A+ NETWORK+ SECURITY+ EXAMSIN A NUTSHELL phần 6 pptx

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Resolving printing problems
• You must gather information about a problem before reaching a conclusion.
• Printing problems can be due to hardware, software, or user errors.
• A user may not have sufficient permissions, his computer may not be con-
nected to the network, or he may be sending the print job to a wrong printer.
• You must verify that the printer is online and not out of paper.
• Try printing from a different computer or using a different application.
• Use test patterns to test the quality of the printed image.
Preventive maintenance of printers and scanners
• Scheduled maintenance helps prevent several problems and improves the life
and performance of printers and scanners.
• Printers and scanners should be located in environments where temperature
and humidity are controlled.
• The area around these devices should be kept clean.
• Manufacturer-recommended paper supplies only should be used.
• Refilled inkjet and toner cartridges do not produce good quality images.
• When required, use only recommended replacement spares.
Networks
This subsection covers a summary of highlights from the “Networks” section in
the A+ Exams Study Guide.
Installing and configuring a network adapter
• Ensure that the adapter is compatible with computer hardware and the OS.
• Check whether the adapter is PnP-compatible.
• Obtain the adapter driver if the OS does not automatically install it.
• Manual configuration includes setting parameters such as IRQ, I/O, and
DMA.
• You can use the Add Hardware Wizard to install the network adapter.
• The Device Manager can be used to install or upgrade a driver for the

installed adapter.
Joining a Windows workgroup or domain
• You can join a workgroup or a domain during installation of the OS.
• After installation, the computer can be joined to a workgroup or a domain
from the System tab inside the Control Panel.
• You will need administrative privileges to join a domain.
• The DNS name of the domain is required.
• A DNS server and a domain controller must be available to validate your
credentials.
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Joining a NetWare network
• You need supervisor rights to join a computer to a NetWare network.
• You must know the internal network number, directory context, and the
name of the directory tree.
• Configure the user’s desktop with context and tree names, as a user may find
these difficult to remember.
NTFS permissions
• File and folder permissions are assigned from the Properties window.
• NTFS permissions are available only on NTFS partitions.
• FAT partitions support only share permissions.
• Permissions can be set to Allow or Deny an object.
• Administrators and owners of an object have full control permissions on an
object.
Configuring script settings
• JavaScript, ActiveX controls, and cookies are client-side components of Inter-
net services.
• These components are downloaded from the web server and run on the cli-
ent computer.

• Support for scripts is configured on a Windows computer from the Security
tab available in Internet Options.
• Custom level security settings allow you to configure settings as required.
Configuring proxy settings
• Internet browsers can be configured to connect to the Internet directly or
through a proxy server.
• A proxy server is used to share a single Internet connection among multiple
network users.
• It provides better performance by caching frequently visited web pages.
• Open the Connections tab in Internet Options to configure the computer to
use a proxy server.
• Click the LAN settings button and enter the IP address of the proxy server.
Network troubleshooting utilities
• ipconfig is used to test the TCP/IP configuration of a computer.
• ping is used to test connectivity between two hosts.
• tracert is used to trace the route taken by a data packet from the source to the
destination.
• nslookup is used to resolve name resolution problems.
Troubleshooting tools
• Cable testers are used to test whether the cable is working properly.
• Tone generators and tone locators are used to test cables by means of audio
signals.
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• Loopback connectors are used to test functionality of network ports.
• An optical time domain reflectometer (OTDR) is used to test fiber optic
cables.
Adapter configuration problems
• Improperly configured protocol or port settings cause networking problems.

• Network adapters use system resources such as IRQ, I/O address and DMA.
• These resources must not be in conflict with other devices.
• Use the System Information utility to find out resource conflicts.
• Driver problems can be resolved using the Device Manager.
• The Device Manager allows you to update, uninstall, or rollback drivers.
TCP/IP configuration problems
• The network adapter must have a valid IP address, subnet mask, and gate-
way address.
• The chance of assigning an incorrect IP address increases when clients are
configured with static addresses.
• A DHCP server can prevent the duplication of IP addresses by automatically
allocating IP addresses.
• DNS and WINS addresses must also be correct to prevent name resolution
problems.
• You can ping the loopback address of the adapter to verify TCP/IP protocol.
IPX/SPX configuration problems
• The internal network number must be unique for every host.
• The network number must be the same for all hosts in a network.
• A correct frame type must be configured on every host that needs manual
configuration.
Problems with resource access permissions
• A user who wants to access a resource must be granted sufficient permissions.
• Reading and executing a file needs the Read and Execute permission.
• Saving files or folders requires at least the Write permission.
• Changing file ownership or modifying permissions needs Full Control
permissions.
• Conflicting group permissions can also prevent access to resources.
• Conflicts in share and NTFS permissions can also deny access to a user who
otherwise should have it.
Electrical interference

