Đề-ĐA lập đội hsg QN 2011

1
Sở GD&ĐT Quảng Ninh K THI LP I TUYN HC SINH GII CP TNH
LP 12 THPT NM HC 2010-2011
Đề thi chính thức
( thi cú 12 trang)
H, tờn v ch ký
ca hai giỏm th
Môn: Tiếng Anh


Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề



SBD:
1:
Ngày thi: 15/11/2010


Họ, tên thí sinh:
Số phách:

Ngày sinh:

2:
Nơi sinh:


Học sinh trng:

Điểm bài thi: Bằng số: . (Bằng chữ: )
H, tờn v ch ký ca hai giỏm kho:

1: 2: ..
Số phách:





Ghi chú: Thí sinh trả lời ngay vào bi thi này. Nếu viết sai phải gạch bỏ rồi viết lại.

I. LISTENING (3,0 points)
Activity 1: Listen to the director of the college talking about the school then answer the
questions by circle the letter A, B, C or D next to the right answer and complete the
statements below. Use no more than THREE WORDS for each space.
1. The colleges firm aim is to be a __________________________ institution.
2. The college judges people on their __________________________ and commitment
to study as much as __________________________.
3. Which statement about the students that the director has mentioned?
A. Some students are seeking specific skills.
B. Some are learning about the latest scientific knowledge.
C. Some are seeking to develop their artistic abilities.

D. Some are stretching their bodies.
4. How many teachers and staff are there at the college?
A. 500 B. 800 C. 1,000 D. 1,500
5. Which word best describes the directors speech?
A. Informative B. Depressing C. Inspiring D. Amusing
6. Is it a congratulation speech?
Indicate whether the following statements are accurate or not by writing "A" for the
accurate statement; write "I" for inaccurate one and write "N" for no information.
____ 7. You may find a suitable course at the polytechnic college.
____ 8. The college specializes in a narrow range of subject areas.
____ 9. The college has a homogeneous student body.
____ 10. The college has the longest history of any school.



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Activity 2: You are going to hear four people asking for or giving information about
flying. Listen and write "T" next to the sentence bellow if it is true and write "F" if it is
false.
____ 1. The first speaker wants to spend a week in Canada.
____ 2. The charter flight to Toronto costs £450.
____ 3. The second speaker is extremely worried about possible delays.
____ 4. Her flight leaves Corfu at 3.23 on Saturday 25
th
.
____ 5. The third speaker has only got hand luggage.
____ 6. He'd prefer a no-smoking seat.
____ 7. The fourth speaker plans to travel alone.
____ 8. She is booking only just in time.

Activity 3: You are going to hear two friends, Scott and Melissa, discussing fitness
centre in their area. Listen and complete the information in the table below.

Name
What's available
Price
Where
Phone
number

1. Sweatshop


(1)
weights

(2)

Town
centre

(3)

2. (4)


gym, (5) ,
yoga

£180 a year

Near
station

(6)

3. (7)

(8) , sauna
(9) , aerobics
free car park

(10)

Out of
town


II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (5,0 points)
Activity 1. Circle the letter A, B, C or D next to the right word to complete the sentences
below.
1. General Custer was confident of victory despite being vastly _______ by the enemy.
A. outnumbered B. outclassed C. overcome D. overtaken
2. The ministry refused to ________ the figures to the press.
A. release B. leak C. show D. add
3. Steve _______ his chances of passing by spending too much time on the first question.
A. threw out B. threw off C. threw away D. threw in
4. Mr. Jones gave his sons some money to _______ them up in business.
A. get B. set C. put D. make
5. _______ comes a time when you have to make a decision and stick to it.

A. It B. Therefore C. There D. That
6. James had, _______, saved the manuscript of his first novel from the burning house.
A. lastly B. at last C. lately D. at least
7. Mr Nixon refused to answer the questions on the __________ that the manner was
confidential.
A. reasons B. excuses C. grounds D. foundations
8. The lawyer insisted that his client _______ never have been arrested in the first place.
A. should B. must C. ought D. would
9. As they came under heavy fire, the captain ordered his men to _______.
A. fall away B. fall back C. fall over D. fall out



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10. Can you take ______ of the shop while Mr. Bentall is away?
A. management B. running C. charge D. operation
11. Jack and Christine wondered how the rumours had begun to _______.
A. disseminate B. spread C. run D. develop
12. The forecasters take a glommy ________ of the economic future.
A. regard B. aspect C. view D. outlook
13. I wish the neighbours _______ making so much noise.
A. would stop B. will stop C. stopping D. stopped
14. Every worker gets an extra month’s salary as an end-of-year _______.
A. bonus B. addition C. reward D. donation
15. At the scene of the disaster the Prince said some comforting words to the _______
relatives.
A. lamenting B. wailing C. complaining D. grieving

Activity 2. Write the correct form of each word in capital letters on the right in the
numbered spaces provided. (0) has been done as an example.

