SỞ GD&ĐT NINH BÌNH
ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 THCS
Năm học 2012 – 2013
MÔN:TIẾNG ANH
(Thời gian làm bài 150 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề)
Đề thi gồm 4 phần, trong 7 trang
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC
HỌ, TÊN VÀ CHỮ KÍ CỦA
GIÁM KHẢO
ĐIỂM BÀI THI
Bằng số:..........................
Bằng chữ:.......................
SỐ PHÁCH
(Do Chủ tịch hội
đồng chấm ghi)
Giám khảo 1:...................................................
Giám khảo 2:...................................................
(Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp trên đề thi này).
PART A: LISTENING AND PHONETICS
Section 1: Listen carefully and decide if the statements are True (T) or False (F). Tick your
answer in the right box (1 point)
T
F
1. Allice met Mark last year
2. Mark came to London for a holiday
3. They did not get on well each other
4. Mark invited Allice to San Francisco
5. Allice’s job is managing director.
Section 2: Listen and fill in each blank with ONE word / number. Write your answers in the
numbered space. (1 point)
There are many kinds of bicycles available: racing, touring, (1) ……………. ordinary.
They vary in (2)…………. ………….and quality.
Prices range from (3) ……………….to $2000
Their attraction is their (4) ……………and reliability
1
Three speed (5)……………are suitable for frame
Section 3: Listen and answer the question ( 1point)
1
1. What is the name of the dog?
………………………………..
2. Can it recognize the sound of a motorbike from distance?
…………………………………………………………….
3. How does it get before the boy reaches home?
………………………………………………….
4.Who does the dog fetch before the boy's father gets home?
………………………………………………………………
Section 4: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of
the others by circling A, B, C or D ( 0,5 point).
1. A. arrived
B. laughed
C. ploughed
D. played
2. A. mention
B. option
C. federation
D. suggestion
3. A. photographs
B. passengers
C. catalogues
D. highlands
4. A. yatch
B. banyan
C. gather
D. manage
5. A. honesty
B. honey
C. honor
D. hour
1___________
2___________
3___________
4___________
5___________
Section 5: Choose the words that has a different stress pattern from the others (0,5point):
1. A. industrial
B. destruction
C. energy
D. environment
2. A. activity
B. increase
C. expect
D. mineral
3. A. experience
B. prevention
C. agreement
D. satisfy
4. A. movement
B. exist
C. volcano
D. establish
5. A. linguistic
B. communicate
C. dangerous
D. pagoda
1___________ 2___________
3___________
4___________
5___________
PART B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR
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Choose the best word or
phrase to complete each sentence. (1.5 point)
1. The manager insisted that the project ______ before November 23, 2013.
I.
A. will be completed
C. would have been completed
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B. has been completed
D. be completed
2. She was sad all night. He______ the truth.
A. shouldn’t tell
B. shouldn’t have told
C. must have told
D. B and C
3. The government has done all the possible to _____ the effects of the tornado.
A. minimize
B. maximize
C. limit
D. prevent
4. The doorway is low, so _____ your head when you go in.
A. take
B. mind
C. mark
D. attend
5. There are a lot of people who _____work in remote and moutainous areas nowadays.
A. volunteer
B. voluntarily C. volunteers
D. voluntary
6. When Maria read the letter , she couldn’t help _____ .
A. cries
B. crying
C. to cry
D. cried
7. _______ have tried their best to protect the environment, but their efforts seem to be
nothing compared to what people are doing to harm it.
A. Conservationists
B. Economists
C. EnvironmentalistsD. A and C
8. _____ university is going to be built near my house.
A. The
B. A
C. An
D. ∅
9. It is quite difficult for the new comers to get used _______10 hours a day.
A. to work
B. working
C. to working
D. work
10. Without her help, he _________
A. wouldn’t have succeeded
C. didn’t succeed
B. would succeed
D. will succeed
1___________ 2___________
3___________
4___________
6___________ 7___________
8___________
9___________
II.
Put the correct form of the words (1.5 point)
1. Many people still believe that smoking is ______
3
5___________
10__________
(harm).
3
2. The man living next door is one
of the ________ in language
(special).
3. There is a small village by the river and its_______is very beautiful
(surround).
4. We need to keep our environment ______________
(pollute).
