fan was DEEPLY disappointed by/with the result of the match.
PART XI- (3.0 điểm) - cụ thể như sau:

- Nội dung (content): 1.5 điểm

- Từ vựng (vocabulary): 0.5 điểm
- Ngữ pháp (grammar): 0.5 điểm

- Tính mạch lạc và trôi chảy (coherence and cohesion) + độ dài (length): 0.5 điểm
- Sai dưới 4 lỗi không trừ điểm.

- Sai trên 4 lỗi, hoặc sai những lỗi nặng trừ 0.5 điểm/1 lỗi.
---

2. Đề số 2

A. PHONETICS (1.0 point)

Question I. Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the

others by circling A, B, C or D. (0.5 p)

1. A. elaborate B. eliminate C. election D. equal
2. A. hasty B. tasty C. wastage D. nasty

3. A. Hand B. Bank C. Sand D. Band

4. A. beloved B. naked C. ploughed D. wicked
5. A. itinerant B. id C. idolize D. fungi

Question II. Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from the others by

circling A, B, C or D. (0.5 p)

1. A. investigate B. aborigine C. convenient D. supervisor
2. A. determine B. diversity C. occupation D. miraculous
3. A. suitable B. eliminate C. accent D. cultural

4. A. arithmetic B. composition C. interpreter D. attributable
5. A. hotel B. preview C. annex D. annul

B. GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURES (7 points)

Question I: Choose the best word from A, B, C, and D that fits each blank. (2p)

1. Judy is _______ smarter than the others that she ought to be in a higher grade at school.
A. much B. so much C. too much D. such a

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A. so B. such a C. how D. what a

3. “I asked Ned which team I should try out for.” – “But he doesn’t know a tennis ball _____ a
basketball.”

A. than B. out of C. for D. from

4. “Who can I tell about the new project?” – “Nobody, _______ your family must know about it.”
A. not even B. not only C. much more D. rather than

5. The sales practices of this company will have to be totally _______ if we are to save it.
A. overthrown B. overhauled C. overrun D. overwhelmed

6. Sue admitted that she could not concentrate on her work _______ due to this irritating noise.
A. in all B. the bit least C. in the least D. at the least

7. Sammy was so nervous the night before the exam that he couldn’t ________ a wink of sleep.
A. do B. get C. make D. take

8. A very cheerful and energetic woman, Joyce is ______ when there’s work to be done.
A. first always to sign up B. to sign up always first C. always first to sign up D. first to sign up
always

9. We were ________ looking for a manager when the impeccable candidate showed up.
A. in view of B. in the hope of C. with a view towards D. in the process of

10. With a(n) _____ to getting high scores in the final exam, Scott studied as hard as he could.

A. sight B. eye C. vision D. nose

11. If I were you, I’d _____ everything he says with a pinch of salt.
A. make B. admit C. take D. accept

12. You ought to _______ the responsibility to keep everyone in the company informed about
the latest news from the top manager.

A. burden B. shoulder C. take with D. hand

13. _________ I’ve told him not to go out with those people, but he wouldn’t listen. Just let him
face the music now!

A. Many a time B. Many the time C. Quite a time D. or a time

14. Rumors going round, Mr. Long is ________ Head of the Department.
A. in the proximity of B. in line for C. in adjacent to D. in view of

15. “Why are you so sad?” – “ __________ person I called is busy tonight.”
A. Each and everyone B. Every one C. Every single D. Out of all the

16. Susan got a feeling that Tom liked her, but she soon realized that was just _______.
A. pinky thoughts B. wishful thinking C. blessing thoughts D. imaginary thinking

17. There are ______ words in English having more than one meaning. Pay close attention to
this fact.

A. a large many B. quite many C. quite a lot D. a great many

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19. Your request for greater financial support has to be _______ the claim from other

departments.

A. banked on B. broken through C. balanced against D. built up

20. Recently, the company has received a _________ of complaints from the customers about
poor products.

A. pack B. barrage C. pool D. bank

Question II: Give the correct tense and form of the verb to fit each gap. (1.5ps)

1. It’s about time the government (do)_______________________ something about the
sewage system which (not upgrade) ____________________ for years.

2. Mr. Nam asked that a trustee (appoint) _________________________ to take control of the
company.

3. Critics say the mayor is too busy (campaign)________________________
(do)_____________________ his job properly.

4. To perform this operation, the surgeon use a laser with a beam
(measure)_______________________ 0,1 millimeter.

5. When she found her dog (eat)________________________ her birthday cake, she couldn’t
but (kick) _______________________ it out.

6. If there aren’t any tickets left when we reach the front of the queue, we (wait)
_______________________ all the time for nothing.