• Electrical interference degrades signal quality as it travels on network cables.
• Degradation of signals is called attenuation.
• UTP cables should not be run in areas of high electromagnetic interference
(EMI).
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• Wireless signals are affected by both electromagnetic and radio frequency
interference (RFI).
• Signal boosters can be used for extending the area of wireless coverage.
Preventive maintenance for networks
• Network cables should be run through secure routes.
• Cable connectors must be securely attached to devices.
• Physical access to network equipment should be restricted to authorized per-
sonnel.
• Apply security for servers and desktops by using permissions.
• Install the latest software updates on servers and desktops.
• Data backup and recovery procedures should be implemented.
• Clean power supply should be provided for equipment, and it must be
redundant.
Security
This subsection covers a summary of highlights from the “Security” section in the
A+ Exams Study Guide.
Access control
• Access control is the method of granting or denying access to system or net-
work resources.
• It is applied on files, folders, or other shared resources by assigning permis-
sions.
• Mandatory access control is hardcoded into devices and is universally
applied.

• Discretionary access control is applied through the operating system by
means of permissions.
• Role-based access control is implemented on objects for roles of users and
groups.
User accounts
• A user account allows a user to log on to the system and access resources.
• A local user account allows users to log on locally to a computer and access
local resources.
• A domain user account allows users to log on to the network from any com-
puter in the network and access network-wide resources.
• The administrator account has full control over the system.
• The guest account is meant for occasional users.
• Normal user accounts are created for users to access resources for which they
have permissions.
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Using groups to control access
• A group is a collection of user accounts.
• Users are grouped based on their job roles; permissions are assigned to
groups.
• Groups simplify the administration of resources.
Permissions
• File permissions are configured on individual files.
• File permissions are applied to both local and network access.
• Folder permissions are configured on folders.
• Shared folder permissions are applied only for network access.
• Printer permissions are applied only for accessing and managing printers.
Levels of access
• The level of access is defined in the Access Control List (ACL) for each

object.
• The Read permission allows users to read the contents of a file or folder.
• The Write permission allows users to create new files and subfolders in fold-
ers and to write data to files.
• The Read and Execute permission allows users to read the contents of a file
and execute the file.
• The Modify permission allows users to modify the contents of a file or a
folder.
• The Full Control permission allows users to change permissions on a file or
folder and perform all actions permitted by other permissions.
• The List Folder Contents (Folder Only) permission allows users to navigate
through the folder and subfolders.
Restricted spaces
• Restricted physical access ensures the safety and security of expensive and
critical network equipment, servers, and cabling systems.
• Physical access to restricted spaces is granted to authorized personnel only.
• Restricted spaces are equipped with alarm systems to prevent theft.
• Logbooks are maintained to keep record of the persons entering the restricted
rooms.
Auditing and event logging
• Auditing is the process of tracking system usage resource access.
• It also helps diagnose application failures.
• Account management includes events related to the creation, modification,
and deletion of user accounts by administrators.
• Log Off and Log On includes events related to users logging on or off the
local computer.
• Process Tracking includes events related to actions performed by software
applications.
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• Object Access includes events related to the access of files and folders by
users.
• Privilege Use includes events related to a user exercising her rights, such as
changing the system time.
• System Events includes events related to system processes such as shutting
down or restarting the computer. These events also relate to system security.
• The audit entries are written to log files.
• Log files can be analyzed to track security breaches and troubleshoot prob-
lems related to application processes.
Enabling and disabling auditing
• Auditing on Windows XP and Windows 2000 is available only on NTFS
drives.
• The Auditing policy has to be enabled from the Local Security Policies snap-in.
• Auditing for individual files is enabled from its properties.
Authentication technologies
• The username and password is the most basic form of authentication.
• Hardware tokens or security tokens are the most trusted means of
authentication.
• Biometric devices authenticate a user by his physical characteristics.
• Wireless authentication methods include open system, shared key, 802.1x,
and WPA.
Software firewalls
• A software firewall is an application or a part of the operating system.
• A personal firewall is installed on an individual PC.
• Windows XP includes a firewall feature that can be turned on from the Con-
trol Panel.
Data access security
• Data access security is configured using NTFS and share permissions.
• Permissions are assigned to users and groups.