5. We want to ______ our city
(beauty).
6. She listened______ to every word her teacher said
(attend).
1______________
2_____________
3____________
4______________
5_____________
6____________
Supply the correct form of the verbs in brackets (1.5 point)
- A lot of people (1.kill )____ by AIDS recently and I wish nobody (2.die)____anymore.
III.
- Little the police (3. suspect) _______that the secretary was the robber.
- The doctor advised him against (4. smoke)________.
- If only I (5. pass)_____ my exam last year. Then I (6. not have)____ to work this hard.
1______________
2_____________
3____________
4______________
5_____________
6____________
Find the mistakes in the following sentences and then correct them. Each
sentence has ONE mistake only. ( 2 points)
1. They thought (A) that it had (B) been a (C) very satisfied (D) dinner.
IV.
2. However cheap(A) it is (B), poor quality (C) products never appeal to (D)customers.
3. 45 minutes are (A)not long enough (B) for the students (C) to finish the (D)test.
4. A constructed badly(A) car can cause injury (B) or even (C) death to its (D) passengers.
5. The person to who (A)this letter was addressed(B) died (C)three years ago(D).
6. We will have (A)to replace (B)all the furnitures that were (C)damaged in (D)the flood.
7. Although he doesn’t like classical (A) music, but (B) he listens to (C) that kind
of (D) music at home.
8. My sister broke (A) the (B) glass because (C) her tiredness (D).
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9. I think (A) I’m very lucky to having (B) been noticed (C) so early in my career(D).
10. The secretary (A) is responsible for (B) her boss for (C) classifying (D) the document.
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1_____________
_
6_____________
_
2____________
_
7____________
_
3___________
_
8___________
_
4___________
_
9___________
_
5___________
_
10__________
_
PART C: READING
I. Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each question. (2 points)
KETCHUP
The sauce that is today called ketchup (or catsup) in Western cultures is a tomato-based
sauce that is quite distinct from Eastern ancestors of this product. A sauce called ke-tjap was
in used in China at least as early as the 17 th century, but the Chinese version of the sauce was
made of picked fish, shellfish, and spices. The popularity of this Chinese sauce spread to
Singapore and Malaysia, where it was called kechap. The Indonesian ketjab derives its name
from the same source of the Malaysian sauce but is made from very different ingredients. The
Indonesian ketjab is made by cooking black soy beans, fermenting them, placing them in a
salt brine for at least a week, cooking the resulting solution further, and sweetening it heavily;
this process results in a dark, thick and sweet variation of soy sauce.
Early in the 18th century, sailors from the British navy came across this exotic sauce on
voyages to Malaysia and Singapore and brought samples of it back to England on return
voyages. English chefs tried to recreate the sauce but were unable to do exactly because key
ingredients were unknown or unavailable in England; chefs ended up substituting ingredients
such as mushrooms and walnuts in an attempt to recreate the special taste of the original
Asian sauce. Variations of this sauce became quite the rage in the 18th century England,
appearing in a number of recipe books and features as an exotic addition to menus from the
period.
The English version did not contain tomatoes, and it was not until the end of the 18 th
century that tomatoes became main ingredients in the ketchup of the United States. It is quite
notable that tomatoes were added to the sauce and that tomatoes had previously been
considered quite dangerous to health. That tomato had been cultivated by the Aztecs, who
had called it tomalt; however, early botanists had recognized that tomato was a member of
the Solanecaea family, which does include a number of poisonous plant, the leaves of the
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tomato plant are poisonous, though of course the fruit is not.
Thomas Jefferson, who cultivated the tomato in his gardens at Monticello and served
dishes containing tomatoes at lavish feasts, often receive credit for changing the reputation of
the tomato. Soon after Jefferson had introduced the tomato to American society, recipes
5
combining the new fashionable tomato with the equally fashionable and exotic sauce known
as ketchap began to appear. By the middle of the 19 th century, both of the tomato and tomato
ketchup were stables of the American kitchen.
Tomato ketchup, popular through it was, was quite time-consuming to prepare. In
1876, the first mass-produced tomato ketchup, a product of German-American Henry Heizn,
went on sale and achieved immediate success. From tomato ketchup, Heizn branched out into
a number of other products, including various sauces, pickles, and relish.