ANCIENT PARK UNDER THREAT
Pontefract Heritage Group is so concerned with the level
of (0) vandalism at their ancient park that it has written to
Council Leader Peter Box asking him to tackle the (1)
________________ worrying problem. In one of the most
recent incidents, eight birch, ash and maple trees were sawn
down. Pontefract’s bowling’s club is planning to create an (2)
_________________ zone by fencing off the greens to prevent
further (3) ________________ damage to them. These attacks
come hot on the heels of damage inflicted on Pontefract Castle
by gangs of youths who have ripped masonry (4)
___________________ from the ruins. Michael Holdsworth,
Chairman of the Heritage group, yesterday commented: "(5)
__________________ damage has occurred over several years
in the gardens and action taken to stop the culprits entering at
night has so far been (6) __________________. And it’s not
just the bad (7) __________________ of teenagers which is
wreaking havoc with the gardens. Adults misuse them too in
the daytime by parking on the grass and flower-beds." Earlier
this year, English Heritage gave the gardens Grade II status a
site of (8) __________________ interest in a national register
of parks and gardens. The gardens date back to the thirteenth
century, when the land formed part of the monastery gardens
of Pontefract’s Dominican Friary. Earning a place in the
register means that the local council is required to make (9)
____________________ for the protection of the gardens. (10)
_____________________, this means that more instrument is
now needed to tackle the problems facing the gardens and
provide much-needed facilities.

0. VANDAL

1. INCREASE


2. EXCLUDE
3. EXTEND


4. DISCRIMINATE

5. NOTICE

6. EFFECT
7. BEHAVE



8. HISTORY




9. PROVIDE
10. UNDERSTAND

Activity 3. In the following passage, there are 15 mistakes left. Read the passage
carefully then underline them and correct all the words in the spaces. Line 2 is an
example.

4
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
Lies, damned lies and awkward statistics temper the mood of the week as we
listen the lastest snapshot of the country with the publication of Social Trends 22.
For as their statistics chronicle when are probably the most rapid social changes in
British history, we are surrounded by forces which will say black is white, if
necessary, in order to deny the evidence through the figures.
Basically what the survey tells them is this: marriage is in steep decline,
divorce the highest outside Europe, marriage declining further still. Single persons
living alone now account of more than a quarter of all households, lone-parent

households are on the rise, and although the majority of parents stay still married, an
astonishing 28 % of babies are now born without wedlock.
Put all these in and you may be shaken, if not stirred. But then consider the
more extraodinary figure of all. The percentage of households now living Kelloggs
Comflakes style, with a married husband and stay-at-home-with-the-kids wife, is
actually just a fraction over seven percent, but around 1,4m of our 19,5m
households.
In 1979, when the first statistics became available, the figure stood at nearly
12%, and since to there has been a persistent downward trend. It means, in other
words, the dear little nuclear reactor, which was born of-and for-the industrial
revolution, had gone. It did not even last 200 years. RIP.

Your answers:
Line

Line

1.

11.

2.
Example: listen – see
12.

3.

13.

4.

14.

5.

15.

6.

16.

7.

17.

8.

18.

9.

19.

10.




Activity 4. Fill in each of the sentences below with one phrasal verb by combining the
verb “GO” or “TAKE” with one preposition in the box. Pay attention to the form of the

verb in each sentence. Write your answers in the spaces provided.

down apart in down off
off up ahead for away

1. I had to wait for permission from the town Council before I could ……………… …
with my plans.
2. The alarm ……………….…. when the burglars tried to open the door.
3. He really ……………………. her when she dared to criticize him.
4. The price of tomatoes usually …………….… … in summer in England.
5. I’m not very fit, so I’ve decided .……………………. an active hobby such as squash
or jogging.
6. Why have you ………… …….… all the pictures in the sitting room?
Because I’m going to decorate it.