• The most restrictive of share and NTFS permissions takes effect.
• NTFS permissions for a user in multiple groups are combined to grant the
highest level of access.
Troubleshooting software firewall issues
• Firewall rules or settings should be checked for proper configuration.
• Access can be allowed or denied based on the source and destination IP
address, port, and protocols.
• Improperly configured firewall settings can deny access to legitimate users.
• It can also allow access to external attacks.
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Troubleshooting security issues
• The Service Set Identifier (SSID) configuration on wireless clients is a com-
mon problem.
• Improperly configured or insufficient permissions can also deny access to
users.
• Conflicts in share and NTFS permissions create access problems.
• Mismatching or unsupported encryption protocols will not allow a user to
log on.
Preventive maintenance for security
• Account policies define how user accounts are handled when someone tries
to log on using an incorrect password.
• Password policies define how users maintain their passwords.
• Audit policies can track logon attempts and reject access by unauthorized
users.
• Software restriction policies define which applications are not allowed to run
on a system.
• Security policies for the Windows Registry help prevent unauthorized
modification.

Social engineering
• Social engineering is the process of acquiring personal or confidential infor-
mation about someone.
• Social engineering attacks are usually launched over the phone or through
email and chatting.
• Social engineering can also be launched during face-to-face interactions
between a user and an attacker.
• Phishing attacks are a form of social engineering.
• The best protection against social engineering is to educate users about the
security policies of the organization.
Practice Questions for the A+ Exams
1. You have been asked to install an IDE disk to a personal computer. This will
be the only disk in the computer connected to the primary channel. How
would you set the jumper?
❍ A. Master
❍ B. Slave
❍ C. Cable Select
❍ D. Auto
Answer A is correct. A single disk is connected to the primary channel and
acts as a master disk.
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2. Which of the following is the most important factor when selecting a memory
module to upgrade memory in a personal computer?
❍ A. The module has the highest memory available in the market.
❍ B. The module is built with state-of-the art technology.
❍ C. The module is compatible with the system bus.
❍ D. The module can double the system memory.
Answer C is correct. The most important factor when selecting a memory

module is to verify that the module is compatible with the system bus on the
motherboard.
3. Which of the following is the name for the diagnostic process built into
motherboards?
❍ A. POST
❍ B. CMOS
❍ C. BIOS
❍ D. DHCP
Answer A is correct. The POST is the diagnostics program built into all moth-
erboards. POST checks the functionality of all the hardware components of
the motherboard.
4. You have just disconnected a hard disk from a computer and detected a red
stripe on the data cable. What is the purpose of this red stripe?
❍ A. It indicates the last pin of the cable.
❍ B. It indicates the first pin of the cable.
❍ C. It indicates that the cable was tested by the manufacturer.
❍ D. It indicates the top end of the cable.
Answer B is correct. The red marking on the data cable indicates pin number 1.
5. Which of the following is the most important precaution you should take
while working on internal parts of the computer? Select two answers.
❏ A. Turn off the power supply.
❏ B. Disconnect the power cables from all drives.
❏ C. Disconnect the power cable from the motherboard.
❏ D. Wear a properly grounded antistatic wrist strap.
Answers A and D are correct. You must turn off power to prevent shocks and
wear a properly grounded antistatic wrist strap when working on internal
parts of a computer. Semiconductor devices on the motherboard and adapter
cards are very sensitive to static electricity.
6. You have just replaced a malfunctioning motherboard in a computer with a
brand new one. You want to make sure that the new motherboard is func-

tioning well before you connect other components such as the network
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adapter and graphics card. Which of the following methods can be used to
test the basic functionality of the motherboard?
❍ A. POST
❍ B. Beep codes
❍ C. Successful boot
❍ D. BIOS
Answer B is correct. Beep codes will usually indicate whether there is any
problem with the basic functionality of the motherboard. Different manufac-
turers of BIOS software have different beep codes, and you must refer to the
motherboard user manual for the exact meaning of a particular beep code.
7. Which of these methods can be used to test a 10/100 Mbps network port
built on the motherboard without connecting it to the network?
❍ A. Multimeter
❍ B. Loopback adapter
❍ C. Visual indicators
❍ D. Beep codes
Answer B is correct. A loopback adapter can be used to test the network port
built onto a motherboard or onto a separate network adapter. The loopback
tester usually works with accompanying software to send and receive data
signals to test whether the port is working.
8. Which of the following components ensure that thermally sensitive devices
do not overheat during the normal operation of a personal computer? Select
all correct answers.
❏ A. UPS
❏ B. Heat sink
❏ C. Fans