7. It is highly desirable that from every product in regular production, samples (withdraw)

________________ periodically.

ĐÁP ÁN
A. PHONETICS (1 point)

Question I: Pronunciation(0.5p)
1. D 2. D 3. B 4. C 5. B

Question II: Stress (0.5p)
1. D 2. C 3. B 4. B 5. B

B. GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURES (7points)
Question I: Choose the best answer: (2p)
1. B 2. D 3. D 4. A 5. B 6. C 7. B 8. C 9. D 10. B

11. C 12. B 13. A 14. B 15. C 16. B 17. D 18. A 19. C 20. B
Question II: Give the correct tense and form of the verb (1p)
1. Did, hasn’t been upgraded 6. Will have been waiting

2. Be appointed 7. Be withdrawn
3. Campaigning to do

4. measuring
5. eating, kick

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4. uselessness 5. affected 6. prescription 7. suspicious
8. admitted 9. domesticity 10. independence.

Question IV: Your answers:

MistakeCorrection

1……impact in……….. ………impact on………
2………went are………….. ………gone are………

3…………cannot be always……… ………cannot always be……….
4………have improved………… ………has improved………..

5…………truth………… ………true……….
6. are opened are open

7. itself themselves
8. visual visually
9. for the fact for fact
10. so long as as long as

Question V: Put one suitable preposition or particle in the blank of each sentence. (1p)
1. out 2. to 3. to 4. away 5. With/ of

6. out 7. off 8. for 9. back

C. READING (6 points)

Question I: Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (2p)
1. have 6. taken

2. is 7. researcher
3. between 8. up
4. close 9. protected
5. Whaling 10. near

Question II: Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each
space. (2p)

1. A 2. C 3. D

4. C 5. A 6. B 7. B 8. D
9. A 10. B

Question III: Read the text below and choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D). (2p)
1. A 2. D 3. C 4. D 5. D 6. B 7. C 8. A 9. B 10. A

D. WRITING (5 points)

Question I: Rewrite these sentences so that the new one has a similar meaning as the
sentence preceded. (2p)

1. Andrew suggested going for a walk in the park./ Andrew suggested that they should go for a
walk in the park

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3. Neither she nor I have been there before./ Neither have she and I been there before.
4. I was particularly impressed by her excellent command of English.

5. At no time was the result of the match in doubt.

6. This will be the first time the orchestra has played/ performed outside London.
7. Although Bill took a taxi, he arrived late at the meeting.

8. The house looks better now that it has been repainted.
9. The concert didn’t come up to our expectations.

10. Malaria is known to be caused by mosquitoes.

Question II: Do not change the given word, use it to write each of the following
sentences so that each has a similar meaning as the original one. (2p)

1. Returning from the battle, they didn’t have two pennies/ halfpennies/ beans to rub together.
2. I count myself very lucky to have escaped from that crash.

3. Our boss is intent on not giving us the pay rise.

4. I’d thought about it about some time and decided to give it a go.

5. It was disgraceful that Barbara had turned her back on one of her oldest and closest friends.
6. I give you my word of honour that I will return the money to you.

7. Bruce likened the situation at work to a family argument.

8. When she sold the jewelry at such a low price, she was taken for a ride.
9. They arrived at their destination safe and sound.

10. At this moment, I am preoccupied with my university thesis.
Question III: Composition writing (2 pts)

The mark given to this part is based on the following criteria: Content: (35% of total mark)
a. Providing all main ideas and details as required

b. Communicating intentions sufficiently and effectively

1. Organization & Presentation: (30% of total mark)

a. Ideas are well organized and presented with coherence, cohesion, and clarity
b. The composition is well-structured

2. Language: (30% of total mark)

a. Demonstration of a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English
language gifted upper-secondary school students

b. Good use and control of grammatical structures

3. Punctuation, and spelling and handwriting (5% of total mark)

a. Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes
b. Legible handwriting

3. Đề số 3

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Question I: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the
rest in the same line. (2pts)

1. A. famous B. nervous C. favourite D. mountain
2. A. through B. enough C. rough D. tough

Question II: Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three
words in each question. (3pts)

3. A. passion B. encourage C. occasion D. depend
4. A. participant B. publicity C. competitive D. Individual
5. A. limitation B. documentary C. government D. interactive

PART B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (45pts)

Question I: Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (15pts)
6. ...1915 that the cinema really became an industry.

A. It is not until B. It was not until C. Not until D. Until in

7. I really appreciate________ to help me, but I am sure I'll be able to manage by myself.
A. you to offer B. you are offering C. your offering D. that you offer

8. My friend's uncle has been________ MP ( Member of Parliament) for five years.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø

9. - Daisy: "What a lovely house you have!" - Mary: "..."
A. Lovely, I think so B. No problem

C. Of course not, it's not costly D. Thank you. Hope you will drop in
10. My new glasses cost me _______ the last pair I bought last month.
A. more than three times C. more three times than

B. three times as much as D. as much three times as
11. We bought some ________.

A. German lovely old glasses B. German old lovely glasses
C. lovely old German glasses D. old lovely German glasses

12. After years of neglect, there was a huge _____ program to return the city to its former glory.
A. restoration B. preservation C. conservation D. Refurbishment

13. We all have to follow the rules, and none of us is_____ the law.

A. beyond B. over C. above D. Onto

14. On the_____, optimists believe that life will be much better than it is today.
A. contrary B. contrast C. opposition D. opponent

15. You had your house decorated, ... ?

A. hadn't you B. didn't you C. weren't you D. haven't you

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17. The type of plant and animal life living in and around a pond depends on the soil of the
pond, ..., and the pond's location.