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7. The new pizza restaurant is a great success. It’s really …………………… .
8. This skirt is very loose. I think I’ll have to ………… it …………. at the waist.
9. I ……… …. the camera ………….… from my eye and gazed unbelievingly.
10. Most of these machines have to be …………………… to be cleaned.

III. READING (6,0 points)
Activity 1. Circle the letter A, B, C or D next to the right word to complete the passage
below.
Julie always thought of herself as an easy going and (1) ….…. person, who put up
with people’s differences. She hardly ever became (2) ….…. about anything, and
believed that if you treated people well, they would (3) …… with you. That is, until
Alex and Harry moved in next door. At first, when their music woke her in the night, she
was just a bit (4) …… , but didn’t feel (5) …… . She shrugged her (6) …… and said

to herself, “Never mind, I make a lot of noise sometimes. I’ll go round and (7) …… in a
way as nice as possible.” When she knocked at Alex and Harry’s door she said, “I’m not
very (8) …… on very loud music, to be (9) …… . Do you think you could turn it down
a bit?” They just (10) …… , and then Alex said, “You can think whatever you like, as
far as we’re (11) …… ” then they shut the door in Julie’s face. By the end of the week,
Julie felt angry, but was determined not to (12) …… her temper. She had hardly slept,
and kept (13) …… all the time, but she kept busy. The next time she called next door,
she gave Harry and Alex a present. “It’s just a cake I made for you. Please (14) …… my
apologies for the last time.” And that day the noise stopped. “What a (15) …… ”,
thought Julie. “Now there’s some please and quiet and I can read my favourite book”
“The history of poison”.
1. A. dull B. glad C. quarrelsome D. tolerant
2. A. upset B. helpful C. fascinating D. careless
3. A. scream B. like C. co-operate D. mind
4. A. furious B. irritated C. annoying D. thrilled
5. A. realistic B. guilty C. conscience D. offended
6. A. shoulders B. arms C. hands D. head
7. A. cry B. quarrel C. complain D. fall out
8. A. interested B. like C. happy D. keen
9. A. loud B. honest C. upset D. nervous
10. A. whispered B. cried C. waved D. grinned
11. A. concerned B. determined C. decided D. embarrassed
12. A. have B. lose C. shout D. break
13. A. blushing B. snoring C. yawning D. growling
14. A. accept B. take C. attempt D. invite
15. A. believe B. naughty C. shame D. relief

Activity 2. Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word to complete the text below.
For over two hundred years, scholars have shown an interest in the way children
learn to speak and understand _______________ (1) first language. Several small-scale

studies were ________________ (2) out, especially towards the end of the nineteenth
century, using data recorded in parental diaries. But detailed, systematic investigation did
not begin _________________ (3) the middle decades of the twentieth century, when the
tape recorder ________________(4) into routine use. This made ________________ (5)
possible to keep a permanent record of samples of child speech, so that analysts
________________(6) listen repeatedly to obscure sounds _________________ (7) thus
produce a detailed and accurate description.


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The problems _________________ (8) have to be solved when investigating
child speech are quite different from _________________ (9) encountered when working
with adults. It is not possible to carry out some kinds of experiments, because aspects of
children's cognitive development, _______________ (10) as their ability to
_________________ (11) attention or to remember instructions, may not be very
advanced. Nor is it easy to get children to _________________ (12) systematic
judgements about language - a _______________ (13) that is virtually impossible below
the age of three. Moreover, ________________ (14) who has tried to make a tape
recording of a representative sample of a child's speech knows _________________ (15)
frustrating this can be. Some children, it seems, are innately programmed to
_________________ (16) off as soon as they notice a tape recorder being switched on.

Activity 3. Read the passage and answer the questions. Write the name of the country
next to each question.