❏ D. Ribbon cables
❏ E. Ventilation slots
Answers B, C, and E are correct. Heat sinks are used to dissipate heat from
the surface of semiconductor devices such as the CPU. The exhaust fans blow
the hot air away from internal components. Ventilation slots ensure proper
flow of air inside the computer case.
9. During the POST you can hear only a single beep. What does this beep
usually indicate?
❍ A. A problem with on-board memory.
❍ B. A problem with expanded memory.
❍ C. An audio problem.
❍ D. A successful POST.
Answer D is correct. In most motherboards, the BIOS is programmed to
sound a single beep during a POST to indicate that the POST has success-
fully completed.
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10. Which of the following is considered to be the fastest port and is commonly
used on laptops?
❍ A. PS/2
❍ B. USB
❍ C. Serial
❍ D. Parallel
Answer B is correct. USB ports are commonly used on laptop computers and
are relatively faster than all other ports.
11. Which of the following wireless IEEE standards uses a radio frequency of 2.4
GHz with a data transfer speed of 11 Mbps?
❍ A. 802.11b
❍ B. 802.11c

❍ C. 802.11e
❍ D. 802.11g
Answer A is correct. The 802.11b standard specifies a radio frequency band
of 2.4 GHz with a data transmission speed of 11 Mbps. The frequency speci-
fied for 802.11g is also 2.4 GHz but with a data transmission speed of 54
Mbps.
12. The laptop used by your manager is having video problems. What should
you do to find out whether there is a problem with the LCD screen? Select
two answers.
❏ A. Connect an external monitor.
❏ B. Change the LCD screen.
❏ C. Remove the LCD screen cable and reconnect it.
❏ D. Recycle power on the laptop.
❏ E. Toggle the video function key.
Answers A and E are correct. You can try connecting to an external monitor
to find out whether the problem is with the LCD screen or the video card.
You will also need to use the video toggle key to use the external monitor.
13. Which of the following is not a recommended method to enhance the life and
performance of a laptop battery?
❍ A. Fully discharge and recharge the battery every day.
❍ B. Fully discharge and recharge the battery every two to three weeks.
❍ C. Use only NiCd batteries.
❍ D. Use the power management features available in the operating system.
Answer B is correct. The laptop battery should be fully discharged and
recharged every two or three weeks. It is not a good idea to fully discharge the
battery and recharge it every day.
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14. You need to edit a file using Notepad but the Windows XP system does not

allow you to save the file. How can you resolve this problem using the
command line?
❍ A. Type
help with the filename at the command prompt.
❍ B. Use the attrib command to change the read-only attribute of the file.
❍ C. Use the copy command to copy the file to a different location and then
edit it.
❍ D. Use the edit command instead of using the Notepad to edit the file.
Answer B is correct. The file has the read-only attribute set, which should be
changed using the attrib command before you can edit the file and save it
with the same filename.
15. You have noticed that the performance of your Windows 2000 Professional
computer is degrading day by day. You suspect that the hard disk does not
respond as quickly as it should when you open files. What should you first do
to improve the hard disk performance?
❍ A. Analyze the hard disk.
❍ B. Defragment the hard disk.
❍ C. Run the chkdsk utility.
❍ D. Replace the disk immediately.
❍ E. Upgrade to Windows XP Professional.
Answer B is correct. The disk should be defragmented in order to improve its
performance. Just analyzing the disk will only give you information about its
fragmentation. When you perform defragmentation, the disk is automati-
cally analyzed for fragmentation. The chkdsk utility is used to check for and
fix file system errors and problems with bad sectors on a disk.
16. Which of the following methods can be used to format a disk partition?
Select all correct answers.
❏ A. The format command
❏ B. The diskpart utility
❏ C. Windows Explorer

❏ D. The Disk Management snap-in
❏ E. The Device Manager snap-in
Answers A, C, and D are correct. You can format a disk partition using the
format command, Windows Explorer, or the Disk Management snap-in. The
diskpart utility does not include any command for formatting a disk partition.
17. You upgraded the driver of your printer after downloading it from the manu-
facturer’s web site. The printer stopped working after the upgrade. How can
you resolve the problem? Select two answers.
❏ A. Reinstall the old printer driver.
❏ B. Use the Rollback Driver button in the Device Manager.
❏ C. Completely remove the new printer driver and reinstall it.
❏ D. Turn off the printer when installing the driver.
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Answers A and B are correct. You will need to reinstall the old printer driver
that was working. You can also use the Rollback Driver button in the Device
Manager to install the printer driver. Reinstalling the new driver after
completely removing it will not help. The printer should be connected and
turned on when the driver is installed.
18. You have decided to use the System Restore utility to fix a computer running
Windows XP, which is showing intermittent problems. Which of the
following is required in order to use the system restore utility?
❍ A. A full backup of the system.
❍ B. A system restore point.
❍ C. A backup of the System State data.
❍ D. An Automatic System Restore disk.
Answer B is correct. You must first create a system restore point in order to
use the System Restore utility.
19. Which of the following is an alternative to adding more random access