1. It is stated in the first paragraph that
A. The Chinese sauce was different from the Malaysia one
B. The Chinese version was made from seafood only
C. The Chinese sauce was in existence in the 17th century.
D. The Indonesian sauce was similar to the Chinese sauce
2. The word it in the first paragraph means……………
A. Malaysian sauce B. Indonesian version
C. Chinese sauce
D. Singapore one
3. It can be inferred from the second paragraph that mushrooms and walnuts were ……………
A. not availabe in England
B. moved from England to Asia
C. not native to England
D. not included in the recipe of the Asian sauce
4. According to the paragraph 3, the tomato plant ………….
A. was not considered poisonous
B. is a member of a family that hasn’t got any poisonous plants
C. has leaves that cannot be eaten
D. has edible fruit.
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5. Where in paragraph 4 can the following sentence go in? “It turned from very bad to good”
A. at the beginning of the paragraph 4
B. before the sentence “By the middle of the 19th century ……….”
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C. before the sentence “Soon after Jefferson …………”
D. at the end of the paragraph 4
1___________ 2___________
3___________
4___________
5___________
II. Read the passage and fill in blanks with suitable words. Each blank ONE word only( 2
points)
Today, supermarkets are found in (1)_____ every large city in the world. But the first
supermarket (2)______ opened only fifty years ago. It was opened in New York by a man
(3)_____ Michael Cullen. A supermarket is (4)______ from other types of stores in several
ways. In supermarkets, goods are placed on open shelves. The (5)______ choose what they
want and take them to the checkout counter. This means that (6)________ shop assistants are
needed than in other stores. The way products are displayed is another difference (7)_____
supermarkets and many other types of stores; For (8)______ , in supermarkets, there is
usually (9)_____ display of small inexpensive items just in front of the checkout counter:
candies, chocolates, magazines, cheap foods and so on. Most customers who go to a
supermarket buy goods from a shopping list. They know exactly what they need to buy. They
(10)______ the shopping according to a plan.
1___________ 2___________
3___________
4___________
5___________
6___________ 7___________
8___________
9___________
10__________
III. Choose the best words or phrases to complete the following passage ( 2 points)
About twenty percent of the world’s present energy comes from the sun in one form or
another. Special devices have already been made available to (1)………..on the roofs of houses
and flats to (2)………the sun’s rays and thus heat water. Thousands(3)………these devices are
now being used to provide (4)……..in homes throughout the United States while more (5)…….a
million solar water- heating units have already been (6)………..in homes in Japan. Other
purposes for which(7)……energy is, at present, being used include the (8)……..of salt from
seawater, irrigation and sewage disposal. (9)……most people in developing countries, the need
is not for air- conditioners or central heating but for cheap(10)……..of cooking food, drying
crops, and lighting houses.
7
1.A. put
2. A.greet
3. A.in
4. A.light
5. A.than
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B.locate
B.catch
B.with
B.energy
B.of
C.fit
C.contain
C.on
C.life
C.through
D.fix
D.manufacture
D.of
D.existence
D.over
6. A.built
7. A.sun
8. A.passing
9. A.Through
10. A.manners
1___________
6___________
B.planned
B.sky
B.separation
B.By
B.ways
2___________
7___________
C.standing
C.space
C.divorce
C.For
C.models
3___________
8___________
D.attached
D.solar
D.delivery
D.At
D.types
4___________
9___________
5___________
10__________
PART D: WRITING
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
sentence printed before it ( 1 point)
1. Jane’s career as a television presenter began five years ago.
Jane has……………………………………………………..….…………….
2. It was an impressive building but it wasn’t to my taste.
Impressive …………………………………………………………………
3. Work hard or your parents won't be happy
Unless……………………………………………………………………………
4. If someone understands this book, they are cleverer than I am.
Anyone……………………………………………….
5. The bomb exploded as soon as they left their office.
No sooner………………………………………….
II. For each of the sentences below, write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning
to the original one, but using the word given. This word must not be changed in any way.
(1.0 point)
1. Although she was beautiful and intelligent, she didn’t win the Miss World competition.
(DESPITE)
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……………………………………………………………………………………..
2. The manager was angry for his disobedience (IF)
…………………………………………………………………………………….
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3. When the unemployment rate is high, the crime rate is usually also high ( THE HIGHER)
…………………………………………………………………………………….