THE EUROPEAN COMMUNITY

A. Denmark. “Although foreigners living in Denmark often complain of nine months of
winter and 12 months of high taxation, a survey of 124 nations conducted by
Pennsylvania University ranks the country first in the world for quality of life. This has

come as something of a surprise to most of Denmark's five million inhabitants who see
their country's liberal image threatened by rising economic problems, racial tension
caused by the arrival of Middle Eastern refugees and social unrest. But recent EEC polls
also show the Danes as the most happy of all people in the Community, even if they do
not wish to become too closely involved in it.”
B. France. France, it would appear, is a nation that lives and dies for its automobile.
"France has the most deadly roads in Europe. 11,000 are killed every year, and nearly
200,000 injured. It also has the rudest and most aggressive drivers. One third of drivers
admitted that they sometimes shouted insults at other drivers. The worst offenders were
drivers in the professional and senior white-collar classes and drivers aged from 18 to 34.
Another major hazard on French roads are traffic jams, and they are getting worse.
Three-quarters of French families own at least one car, and one in four owns two or more
cars. Returning to Paris after a weekend in the country has become a nightmare with
regular traffic jams of more than 30 kilometres."
C. Italy. Italy is pictured as a place where public money always ends up in private
pockets. “At a hospital in Sicily the windows are broken, the beds have no sheets and the
patients ragged and barefoot. Yet according to the hospital's accounts, the patients gobble
kilos of Parmesan cheese and consume litres of olive oil every day. Meanwhile Italy's
railways have added up huge expenses on luxury travel and hotel suites for hundreds of
employees to attend a transport exhibition in Vancouver. The delegation included wives,
girlfriends, secretaries and executives who never set foot in Canada but went directly to
Florida or the Bahamas.”
D. Spain. In Spain, “ the preferred form of exercise is `Iberian yoga'. It involves
stretching your stomach muscles to the maximum round a four-course meal and a bottle
of wine. The exercise is difficult without wine as the sportsman is afterwards required to
lie flat on his back and empty his mind of all useful thought. It takes about two hours to
perform this, and at the end, a Spaniard may or may not feel the urge to return to his job
that afternoon. The most beneficial effect of the yoga is that once rested, the Spaniard is
strong enough to stay out until two in the morning, eating fried squid and gossiping with
his friends.”

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E. Germany. The Germans are presented not just as nationalists, but as a bunch of
nationalist beer-drinkers. “We are not going to drink that imported stuff. The beer has got
to be pure. I have been a regular in this pub for 35 years and I don't know a single person
who would drink it. It's all chemicals. The beer-drinkers of West Germany are agreed.
The European Court can force them to let that nasty foreign beer into their country, but it
cannot make them drink it. Beer makes up a quarter of the average German man's diet.
Therefore the additives used in other countries could endanger his health. At least, so
runs the argument put forward by the Bavarian brewers.”
Of which country is it said that people ?
1. shout insults at each other
2. go to bed late
3. are contented
4. confuse public and private money
5. have a liquid diet
6. complain about the weather
7. take a long time getting home at the weekend
8. don't want additives
9. have a high quality of life
10. like to rest in the afternoon
11. rob the government

Activity 4. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. Circle A,
B, C or D to indicate your answers.
The United States Constitution established a political system comprising a national
and federal government. The new federal system accommodated the thirteen original
state governments while establishing new bodies and powers designed to address national
concerns. The national government created by the union of states stood above the state

governments in specific national matters while acknowledging the role of the states or
sharing power with them in other areas. State officials were required to take an oath to
support the Constitution and the laws and treaties made under it as the supreme law.
The constitution, a veritable work of genius, greatly enhanced the power of
central government but carefully divided its functions into three distinct branches-
executive, legislative, and judicial. The principle of separation of powers was applied
throughout the document. Carefully measured checks and balances were inserted to
prevent the acquisition or concentration of power in any one branch and also for the
purpose of protecting minority nights from the potential rule of the majority. In their
powers to amend the constitution and to elect the president and members of the Senate,
the states also gained a role in applying checks and balances.
1. In line 6, the word “them” refers to
A. national matters
C. state officials
B. the states
D. national and federal government
2. According to the passage, state officials were required to take an oath to
A. recognize the Constitution as a work of genius
B. share power with the federal government
C. support the Constitution
D. protect minority rights
3. The word “amend” in line 14 could best be replaced by
A. change
B. balance
C. enhance
D. construct
4. The author of the passage is probably an expert in
A. social science
B. minority issues
C. public housing

D. political science


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5. What is the author’s main purpose in the passage?
A. to discuss one of the principal elements of the Constitution
B. to mention the roles of state officials in government
C. to persuade the state legislators to support the Constitution
D. to summarize the role of the Senate.

Activity 5. Read the following passage and answer the questions.