memory (RAM) to a computer?
❍ A. Add internal CPU cache memory.
❍ B. Add a new hard disk.
❍ C. Increase the size of the paging file.
❍ D. Decrease the size of the paging file.
Answer C is correct. An alternative to adding RAM to a computer is to
increase the size of the paging file. The computer uses the paging file to swap
data when there is insufficient RAM in the computer.
20. You installed a new game on a Windows XP computer, and the computer
fails to restart. Which of the following methods can you use to fix this startup
problem?
❍ A. Use the Last Known Good Configuration from the Advanced Boot
menu.
❍ B. Use the Recovery Console to uninstall the new game.
❍ C. Use the last full backup tape to restore the system.
❍ D. Use an Emergency Repair Disk (ERD) to repair the startup files.
Answer A is correct. You can use the Last Known Good Configuration from the
Advanced Boot options to restore the system to the previous working configu-
ration. You cannot use the Recovery Console to uninstall the game, nor can
you do it using the last full backup tape. ERD will also not help. Moreover,
ERD can only be used on Windows NT and Windows 2000 computers.
21. Which of the following is important regarding downloading and installing
software updates?
❍ A. All systems should be configured for automatic download and
installation.
❍ B. All updates should be installed as soon as they are available.
❍ C. Updates should be thoroughly tested before installation.
❍ D. There is no need to install any updates unless they address some secu-
rity issue.
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Answer C is correct. All updates from software vendors should be thor-
oughly tested before installation. It does not matter whether the updates
address a specific application issue or a security issue—updates must be
tested before they are installed on several computers.
22. One of the printers in your office is not responding. You have checked all
physical connections and found that the printer is online. When you check
the Printer Properties on the computer where the printer is shared, it shows a
long list of documents. Which of the following could be a potential problem?
❍ A. The printer driver.
❍ B. The port where the printer is connected.
❍ C. A document that is stuck in the print spooler.
❍ D. Permissions associated with the user who sent the print job.
Answer C is correct. The print job that is on the top of the list of documents
in the print spooler is causing the printer problem. There is no problem with
either the printer driver or the printer port. It is also unlikely that the problem
is associated with print permissions.
23. Which of the following parts in a laser printer is used to transfer a high posi-
tive voltage to charge the paper?
❍ A. Drum
❍ B. Transfer corona wire
❍ C. Primary corona wire
❍ D. Fuser
Answer B is correct. The transfer corona wire supplies a high positive charge
to the paper. The function of the primary corona wire is to charge the drum
with a high negative voltage.
24. You have been asked to connect a Windows XP Professional computer to a
TCP/IP printer that is directly connected to a network port. Which of the
following is the correct procedure to accomplish this task?

❍ A. Select the Local Printer option and create a new port.
❍ B. Select the Local Printer option and browse for the network port.
❍ C. Select the Network Printer option and browse for the network port.
❍ D. Select the Network Printer option and enter the name of the printer.
Answer A is correct. To attach to a TCP/IP printer connected directly to a
network port, you must select Local Printer Attached To This Computer and
create a new TCP/IP port. You select the Network Printer option when the
printer is attached to another computer designated as a print server.
25. Which of the following printers is suitable for printing multipart invoices?
❍ A. Dot matrix printer
❍ B. Laser printer
❍ C. Inkjet printer
❍ D. Bubble-jet printer
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Answer A is correct. A dot matrix printer is suitable for use with multipart
forms such as invoices. This is because a dot matrix printer is an impact
printer that makes a good impression on multiple sheets of paper.
26. Which of the following ports cannot be used to connect a scanner?
❍ A. USB
❍ B. Serial
❍ C. SCSI
❍ D. PS/2
Answer D is correct. Of the given choices, a scanner can be connected to a
serial, SCSI, or USB port, but not to a PS/2 port. The PS/2 port is generally
used to connect a mouse or a keyboard.
27. Which of the following types of cables is not prone to electromagnetic
interferences?
❍ A. UTP cable