A. what the quality of the water is B. how is the water quality
C. the quality of water D. what is the water quality

18. __________ its accuracy, laser is very useful in medicine.
A. In view of B. As a result of C. Thanks to D. Despite

19.______ for their strong fiber include flax and hemp.
A. Plants are grown B. Plants grown

C. Plants that grow D. To grow plants

20. ______ appears considerably larger at the horizon than it does overhead is merely an
optical illusion.

A. What the Moon B.The Moon which
C. When the Moon D. That the Moon

A- ĐÁP ÁN

PART A: PHONETICS (5 điểm – Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
1.D 2.A 3.A 4.D 5.C

PART B: VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR (45 điểm - Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
Question I.

6.B 7.C 8.B 9.D 10.B
11.C 12.A 13.C 14.A 15.B
16.A 17.C 18.C 19.B 20.D
Question II.

WORD LINE WORD LINE

21. Few 3 26. much 8

22. Who 3 27. any 9

23. Would 5 28. will 10

24. For 6 29. the 10

25. It 7 30. too 11

Question III

31. will have been killed 36. having been treated
32. being sent 37. had our teacher entered
33. was reported 38. has come

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Question IV

41.endangered 42.similarities 43.variety 44. applicants 45.disobedient
46.destroyer 47.households 48. powerlessness 49. outlived 50. demoralised/

demoralized
PART C: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)

(Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
Question I

51.D 52.B 53.C 54.D 55.D

56.D 57.C 58.A 59.B 60.C

Question II.

61. danger 62. extinct 63. effort 64. parts 65. alive
66. where 67. land 68. than 69. pollute 70. left
Question III.

71. C 72. A 73. A 74. D 75. A

76. C 77. C 78. B 79. C 80. B

PART D: WRITING (20 pts)

Question I (5 điểm- Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)

81. - Had it not been for the heavy rain, we could have had our picnic.
- Had it not rained heavily, we could have had our picnic.

82. The smoking of cigarettes is no longer as popular as it used to be.
83. The moment I decided to get up to dance, the band decided to stop _playing.
84. He is the most likely person to succeed in solving the problem
85. His reaction came as a shock to us all

Question II (5 điểm- Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)

86. I left my last job because I didn’t really see eye to eye with my manager.
87. All the witnesses said that I was to blame for the accident.

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Marking criteria:

 Task completion (4 điểm): Tuỳ theo khả năng hoàn thành về bố cục và những yêu cầu

nội dung cho mỗi phần ( mở bài,thân bài,kết luận) giám khảo có thể chấm từ 1-4 điểm.

 Grammatical accuracy and spelling 3 điểm: bài viết khơng có lỗi chính tả và từ ba lỗi

ngữ pháp trở xuống được cho 3 điểm tối đa. Cứ 4 lỗi chính tả hoặc ngữ pháp trừ 1 điểm
(Trừ không quá 3 điểm).

 Coherence and cohesion (tính mạch lạc và sự liên kết câu, đoạn) – 3 điểm: Tùy

mức độ mạch lạc, liên kết câu, liên kết đoạn của bài viết, giám khảo có thể chấm 1-3
điểm.

B- HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM

 Bài thi chấm theo thang điểm: 20

 Điểm bài thi làm tròn đến 0,25

4. Đề số 4

A. LISTENING:

Hướng dẫn làm bài Nghe:

Bài Nghe gồm có 04 phần, mỗi phần thí sinh được nghe 02 lần.
Mở đầu và kết thúc phần nghe có tín hiệu nhạc.

Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) có trong bài.

I. Listen to five short conversations and choose the correct answer to each question (5.0
points).

1. How will they book their flights?

A. on the Internet B. at the travel agent C. on the phone
2. What has the daughter forgotten to bring on holiday?
A. toothpaste B. hairbrush C. shampoo

3. What will the man and the woman do on Sunday?

A. do the housework B.go on a picnic C. watch DVDs and read newspapers
4. Which blouse does the girl decide to buy?

A. a collar, long sleeves B. no collar, short sleeves C. a collar, without sleeves
5. When is the girl having a party?

A. 15th B.14th C. 13th

II. Listen to the recording and choose the correct answer to each question (6.0 points).
1. What made Holly start writing when she was young?

A. keeping a diary each day

B. wanting to remember her dreams
C. completing a homework project

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B. how to keep wild animals at home

C. how to find the most interesting animals in the wild`

3. What does Holly think is the most interesting thing about nature?
A. that animals live so close to us.

B. that nature is so beautiful.
C. that there is so much to learn.
4. What does Holly say about trees?
A. They have lots of uses.