TEACHING IN UNIVERSITIES
In the 19
th
century, an American academic, Newman, characterized a university as:
“a place of teaching universal knowledge (a place for) the diffusion and extension of
knowledge rather than its advertisement.”
Newman argued that if universities were not for teaching but rather for scientific
discovery, then they would not need students.
Interestingly, during this century, while still teaching thousands of students each
year, the resources of most universities have been steadily channeled away from teaching
into research activities. Most recently, however, there have been strong moves in both
North America and the United Kingdom to develop initiatives that would enhance the
profile of the teaching institutions of higher education. In the near future, therefore, as
well as the intrinsic rewards gained from working with students and the sense that they
are contributing to their overall growth development, there should soon be extrinsic
rewards in the form of job promotion, for those pursuing academic excellence in teaching
in universities.
In the future, there will be more focus in universities on the quality of their

graduates and their progression rates. Current degree courses, whose assessment
strategies require students to learn by rote and reiterate the course material, and which do
not require the student to interact with the material, or construct a personal meaning
about it or even to understand the discipline, are resulting in poor learning outcomes.
This traditional teaching approach doesn’t take into account modern theories of
education, the individual needs of the learner, nor his or her prior learning experience.
In order for universities to raise both the quality and status of teaching, it is first
necessary to have some kind of understanding of what constitutes good practice. A 1995
report, complied in Australia, lists, eight qualities that researches agree are essential to
good teaching.
Good teachers
A. are themselves good learners - resulting in teaching that is dynamic, reflective and
constantly evolving as they learn more and more about teaching;
B. display enthusiasm for their subject and the desire to share it with their students;
C. recognize the importance of context and adjust their teaching accordingly;
D. encourage deep learning approaches and are concerned with developing their
students’ critical thinking skills, problem-solving skills and problem-approach
behaviors;
E. demonstrate an ability to transform and extend knowledge, rather than merely
transmit it;
F. recognize individual differences in their students and take advantage of these;
G. set clear goals, use valid assessment techniques and provide high-quality feedback
to their students;
H. show respect for, and interest in, their students and sustain high expectations of
them.



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In addition to aiming to engage students in the learning process, there is also a need to

address the changing needs of the market place. Because in many academic disciplines
the body of relevant knowledge is growing at an exponential rate, it is no longer possible,
or even desirable, for an individual to have a complete knowledge base. Rather, it is
preferable that he or she should have an understanding of the concepts and the principles
of the subject, have the ability to apply this understanding to new situations and have the
wherewithal to seek out the information that is needed.
As the world continues to increase in complexity, university graduates will need to be
equipped to cope with rapid changes in technology and to enter careers that may not yet
be envisaged, with change of profession being commonplace. To produce graduates
equipped for this workforce. It is essential that educators teach in ways that encourage
learners to engage in deep learning which may be built upon in the late years of their
course, and also be transferred to the workplace.
The new role of the university teacher, then, is one that focuses on the students’
learning rather than the instructor's teaching. The syllabus is more likely to move from
being a set of learning materials made up of lecture notes, to a set of learning materials
made of print, cassettes, disks and computer programs. Class contact hours will cease to
be the major determinant of an academic workload. The teacher will then be released
from being the sole source of information transmission and will become instead more a
learning manager, able to pay more attention to the development and delivery of
education rather than content.
Student-centered learning activities will also require innovative assessment strategies.
Traditional assessment and reporting has aimed to produce a single mark or grade for
each student. The mark is indented to indicate three things: the extent to which the
learned material was mastered or understood; the level at which certain skills were
performed and the degree to which certain attitudes were displayed.
A deep learning approach would test a student's ability to identify and tackle new and
unfamiliar: real world problems. A major assessment goal will be to increase the size and
complexity of assignments and minimize what can be achieved by memorizing or
reproducing content. Wherever possible, students will be involved in the assessment
process to assist them to learn how to make judgments about themselves and their work.

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the passage? Write
"T" next to the the statement if it agrees with the information; write "F" if it disagrees
and write "N" if there is no information.
_____ 1. Newman believed that the primary focus of universities was teaching.
_____ 2. Job promotion is already used to reward outstanding teaching.
_____ 3. Traditional approaches to assessment at degree level are having a negative
effect on the learning process.
_____4. University students have complained about bad teaching and poor results.
Look at the eight qualities of “good teachers” in the passage. Write the letter A-H
from the passage next to the quality statement with the same meaning.
Good teachers
_____ 5. can adapt their materials to different learning situations.
_____ 6. assist students to understand the aims of the course.
_____ 7. are interested in the developing the students as learners.
_____ 8. treat their students with dignity and concern.
_____ 9. continually improve their teaching by motoring their skills.
Circle the letter A, B, C or D next to the best answer.
10. In the future, university courses will focus more on


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A. developing students’ skills and concepts.
B. expanding students’ knowledge.
C. providing work experience for students.
D. graduating large numbers of students.
11. According to the authors, university courses should prepare students to
A. do a specific well.
B. enter traditional professions.
C. change jobs easily.