❍ B. STP cable
❍ C. Coaxial cable
❍ D. Fiber optic cable
Answer D is correct. The fiber optic cable transfers data using optical (light)
signals. This type of cable is not prone to electromagnetic interferences.
28. Which of the following components of an IP address is used to distinguish
the network address from a host address?
❍ A. Default gateway
❍ B. Subnet mask
❍ C. DNS server
❍ D. WINS server
Answer B is correct. The subnet mask is used to distinguish a network
address from a host address on a TCP/IP network.
29. A computer cannot communicate with any of the computers on a different
network segment. It has no problem connecting to other computers that are
located on its own network segment. Which of the following IP address
parameters are possibly incorrectly configured on the computer?
❍ A. IP address
❍ B. Subnet mask
❍ C. Default gateway
❍ D. DNS server
Answer C is correct. If the IP address of the default gateway is incorrectly
configured, the computer will not be able to communicate with any other
computers located on different network segments. If the default gateway is
configured correctly, you will need to check the IP address and the subnet
mask.
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30. Which of the following devices connects different network segments and uses

tables to create a map of the network topology?
❍ A. Router
❍ B. Switch
❍ C. Bridge
❍ D. Hub
Answer A is correct. A router is used to connect different network segments.
It uses routing tables to create a map of the network topology and route
packets based on the network addresses in IP packets.
31. Which of the following name resolution methods is best suited when you
have only Windows computers, and there is only a single network segment
not connected to the Internet?
❍ A. LMHOSTS file
❍ B. HOSTS file
❍ C. DNS
❍ D. WINS
Answer D is correct. When you have only Windows computers and there is
only one network segment, WINS can serve the purpose of name resolution.
If the network is large and is connected to the Internet, you will need the
DNS server for name resolution.
32. Which of the following is a primary requirement for an Infrared wireless
connection?
❍ A. A shared frequency band.
❍ B. A direct line of sight.
❍ C. An access point.
❍ D. A wireless router.
Answer B is correct. The primary requirement for an infrared wireless
connection is the direct line of sight. This is why the infrared wireless connec-
tion is also called a point-to-point connection. Infrared signals cannot pass
through wooden or concrete walls.
33. Which of the following network topologies does not allow you to add or

remove computers without affecting the network?
❍ A. Ring
❍ B. Bus
❍ C. Mesh
❍ D. Star
Answer B is correct. The entire network is affected when you add or remove
computers in a bus network.
Practice Questions for the A+ Exams | 413
Prep and
Practice
34. Which of the following methods uses the physical characteristics of a user to
verify identity?
❍ A. Biometrics
❍ B. Username and password
❍ C. Kerberos
❍ D. CHAP
Answer A is correct. Biometric security devices are used to verify the identity
of a person by matching physical characteristics such as fingerprints or eye
retina.
35. In which of the following authentication methods is an encrypted challenge
text sent to the user to verify her credentials?
❍ A. Kerberos
❍ B. PAP
❍ C. CHAP
❍ D. EAP
Answer C is correct. CHAP stands for Challenge Handshake Authentication
Protocol. In this authentication method, a challenge text is sent to the user in
encrypted form. The user sends the challenge text back to the authentication
server, which compares the two messages. The user is authenticated only if a
match is found.

36. One of the senior network administrators who has recently joined the
company has asked a few users to give him their usernames and passwords to
complete an urgent task. What kind of security attack does this indicate?
❍ A. Man in the Middle
❍ B. Replay attack
❍ C. Spoofing
❍ D. Social engineering
Answer D is correct. When someone is trying to get you to believe that he is
acting in your interests and asks for confidential information, he is actually
initiating a social engineering attack.
37. Your company has installed a biometric device to take fingerprints of every
person who wants to enter the restricted room where servers and network
equipment are installed. Which of the following is the purpose of this device?
❍ A. Auditing
❍ B. Data integrity
❍ C. Confidentiality
❍ D. Authentication
❍ E. Access control
Answer D is correct. The purpose of installing biometric devices is to provide
authentication. Auditing is configured on network resources while security
protocols are used for data confidentiality and integrity.
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Chapter 6: Prep and Practice for the A+ Exams 220-602, 220-603, and 220-604
38. You have been asked to work out a backup plan for the two most critical
servers in the office. Your manager wants you to ensure that data could be
restored using only a single tape. Which of the following backup methods
would you suggest?
❍ A. A full backup everyday.
❍ B. A full backup on Friday nights and incremental backs from Monday to