B. They are often unnoticed.
C. They are everywhere.

5. Holly hopes that her young readers ______.
A. go on to study nature at college or university
B. improve their genneral reading skills

C. learn how to discover nature for themselves

6. What kind of books does Holly enjoy reading in her spare time?
A. classic novels B. cookery books C. field guides

III. Listen to the recording and fill in each blank with NO MORE THAN 3 WORDS/
NUMBERS (5.0 points).

SUNNINGTON SPORTS CAMP
Choice of afternoon activity:
Sign list outside the (12) ______
Clothes:

Wear track suit, but also bring shorts and a T-shirt
(13) ______ sports shoes

Food:

Lunch served in canteen every half-hour bewteen 12.15 and (14)
______

Snack bar sells drinks, chocolate and biscuits
Certificate:

Marks given for:

- Attitude: (15) ______ and team-work
- Performance: strength, speeds and skill

- Level six certificate to anyone who gets (16) ______ or more.

IV.Listen to the recording and state whether the statements are true (T) or false (F) (4.0

points).

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17. Maria would like to travel a lot as part of her job.

18. Maria is confident she will be able to work for an airline.
19. Rolf intends to do a job connected with his degree.
20. Maria and Rolf agree it is important to have a good salary
B. GRAMMAR – VOCABULARY – LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS

I. Choose the word, phrase or expression which best completes each sentence (8.0
points).

21. The answer Henry gave was so confusing that his lecturer could hardly make ______ of it at
all.

A. sense B. meaning C. interpretation D. intelligibility
22. Considered America’s first great architect, ______.

A. many of the buildings at Harvard University were designed by Henry Hobson Richardson
B. it was Henry Hobson Richardson who designed many of the buildings at Harvard University
C. Henry Hobson Richardson designed many of the buildings at Harvard University

D. Harvard University has many buildings that were designed by Henry Hobson Richardson.
23. “Jack, can you help me push the piano to the corner of the hall to ______ our party?” said
the teacher

A. give place to
B.make place for

C. take room for
D. make room for

24. The surrealistic movement in art in the 1920s and 1930s placed ______ is pictured in the
unconscious and often incorporated dreamlike images.

A. to emphasize it B. an emphasis on what
C. an emphasis on it D. emphasize what

25. “Frankly, Ms. Adamson works ______ that her figures never need ______,” said the
General Manager.

A. such efficiently that/ to check B. so efficient that/ checking

C. such an efficient that/ to be checked D. so efficiently that/ to be checked

26. It is highly recommended that language learners in general and English learners ______
should learn the language in the native community so as to master it.

A. in particular B.on the whole C. in short D. on the other hand

27. Lama:“What’s your greatest phobia, Carolina?

Carolina: “______”

A. I’m afraid not. B. I haven’t made up my mind.
C. What an absurd idea! D. Worms, definitely.

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Man: “______”

A. Not too bad B.Very good C. Rare, please D. Yes, of course I like it

II.Give the correct form of the words in brackets (5.0 points).

29. The (PREDICT) ______ weather in the mountains can make climbing extremely hazardous.
30. Both sides have shown a distinct lack of (ENTHUSIAST) ______ for discussion.

31. The woman tried to break into a security file for which she was not (AUTHORITY) ______.
32. Life (EXPECT) ______ for both men and women has improved greatly in the past 50 years.
33. Julie Johnson and Mark Thomas, aged 19 and 20 (RESPECT) ______, are taking part in
the competition.

III. Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting (3.0
points).

34. The American architect Frank Lloyd developed a theory of
architecture stressed the needs of the people who used it. A B C D

35. Children subjected to violence, exploration, abuse, and neglect are in risk of death, poor
physical and mental health, A B C

HIV/ AIDS infection, and educational problems. D

36. The works of early American woodcarvers had many artistic qualities, but these
craftsmen probably did not think of them A B C D

as artists.

IV. Choose the word that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in the following
sentences (2.0 points).

37. Sarah stood there, looking at his boyfriend without showing any reaction when he told her
the news.

A. caringly B. indifferently C.heartlessly D. impersonally

38. Martha decided to remain celibate and devoted her life to helping the homeless and
orphans.

A. married B.separated C. single D. divorced

V.Choose the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word in the following

sentences (2.0 points).

39. Written sources are considered absolutely indispensable for today’s history teaching.
A. unique B.unnecessary C. inexpensive D. affordable

40. The court concluded from the evidence that Mr. Smith was innocent and released him from
prison.

A. guilty B.benevolent C. innovative D. naive
C. READING:

I. There are FIVE blanks in the passage below. From the phrases / sentences in the box,
choose the most suitable for each blank. There is ONE EXTRA option that you DO NOT
need to use (5.0 points)

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B. so are not classed as international students

C. as defined by the Immigration Control and Refugee Recognition Act
D. in accordance to its own national education system

E. preferred by international students are the United States, United Kingdom, Germany, France,
Canada and Australia

F. by sending hundreds of thousand students to study abroad

The definition of "international student" varies in each country (41) ______. In Australia,
international students are defined as those studying onshore only with visa subclasses 570 to
575, excluding students on Australian-funded scholarships or sponsorship or students

undertaking study while in possession of other temporary visas. New Zealand citizens do not
require a visa to study in Australia, (42) ______. In Japan, international students are defined as
foreign nationals who study at any Japanese university, graduate school, junior college, college
of technology, professional training college or university preparatory course on a “college
student” visa, (43) ______.