4. The student wishes he had prepared for the lesson. (REGRETS)
……………………………………………………………………………………
5. The child didn’t manage to open the window. (DIFFICULTY)
……………………………………………………………………………………….
III. Write a paragraph ( 80 - 100 words) on the following topic (1,5 points)
"The advantages of the Internet for your studying English"
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
NINH BÌNH
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM THI HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9
NĂM HỌC 2012-2013
Môn: TIẾNG ANH
Tổng số điểm của bài thi là 20, cụ thể như sau:
Đáp án
PART
A.
LISTENING
3 điểm
9
9
Section 1:.Mỗi ý đúng 0,2 điểm
1. T ,
2. F,
3. F,
4. T,
5. T
Section 2: Mỗi ý đúng 0,2 điểm
1. mountain; 2. price; 3. $50; 4. simplicity, 5. cycles
Section 3: Mỗi ý đúng 0, 25 điểm
1. Its name is Buddy/It's Buddy/Buddy
2. Yes, it can.
Điểm
3.0
3. It gets excited/excited
4. The dog fetch the boy's mother/Mum/ mother
A
PHONETICS
1 điểm
Section 4: Mỗi ý đúng 0,1 điểm
1. B 2. D 3. A 4. A 5. B
1,0
Section 5: Mỗi ý đúng 0,1 điểm
1. C 2. D 3. D 4. A
5. C
I. Mỗi ý đúng được 0.15 điểm.
1. D. be completed
2. D. B and C
3. A. minimize
4. B. mind
5. B. voluntarily
6. B. crying
7. D. A and C
8. B. A
9. C. to working
10. A. wouldn’t have succeeded
B.
VOCABULAR
Y AND
GRAMMAR.
(6.5 điểm)
1,5
II. Mỗi ý đúng được 0.25 điểm.
1. harmless
4. unpoluted
2. specialists
5. beautify
3. surrounding
6. attentively
III. Mỗi ý đúng được 0.25 điểm.
1. have been killed
4. smoking
2. would die
5. had passed
3. did the police suspect
6. wouldn't have
IV. Mỗi ý đúng được 0.2 điểm.(tìm được lỗi 0,1 điểm, sửa được 0,1 điểm)
1. D → satisfying
6. C → furniture that was
2. B → they are
7. B → ∅
3. A → is
8. C → Because of
4. A → badly constructed 9. B → have
5. A → to whom
10. B → to
5. A to whom
C.
READING.
(6 điểm)
1.5
2,0
10. B to
I. Mỗi ý đúng được 0.4 điểm.
1. C
2. C
3. D 4. C 5.
B
II. Mỗi ý đúng 0, 210
điểm
1. almost
2. was
3. named/called
4. different
5. customers 6. fewer
7. between
8. example 9. a
10 . do
10
1.5
2.0
2,0
III. Mỗi ý đúng 0, 2 điểm
1. A
2. B
3. D
4. B
6. A
7. D
8. B
9. C
D.
WRITING.
(3,5 điểm)
5. A
10. B
I. Mỗi ý đúng được 0.2 điểm.
1.Jane has been a TV presenter for 5 years
2. Impressive as the building was, it wasn’t to my taste
3. Unless he work hard, your parents wont be happy.
4. Anyone who understands this book is cleverer than I am.
5. No sooner had they left their office than the bomb exploded.
II. Mỗi ý đúng được 0.2 điểm.
1. Despite her beauty and intelligence/being beautiful and intelligent, she
didn’t win the Miss World competition.
2. If he had been obedient, the manager wouldn’t have been angry.
3. The higher the unemployment rate is, the higher the crime rate is.
4. The student regrets not having prepared (preparing) for the lesson.
5. The child had difficulty (in) opening the window.
III. 1,5 điểm: Cách cho điểm như sau:
1. Organization and structure: 0,25 điểm
2. Content:
0,5 điểm. .
3. Vocabulary;
0,5 điểm.
4. Grammar:
0,25 điểm
PHÒNG GD&ĐT BÌNH GIANG
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
2.0
1, 0
1.0
1.5
ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI VÒNG I
NĂM HỌC: 2012-2013
Môn thi : TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 9
Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút
(Đề thi gồm 04 trang)
Học sinh làm bài vào tờ giấy thi, không làm bài vào đề thi này.