Thursday.
❍ C. An incremental backup on Friday, and differential backups from
Monday to Thursday.
❍ D. A full backup every Friday.
Answer A is correct. When you want to restore data from a single backup
tape, full backup needs to be performed on a daily basis. A full backup stores
complete data on a single tape.
39. Which of the following safety measures help reduce the effects of static
discharge? Select all correct answers.
❏ A. Antistatic bag
❏ B. Antistatic wrist strap
❏ C. Antistatic table mat
❏ D. Antistatic body wrap
❏ E. Antistatic head cover
Answers A, B, and C are correct. Antistatic bags, antistatic wrist straps, and
antistatic table and floor mats all help reduce the effects of static electricity.
This is the Title of the Book, eMatter Edition
Copyright © 2007 O’Reilly & Associates, Inc. All rights reserved.
III
Network+
417
Chapter 7Network+ Overview
7
Overview of the Network+
Exam
CompTIA’s Network+ certification is for those individuals who intend to prove
their expertise in computer networking. You will need to pass only one exam
(Exam N10-003) to get this certification. This exam tests your foundation-level
knowledge of network media and topologies; protocols and standards; and

network implementation and support. A Network+ certified individual is consid-
ered to have proven skills in general networking concepts, installation,
configuration, and troubleshooting of basic networking hardware. CompTIA’s
Network+ certification is vendor-neutral and is recognized worldwide.
One good thing about CompTIA’s certifications is that they do not expire. In
other words, CompTIA’s certifications are good for life. You do not have to recer-
tify if the exam objectives change. I still recommend that you check CompTIA’s
Network+ exam web site from time to time at />network for news and updates on exam objectives.
The approximate percentage of coverage for each domain in the Network+ exam
is given in Table 7-1.
Table 7-1. Network+ exam domains and percentage of coverage
Domain Percentage of coverage
Media and Topologies 20 percent
Protocols and Standards 20 percent
Network Implementation 25 percent
Network Support 35 percent
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Chapter 7: Overview of the Network+ Exam
CompTIA recommends that in order to pass the Network+ exam, a candidate
should have at least nine months of hands-on experience working in a networked
computer environment. It is also recommended that the candidate pass the A+
exam before attempting to write the Network+ exam. It is a good idea to have
studied a Network+ certification exam self-paced study guide or attended a
training course before you attempt to take this exam. You will then be ready to
use this section of the book for your final exam preparation.
CompTIA’s Network+ Exam N10-003 is fairly easy. If you are well-
prepared, you will easily get through this exam. It is recommended
that you take this exam after passing the A+ exams. The combina-
tion of A+ and Network+ certifications qualify you to get an

exemption for one elective exam in Microsoft’s MCSA/MCSE track.
Areas of Study for the Network+ Exam | 419
Network+
Overview
Areas of Study for the Network+ Exam
Media and Topologies
• Recognize the following logical or physical network topologies given a dia-
gram, a schematic, or a description:
— Star
— Bus
— Mesh
— Ring
• Specify the main features of 802.2 (Logical Link Control), 802.3 (Ethernet),
802.5 (token ring), 802.11 (wireless), and FDDI (Fiber Distributed Data
Interface) networking technologies, including speed, access method (CSMA/
CA and CSMA/CD), topology, or media.
• Specify the characteristics (speed, length, topology, and cable type) of the fol-
lowing cable standards:
— 10BASE-T and 10BASE-FL
— 100BASE-TX and 100BASE-FX
— 1000BASE-T, 1000BASE-CX, 1000BASE-SX, and 1000BASE-LX
— 10 GBASE-SR, 10 GBASE-LR, and 10 GBASE-ER
• Recognize the following media connectors and describe their uses:
— RJ-11 and RJ-45 (Registered Jacks)
— F-Type
— ST (Straight Tip) and SC (Subscriber or Standard Connector)
— IEEE 1394 (FireWire)
— Fiber LC (Local Connector)
— MT-RJ (Mechanical Transfer Registered Jack)
— USB (Universal Serial Bus)

• Recognize the following media types and describe their uses:
— Category 3, 5, 5e, and 6
— UTP (unshielded twisted pair)
— STP (shielded twisted pair)
— Coaxial cable
— SMF (Single-Mode Fiber) and MMF (Multimode Fiber) optic cables
• Identify the purposes, features, and functions of the following network
components:
— Hubs, switches, bridges, routers, and gateways
— CSU/DSU (Channel Service Unit/Data Service Unit)
— NICs (Network Interface Card)
— ISDN (Integrated Services Digital Network) adapters
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Chapter 7: Overview of the Network+ Exam
— WAPs (Wireless Access Point)
— Modems
— Transceivers (media converters)
— Firewalls
• Specify the general characteristics (carrier speed, frequency, transmission
type, and topology) of wireless technologies such as 802.11 (a frequency hop-
ping spread spectrum) or 802.11x (a direct frequency spread spectrum),
Infrared, and Bluetooth.
• Identify factors that affect the range and speed of wireless service (interfer-
ence, antenna type, and environmental factors).
Protocols and Standards
• Identify a MAC (Media Access Control) address and its parts.
• Identify the seven layers of the OSI (Open Systems Interconnect) model and
their functions.
• Identify the OSI (Open Systems Interconnect) layers at which the following