According to the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) in
their 2009 World Conference on Higher Education report, over 2.5 million students were

studying outside their home country. UNESCO also predicted that the number of international
students might rise to approximately 7 million by the year 2020. The main destinations (44)
______. Overall, the number of international students more than doubled to over 2 million
between 2000 and 2007.

However, the sharpest percentage increases of international students have occurred in New
Zealand, Korea, the Netherlands, Greece, Spain, Italy and Ireland. In recent years, some Asian
and Middle East countries have started to attract more international students. These regions
have entered the market with declared ambitions to become regional education centers (45)

______.

II. Choose the most suitable heading from the box for each paragraph below. There is
ONE EXTRA heading that you DO NOT need to use (5.0 points).

HEADINGS

A. The amount that American eat
B. Americans even getting fatter
C. Changing meal times everywhere
D. Why Americans love fast food
E. Unhealthy American schools

F. How American schools deal with obesity among teenagers
46: ______

In the past year, the adult obesity rate rose in 48 of America’s 52 states. Despite the campaigns
to make people aware of the dangers of over-eating, about 119 million, or 64% of US adults are
either overweight or obese. Worryingly, this figure is predicted to rise to 73% by the end of this
year. What does this mean for America? Already 300,000 deaths each year are caused by
obesity (only smoke kills more people), and the annual cost to the country is around $100
billion.

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Many people blame for the fast food industry, along with sedentary life styles, for the worrying
increase. The average American now consumes about three hamburgers and four portions of
French fries every week. That’s 90 grams of fat and 2.250 calories (the average person needs
about 2.000 calories a day). A recent survey found that every month 90% of America children
eat at least one meal in fast food restaurant.

48: ______

Most Americans know that fast food isn’t good for them. It is high in calories, fat, salt and sugar.
Yet fast-food restaurants are part of American life. After World War II, higher salaries and
productivity, together with technological developments and increased consumerism, made fast
food restaurants popular. It presented a modern lifestyle, and is still a popular place for

teenagers to get together with friends. The food is cheap, and many say they love the taste.
The advertising is often aimed at children, with offers of entertainment and free gifts.

49: ______

Another in fast food sales – not only in the USA, but all over the world – is our increasingly busy
lifestyles. In the past, families ate a home-cooked meal together at dinner time. These days,
meals can be eaten at any hour of the day, and people rely on easy, instant food – not always
nutritious – that is available “24/7”. America invented the “TV dinner”, and it is something most
people around the world now enjoy.

50: ______

Finding nutritious food is also difficult in schools, which is often have contracts with fast food
supplies and drinks companies. Teenage boys in the US each drink an average of 868 cans of
fizzy drinks per year. Exercise in school has become less important too. A recent report showed
that half of all US teens aged 12 – 21 got only America’s problem – Europe is also getting
faster. It is estimated that over one million children in the UK are obese and this number has
trebled over the past 20 years.

III. Read the passage below and decide which option A, B, C or D best fits each space (10
points).

Childhood is the time when there are (51) ______ responsibilities to make life difficult. If a child

has good parents, he is fed, looked after and loved, (52) ______ he may do. It is improbable
that he will ever again in his life be given so much without having to do anything in return. In
(53) ______, life is always presenting new things to the child - things that have lost their interest
for older people because they are too well-known. A child finds pleasure playing in the rain, or
in the snow. His first visit to the seaside is a marvellous adventure. (54) ______, a child has his
pain. He is not so free to do as he wishes as he thinks older people are: he is continually told
not to do things, or being punished (55) ______ what he has done wrong. His life is therefore
not perfectly happy.

When a young man starts to (56) ______ his own living, he becomes free from the discipline of
school and parents, but at the same time he is forced to accept responsibilities. He can no
longer expect (57) ______ to pay for his food, his clothes and his room, but he has to work if he
wants to live comfortably. If he spends most time playing about in a day he used to as a child,
he will be hungry. And if he breaks the laws of society as he used to break the laws of his
parents, he may go to prison. If, however, he works hard, keeps out of troubles and has good
health, he can have the greatest happiness of seeing himself make steady (58) ______ in his
job and of building up for himself his own position in society.

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their grandchildren growing up around them, and perhaps best of all, they can, if their life has
been a useful one, feel the happiness of having come (60) ______ the battle of life safely and of
having reached a time when they can lie back and rest, leaving others to continue the fight.