D. create their own jobs.
12. The author believes that new learning materials in universities will result in
A. more work for teachers. B. a new role for teachers.
C. more expensive courses. D. more choices for students.
13. The author predicts that university assessment techniques will include more
A. in-class group assignments. B. theoretical exams.
C. problem-solving activities. D. student seminar presentations.

IV. WRITING (6,0 points)
Activity 1. Use the word in the brackets to write a new sentence as similar as possible in
meaning to the original one. Don't change the form of the given words.
1. David went to see the bank manager about getting a loan. (view)

2. She realized she had said something wrong. (conscious)

3. I wish I know what to do about this problem. (solution)

4. The storm resulted in the deaths of over 50 people. (caused)

5. The station is within easy walking distance of the hotel. (easily)

Activity 2. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the
same as the one printed before it.
1. I won't agree until Tom's apologised.
Only when
2. The residents get very angry when bicycles are left in the hallway.
The residents all wish bicycles
3. “John shouldn't have behaved so badly”, said Janet.
Janet objected
4. Anna failed to understand how serious her illness was until she spoke to the doctor.

Not until

5. They set off to climb the mountain in spite of the fog.
Although


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Activity 3. Look at the chart below and write about the number of tourists and revenue
from tourism in Viet Nam from 1991 to 2005 (about 150 words).

1.5
5.5
8.5
9.6
11.2
16
0.3
1.4
1.7
1.5
2.1
3.5
0.8
8
10
14
17
30.3
0
2

4
6
8
10
12
14
16
18
1991 1995 1997 1998 2000 2005
0
5
10
15
20
25
30
35
Domestic tourists (in million)
International tourists (in million)
Revenue from tourism (in thousand billion VND)

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Activity 4. The world is facing a dramatic increase in the number of natural disasters.
This is a challenge for all nations around the world. Describe some of the causes and
consequences of natural disasters and suggest possible solutions.
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant ideas from your own
knowledge or experience. You should write at least 250 words.

the end

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Sở GD&ĐT Quảng Ninh HNG DN CHM THI LP I TUYN HSG
CP TNH lớp 12 THPT năm học 2010 - 2011
Đề thi CHNH THC
Môn: Tiếng Anh

I- Listening (3,0 im)
Activity 1: (1,2 im). Cõu 2 v cõu 3 mi cõu ỳng 0,2 im. Mi cõu cũn li 0,1 im.
1. student-centered/ centred
2. motivation/ formal qualification
3. A, B
4. C
5. A
6. No
7. A
8. I
9. I
10. N


Activity 2: (0,8 im). Mi cõu ỳng 0,1 im.
1. T
2. F
3. F
4. F
5. F
6. T
7. F
8. T

Activity 3: (1,0 im). Mi ch trng in ỳng 0,1 im.
1.
(1) gym
(2) Ê15 a month

(3) 772438
2. (4) Body Matters
(5) pool


(6) 413992

3. (7) Fitness First
(8) tennis courts,
(9) pool

(10) Ê250 a year



II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (5,0 im)
Activity 1. 1,5 điểm. Mỗi câu đúng 0,1 điểm.
1. A
2. A
3. C
4. B
5. C
6. D
7. C
8. A

9. B
10. C
11. B
12. C
13. A
14. A
15. D
Activity 2. 1,0 điểm. Mỗi câu đúng 0,1 điểm.
1. increasingly
2. exclusive
3. extensive
4. indiscriminately
5. noticeable
6. ineffective
7. behaviour/behavor
8. historic/ historical
9. provision
10. Understandably


Activity 3. 1,5 điểm. Mỗi t đúng 0,1 điểm.
Line

Line

1.

11.
in together
2.

12.
more most
3.
when what
13.
married working
4.
which who
14.
but - or
5.
through of
15.

6.
them us
16.