network components operate:
— Hubs, switches, bridges and routers
— NICs (Network Interface Card)
— WAPs (Wireless Access Point)
• Differentiate between the network protocols in terms of the routing, address-
ing schemes, interoperability, and naming conventions of IPX (Internetwork
Packet Exchange)/SPX (Sequential Packet Exchange), NetBEUI (Network
Basic Input/Output System Extended User Interface), AppleTalk/AppleTalk
over IP, and TCP/IP (Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol).
• Identify the components and structure of IP (Internet Protocol) addresses
(IPv4 and IPv6) and the required setting for connections across the Internet.
• Identify classful IP address ranges and their subnet masks (Class A, B, and C).
• Identify the purpose of subnetting.
• Identify the differences between private and public network addressing
schemes.
• Identify and differentiate between static, dynamic, and self-assigned (APIPA)
addresses.
• Define the purpose, function and use of the protocols used in the TCP/IP
suite:
— TCP (Transmission Control Protocol)
— UDP (User Datagram Protocol)
— FTP (File Transfer Protocol)
— SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol)
— TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol)
— SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol)
Areas of Study for the Network+ Exam | 421
Network+
Overview
— HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol)
— HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure)

— POP3/IMAP4 (Post Office Protocol version 3)/(Internet Message Access
Protocol version 4)
— Telnet
— SSH (Secure Shell)
— ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol)
— ARP/RARP (Address Resolution Protocol)/(Reverse Address Resolution
Protocol)
— NTP (Network Time Protocol)
— NNTP (Network News Transport Protocol)
— SCP (Secure Copy Protocol)
— LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol)
— IGMP (Internet Group Multicast Protocol)
— LPR (Line Printer Remote)
• Define the function of TCP/UDP ports.
• Identify the well-known ports associated with the commonly used services
and protocols.
• Identify the purpose of network services and protocols, such as DNS, NAT,
ICS, WINS, SNMP, NFS, Zeroconf, SMB, AFP LPD, and Samba.
• Identify the basic characteristics (speed, capacity and media) of the following
WAN (Wide Area Network) technologies: packet switching, circuit switch-
ing, ISDN, FDDI, T1/E1/J1, T3/E3/J3, Ocx, and X.25.
• Identify the basic characteristics of Internet access technologies such as
xDSL, broadband cable, POTS/PSTN, satellite, and wireless.
• Define the function of remote access protocols and services such as RAS, PPP,
SLIP, PPPoE, PPTP, VPN, and RDP.
• Identify the purpose and function of security protocols such as IPSec, L2TP,
SSL, WEP, WPA, and 802.1x.
• Identify authentication protocols such as CHAP, MS-CHAP, PAP, RADIUS,
Kerberos, and EAP.
Network Implementation

• Identify the basic capabilities (client support, interoperability, authentica-
tion, file and print services, application support, and security) of the follow-
ing server operating systems to access network resources:
— Unix/Linux/Mac OS X Server
— NetWare
— Windows
— Appleshare IP
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Chapter 7: Overview of the Network+ Exam
• Identify the basic capabilities needed for client workstations to connect to
and use network resources (media, network protocols, and peer and server
services).
• Identify the appropriate tool for a given wiring task (wire crimper, media
tester/certifier, punch down tool, or tone generator).
• Given a remote connectivity scenario comprised of a protocol, an authentica-
tion scheme, and physical connectivity, configure the connection. This
includes connection to network servers powered by Unix/Linux/Mac OS X
Server, NetWare, Windows, and Appleshare IP.
• Identify the purpose, benefits, and characteristics of using a firewall.
• Identify the purpose, benefits, and characteristics of using a proxy service.
• Given a connectivity scenario, determine the impact on network functional-
ity of a particular security implementation (port blocking/filtering, authenti-
cation, and encryption).
• Identify the main characteristics of VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks).
• Identify the main characteristics and purpose of extranets and intranets.
• Identify the purpose, benefits, and characteristics of using antivirus software.
• Identify the purpose and characteristics of fault tolerance, such as power, link
redundancy, storage, and services.
• Identify the purpose and characteristics of disaster recovery:

— Backup/restore
— Offsite storage
— Hot and cold spares
— Hot, warm, and cold sites
Network Support
• Given a troubleshooting scenario, select the appropriate network utility from
the following:
— Tracert/ Traceroute
— Ping
— Arp
— Netstat
— Nbtstat
— Ipconfig/Ifconfig
— Winipcfg
— Nslookup/Dig
• Given output from a network diagnostic utility, identify the utility and inter-
pret the output.
• Given a network scenario, interpret visual indicators to determine the nature
of a stated problem.