51. A. little B. few C. a little D. a few

52. A. whenever B. wherever C. whatever D. whosoever

53. A. short B. term C. reality D. addition

54. A. However B. But C. Therefore D. Moreover

55. A. because B. for C. at D. by

56. A. take B. have C. create D. earn

57. A. other B. another C. others D. someone

58.A. progress B. achievement C. improvements D. accomplishments

59. A. coming B. come C. came D. had come

60. A. out B. across C. through D. back

IV. Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each question (10 points).

Line
(5)

(10)

(15)

(20)

(25)

Paul Bunyan is perhaps America’s best-known folk hero. A fictional logger of incredible
strength, he was most likely based on an actual nineteenth-century logger from the
northern United States or Canada. As a folk hero, he struck a chord with Americans on
some level, perhaps because he was incredibly strong but also because he was
hard-working and capable, ingenious in solving problems, and fun-loving.

Though there is evidence that Paul Bunyan tales were part of oral tradition in the
nineteen century, Paul Bunyan stories did not appear in written form until the early
twentieth century. Journalist James McGillivray included descriptions of Bunyan in a
series of essay entitled “The Round River Drive” which appeared in a number of

Midwestern newspapers between 1906 and 1910. However, it was through an extensive
advertising campaign that Paul Bunyan moved solidly into print.

Recognizing the appeal of Paul Bunyan as a figure for his company’s advertising, William
Laughead, an advertising executive for the Red River Lumber Company, initiated a
campaign that consisted of a series of publications featuring Paul Bunyan. For several
decades, the company distributed these publications free of charge and made no attempt
to obtain a copyright on them. In fact, the company vigorously encouraged other writers
to make use of Paul Bunyan because it felt that the use of this character enhanced the
name recognition of the Red River Lumber Company inasmuch as the name of the folk
hero and the name of the company had become interwoven.

The Bunyan stories published by Red River and further circulated by others were tall
tales of gigantic proportions. In these tales, Banyan is depicted as a man of superhuman
proportions, who is strong, hard-working, entrepreneurial, and innovative. In one story, for
example, Paul is credited with digging the Great Lakes in order to create a watering hole
for his giant ox, Babe. In another of these tales, Paul caused an entire winter of blue
snow to fall by swearing a blue streak after he injured himself by smashing his thumb with
a large hammer. A third story in the series describes Paul’s role in establishing the

Mississippi River.

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numerous community festivals and logging competitions featuring Paul Bunyan that can
be found throughout the sections of the country where logging has strong tradition.

61. The purpose of this passage is to ______.

A. present the actual feats of a real-life logger
B. provide an overview of American folktales
C. describe logging in North America

D. discuss a “larger than life” folk hero

62. It is NOT stated in the passage that Paul Bunyan is known for his ______.
A. unusual strength B. dedication to work

C. ingenuity in difficult situations D. serious nature

63. The passage states that Paul Bunyan tales first appeared ______.
A. in oral stories B. in advertising C. in newspapers D. in a series of essays

64. Which of the following CANNOT be inferred about the Red River Lumber Company’s
advertising campaign featuring Paul Bunyan?

A. It endured for quite a time.

B. The company did not protect its ownership of the stories.
C. The campaign did little to enhance the company’s profitability.

D. The company wanted the name Paul Bunyan to be known as widely as possible.
65. The pronoun “them” in line 14 refers to ______.

A. publications B. series C. decades D. writers

66. The word “interwoven” in line 17 could be best replaced by ______.

A. unfashionable B. mixed together C. not compatible D. too separate

67. Where in the passage does the author discuss a weather phenomenon that Paul Bunyan
supposedly caused?

A. Lines 3-5 B. Lines 14-17 C. lines 20-23 D. Lines 25-29

68. The word “countless” in line 27 could be best replaced by the expression ______.
A. an overestimated number of B. an insubstantial number of

C. a large number of D. a specified number of

69. Which paragraph describes the plots of some of the tales of Paul Bunyan?
A. The second paragraph B. The third paragraph

C. The fourth paragraph D. The fifth paragraph
70. The author’s tone in this passage is ______.
A. humorous B. neutral C. sarcastic D. pessimistic
D. WRITING:

I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as
the sentence printed before (5.0 points).

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Urgent

………
…..………

72. It was careless of you to allow your 16-year-old son to drive your car.
You should

………
….………

73. I shall never lend John any money, no matter what happens.
Under no

……….………
……….………

74. Someone has suggested abolishing income tax.
It

……….………
……….……….……….……
75. Thank you for reminding me about the timetable, otherwise I would have missed the last
train.

If………..……….………
……….……….……
II. This is a part of a letter that you have received from David, a pen friend from New
Zealand. In about 100 - 120 words, write a letter to answer his questions (10 points).