7.
outside in
17.
to then
8.
of more for more;
18.
reactor family
9.
stay are
19.

had - has
10.
without outside


Activity 4. 1,0 điểm. Mỗi câu đúng 0,1 điểm.
1. go ahead
2. went off
3. went for
4. goes down
5. to take up
6. taken down
7. taken off
8. take . in
9. took . away
10. taken apart
III. READING (6,0 điểm)
Activity 1. 1,5 điểm. Mỗi câu đúng 0,1 điểm.
1. D
2. A
3. C
4. B
5. D
6. A
7. C
8. D
9. B
10. D
11. A
12. B

13. C
14. A
15. D


14
Activity 2. 1,6 ®iÓm. Mçi c©u ®óng 0,1 ®iÓm.
1. their/ the
2. carried
3. until
4. came
5. it
6. could
7. and
8. that
9. those
10. such
11. pay
12. make/express
13. task
14. anyone
15. how
16. switch/turn




Activity 3. 1,1 ®iÓm. Mçi c©u ®óng 0,1 ®iÓm.
1. B. France
2. D. Spain

3. A. Denmark
4. C. Italy
5. E. Germany
6. A. Denmark
7. B. France
8. E. Germany
9. A. Denmark
10. D. Spain
11. C. Italy




Activity 4. 0,5 ®iÓm. Mçi c©u ®óng 0,1 ®iÓm.
1. B 2. C 3. A 4. D 5. A
Activity 5. 1,3 ®iÓm. Mçi c©u ®óng 0,1 ®iÓm.
1. T
2. F
3. T
4. N
5. C
6. G
7. D
8. H
9. A
10. A
11. C
12. B
13. C

IV. WRITING (6,0 ®iÓm)
Activity 1. 0,5 ®iÓm. Mçi c©u ®óng 0,1 ®iÓm.
1. David went to see the manager with a view to getting a loan.
2. She was conscious of having said something wrong.
3. I wish I had the solution to this problem.
4. The deaths of over fifty people were caused by the storm/
The storm caused the deaths of over fifty people.
5. You can walk to the station easily from the hotel.
Activity 2. 0,5 ®iÓm. Mçi c©u ®óng 0,1 ®iÓm.
1. Only when Tom’s apologized will I agree.
2. The residents all wish bicycles were not left in the hallway.
3. Janet objected to John’s bad behaviour/ to John behaving so badly.
4. Not until Ann spoke to the doctor did she understand how serious her illness was.
5. Although it was foggy, they (still) set off to climb the mountain.
Activity 3. 2,0 ®iÓm.
Yêu cầu thí sinh viết thành bài văn hoàn chỉnh gồm 3 phần:
+ Mở bài (nêu được biểu đồ nói về sự gia tăng khách du lịch nội địa, khách du lịch quốc
tế và doanh thu từ du lịch ở Việt Nam từ năm 1991 đến năm 2005) – 0,25 điểm;
+ Thân bài (so sánh sự gia tăng khách du lịch nội địa và khách quốc tế với sự tăng
doanh thu từ du lịch qua các năm 1991, 1995, 1997, 1998, 2000 và 2005) – 1,5 điểm;
+ Kết luận (tóm tắt nội dung chính của bài và dự đoán sự tăng doanh thu từ du lịch trong
các năm tiếp theo) – 0,25 điểm.
Nếu thí sinh viết đúng chủ đề, đúng ngữ pháp, dùng từ chuẩn xác, diễn đạt mạch
lạc, không sai lỗi chính tả, không quá ngắn (khoảng 150 từ) mới cho điểm tối đa.
Activity 4. 3,0 điểm.
Yêu cầu thí sinh viết thành bài văn hoàn chỉnh gồm 3 phần:
+ Mở bài (nêu khái quát về sự gia tăng các thảm họa thiên nhiên trên thế giới) – 0,5 điểm;
+ Thân bài (nêu các hậu quả của thảm họa thiên nhiên, phân tích nguyên nhân gây ra
thảm họa và gợi ý biện pháp nhằm hạn chế thảm họa thiên nhiên) – 2,0 điểm;
+ Kết luận (tóm tắt nội dung chính của bài và ý kiến của tác giả về vấn đề này) – 0,5

điểm.
Nếu thí sinh viết đúng chủ đề, đúng ngữ pháp, dùng từ chuẩn xác, diễn đạt mạch
lạc, không sai lỗi chính tả, không quá ngắn (khoảng 250 từ) mới cho điểm tối đa.

TỔNG SỐ: 20 ĐIỂM