You are required to begin and finish your letter as followed:

Dear David,

………
………..………
………

………..………
………
………..………
Yours,

Tran Thuy Hanh

III. Vietnamese society has changed significantly in the past decades. However, many

traditional values and practices have been lost, which is a pity.To what extent do you

agree or disagree with this statement? In about 230 - 250 words, write an essay to
support your opinion (15 points).

=== THE END ===
ĐÁP ÁN
A. LISTENING:

I. (5.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer:

1. B2. C3. B4. A5. C

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6. A7. A8. C9. B10. C11. C

III. (5.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer:

12. changing room13. Two/ 2 pairs of

14. 1.4515. effort 16. 180 marks

IV. (4.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer:

17. T18. F19. F20. T

B. GRAMMAR – VOCABULARY – LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS
I. (8.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer:

21. A22. C23. D24. B

25. D26. A27. D28. C

II. (5.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer:
29. UNPREDICTABLE 30. ENTHUSIASM

31. AUTHORIZED/ SED32. EXPECTANCY33. RESPECTIVELY

III. (3.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer:

34. C35. C36. D

IV. (2.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer:

37. B38. C

V. (2.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer:

39. B40. A

B. READING:

I. (5 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer:

41. D42. B43. C44. E45. A

II. (5 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer:

46. B47. A48. D49. C50. E

III. (10 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer:

51. B52. C53. D54. A55. B

56. D57. C58. A59. B60. C

IV. (10 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer:

61. D62. D63. A64. C65. A

66. B67. C68. C69. C70. B

D. WRITING:

I. (5.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer:

71. Urgent actions must be taken to help the victims of the earthquake in Mexico.
72. You should not have allowed your 16-year-old son to drive your car.

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75. If you had not reminded me about the timetable, I would have missed the last train.
II. (10 points):

1. Form:

- Informal letter (1.0 point)

2. Task fulfillment:

- Task completed with relevant information (2.0 points)
- Well-organized (2.0 point)

3. Language:

- Accurate grammar (2.0 points)
- Appropriate vocabulary (2.0 points)

- Correct spelling and punctuation (1.0 point)
III. (15 points):

Score of 14-15: An essay at this level:
shows very effective writing skills

is very well organized and well developed

uses details clearly and properly to support a thesis or illustrate ideas
displays consistent ability in the use of language

demonstrates variety in sentence structure and proper word choice
Score of 11 - 13: An essay at this level:

shows effective writing skills

is well organized and well developed

uses details clearly and properly to support a thesis or illustrate ideas
displays consistent ability in the use of language

demonstrates variety in sentence structure and proper word choice
Score of 9 - 10: An essay at this level:

may address some parts of the task more effectively than others
is generally well organized and developed

uses details to support a thesis or illustrate an idea
displays ability in the use of the language

shows some variety in sentence structure and range of vocabulary
Score of 7 - 8: An essay at this level:

addresses the writing topic adequately but does not meet all of the goals of the task
is adequately organized and developed

uses some details to support a thesis or illustrate an idea

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Score of 5 - 6: An essay at this level may reveal one or more of the following
weaknesses:

inadequate organization or development

poor choice of details or does not provide enough details to support or illustrate generalizations
a noticeably improper choice of words or word forms

numerous errors in sentence structure and/ or usage

Score of 3 - 4: An essay at this level is seriously flawed by one or more of the following
weaknesses:

serious disorganization or underdevelopment
little or no detail, or irrelevant specifics

serious and frequent errors in sentence structure or usage
serious problems with focus

Score of 1- 2: An essay at this level:
may be incoherent

may be undeveloped

may contain severe and persistent writing errors
Score of 0: An essay will be rated 0 if it:
contains no response

merely copies the topic

is off-topic, written in a foreign language or consists only of keystroke characters

5. Đề số 5

I. Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others. (5
pts)

1. A. Opponent B. Compose C. Podium D. Advocate
2. A. Reserve B. Domestic C. Optimistic D. Nursery

3. A. Both B. Cloth C. Ghost D. Sold

4. A. Examine B. Determine C. Famine D. Dine
5. A. Sacred B. Decided C. Contaminated D. Watered

Your answers: 1. ______ 2. _______ 3. _______ 4. _______ 5. _______

II. Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from the others. (5 pts)
1. A. Counterpart B. Precede C. Nursery D. Compliment

2. A. Bewilder B. Audience C. Benefit D. Dedicate
3. A. Pessimistic B. University C. Epidemic D. Particular
4. A. Tsunami B. Terrorist C. Involvement D. Disaster
5. A. Processor B. Windsurfing C. Semester D. Challenger

Your answers: 1. _______ 2. _______ 3. _______ 4. _______ 5. _______

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I. Choose the best answer to complete the sentences. (10 pts)

1. According to the boss, John is the most ______ for the position of executive secretary.
A. supportive B. caring C. suitable D. comfortable

2. The children went _______ with excitement.
A. wild B. wildly C. wilderness D. wildlife

3. The sudden resignation of the financial director put the company in a very _______ position.
A. weak B. unsteady C. vulnerable D. collapsed

4. David: Would you like fish or meat? Mary: I _______ fish, please.
A. would rather B. would prefer C. suppose D. believe

5. Many teenagers show signs of anxiety and _______ when being asked about their future.
A. depress B. depression C. depressed D. depressing

6. There was a huge decline _______ the number of tigers.
A. in B. for C. of D. out

7. I’d rather you _______ anything about the garden until the weather improves.
A. don’t make B. didn’t do C. don’t do D. didn’t make

8. A part – time job gives me the freedom to _______ my own interests.
A. pursue B. chase C. seek D. catch

9. The new road currently under _______ will solve the traffic problems in the town.
A. design B. progress C. construction D. work

10. - Daisy: “What a lovely house you have!” - Mary: “______.”
A. Lovely, I think so B. Thank you. Hope you will drop in
C. Of course not, it’s not costly D. No problem

Your answers: 1. _______ 2. _______ 3. _______ 4. _______ 5. ________

6. _______ 7. _______ 8. _______ 9. _______ 10. _______

II. Complete the following sentences with the correct form of the verbs in brackets. (10
pts)

1. Bi Rain, together with 58 members of the South Korean
National Military Symphony Orchestra and 17 traditional
musicians, (come) to Vietnam since yesterday.

2. Up to now, nothing (do) to solve their problem.

3. He suggested that his son (be) on time for the interview.
4. Tom will come home as soon as he (finish) his test.
5. ASEAN (found) in 1967 in Bangkok, Thai land.

6. In times of war, the Red Cross (dedicate) to reducing the
sufferings of wounded soldiers, civilians, and prisoners of war.
7. Hardly our teacher (enter) the classroom when it started to
rain.

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8. In a few minutes' time, when the clock strikes six, I (wait) for
you here.

9 - 10. Living in a fast - paced and mobile society (create) family
stresses that (not imagine) by our great grandparents.

_________________________
_________________________

ĐÁP ÁN
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM

(Tổng điểm: 100 điểm)

Section a: Phonetics (10 points)
I. 5 pts: (Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
1. D 2. A 3. B 4. D 5. D

II. 5 pts: (Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
1. B 2. A 3. D 4. B 5. C

Section B: Grammar & Vocabulary (40 points)
I. 10 pts: (Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)

1. C 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. B
6. A 7. B 8. A 9. C 10. B

II. 10 pts: (Mỗi động từ chia đúng 1 điểm)
1. has come 2. has been done

3. (should) be 4. has finished
5. was founded 6. is dedicated

7. had our teacher entered 8. will be waiting
9. has created 10. couldn’t have been imagined
III. 10 pts (Mỗi từ đúng 1 điểm)

1. stability 2. economically
3. endangered 4. terrorist
5. destruction 6. variety
7. indefensible 8. disobedient
9. attractiveness 10. unpredictable
IV. 10 pts (Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
1. C 2. D 3. B 4. C 5. D

6. C 7. C 8. B 9. D 10. B

Section C: reading (30 points)

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1. B 2. C 3. D 4. D 5. C 6. B 7. A 8. C
9. B 10. B 11. C 12. A 13. C 14. A 15. B
III. 10 pts: (Mỗi câu chọn đúng cho 1 điểm)
1. B 2. A 3. A 4. D 5. D

Section D: writing (20 points)

I. 10 pts: (Mỗi câu viết đúng cho 1 điểm)

1. Only after/ when all the guests had gone (home) could we/ were we able to relax.
2. There has been a sharp increase/ rise in (the) house prices this year.

3. Had it not been for the attendance / presence/ appearance of a famous film star the party
would not have been a success/would have been a failure.

4. I’d rather you didn’t smoke in my house.

5. He broke the world record at/ on his second attempt.

6. Hardly a day passes/ goes by without me/ my writing to him/ but I write to him/ when I don’t
write to him.

7. All dogs are thought to have evolved from wolves.

8. Make sure you finish (typing) all these letters before going/ you go to lunch.

9. The annual rainfall in/ for the northwest of Britain is higher/ greater than (that in) the
southeast.

The annual rainfall in/ for the southeast of Britain is lower/ less than (that in) the northwest.
10. Henry wishes (that) he hadn’t bought the second - hand car.

II. (5pts): (Mỗi câu viết đúng cho 1 điểm)

1. The two theories (appear to) have (got) nothing in common.
2. I can’t/ won’t put up with his rude behaviour.

3. I have (considerable) difficulty (in) reading his hand writing
4. He has neither money nor time to go on holiday.

5. A quiet holiday would do you good.
5. A quiet holiday would do you good.
III. 5 pts: (Mỗi câu viết đúng cho 1 điểm)

1. My mother takes the responsibility for running the household.

2. ASEAN has a population of 575.5 million, accounting for (about) 8.7 % of the world’s
population.

3. It was not until Einstein was eight that he could speak.

4. Defensive players aren’t allowed to interfere with the opponent’s movements unless the (that)
player is holding the ball.

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