Phần trắc nghiệm: Chỉ cần viết phương án chọn A hoặc B, C, D...
Phần tự luận : Viết đầy đủ theo yêu cầu của đề bài.
(Thí sinh không được sử dụng bất cứ tài liệu gì)
A. LISTENING
Listen to Becky and Sarah talking about their new apartments and decide whether the following
statements are True (T) or False (F). You will listen to their talks twice. (10 pts)
1. The bookshelf looks really good in Becky’s living room.
2. She wants to buy an expensive mp3 player.
3. She doesn’t have a dinner table.
4. Now she has to sit on the sofa to watch TV.
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5. Her living room is small.
6. Sarah doesn’t have many books.
7. She has a new TV.
8. She doesn’t have enough money to buy a mp3 player now.
9. Her dinner table isn’t nice and big.
10. She didn’t buy an expensive sofa.
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B. PHONETICS
Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others in the group. (5 points)
11. A. academic
12. A. visit
13. A. advertise
14. A. compulsory
15. A. poem
B. reputation
B. suggest
B. separate
B. economic
B. writer
C. experience
C. employ
C. primary
C. material
C. contact
D. intermediate
D. direct
D. instruction
D. community
D. symbol
C. GRAMMAR – VOCABULARY – LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS
I. Choose the option A, B, C or D which best completes or responds to each sentence. (15 points)
16. Nisa: “Do you mind if I borrow your umbrella for a while?”
Jira: “_________________________”
A. No, here you are. B. Never mind.
C. You’re welcome.
D. Yes, and bring it back.
17. She has lived in a _________ since 2008.
A. five-floors building B. five-floor building
C. five-floor buildings D. five-floors buildings
18. Maria: “Thanks for lovely evening.”
Diana: “_________________________”
A. Oh, that’s right.
B. Yes, it’s really great. C. No, it’s not good. D. I’m glad you enjoyed it.
19. The liquid __________ to a boiling point.
A. heats
B. was heated
C. heated
D. be heated
20. If you _________, I will explain it again to you.
A. understand
B. don’t understand
C. won’t understand D. didn’t understand
21. Nick: “Can you lend me your car this afternoon? I have an urgent appointment.”
Susan: “_________________________”
A. I don’t think so I won’t need it.
B. No I can’t. I won’t need it.
C. I think so. I won’t be using it.
D. Yes, I can. I will be using it.
22. Mr. Thomas: “Would you mind if I turned the air-conditioner down?
Mark: “_________________________”
A. No, please do.
B. Yes, I don’t mind. C. Yes. That’s right.
D. No, I mind.
23. I wish I ___________ you some money for your ticket, but I have nothing left now.
A. can lend
B. would lend
C. could lend
D. will lend
24. I was impressed ____________ the beauty of the bay.
A. on
B. by
C. in
25. I _____________ a letter to my friends.
A. posted
B. issued
C. collected
26. She moved to Hanoi, but we still keep in _________.
A. phoning
B. writing
C. meeting
D. from
D. published
D. touch
27. Vietnamese women today prefer modern clothes _________ the ao dai.
A. to
B. for
C. in
D. with
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28. The girl: “This box is very bulky. Can you give me a hand?”
The boy: “_________________________”
A. That box isn’t mine.
B. Sure, I’ll be glad to help.
C. Yes, that’s right.
D. Certainly, I’m looking for someone to help you.
29. _________ to Nha Trang? – Yes, twice.
A. Did you ever go
B. Are you ever
C. Do you ever go
D. Have you ever been
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30. Give me a hand, __________?
A. will you
B. do you
C. don’t you
D. won’t you
II. Provide the correct form of the words in capital letters to complete the sentences. (10 points)
31. The Minister of Finance is responsible for _________ affairs. (ECONOMY)
32. My teacher _________ me to take this examination. (COURAGE)
33. I live in the _________ part of the country. (NORTH)
34. Put the food in the _________, please. (FREEZE)
35. Her car needs _________ at the garage. (SERVICE)
36. Many ________ of different organizations participated in the conference yesterday. (REPRESENT)
37. The weather was terrible, so we had a very _________ holiday. (PLEASE)
38. We must make a _________ about where to go. (DECIDE)
39. _________, many houses have to be demolished to make ways for the roads. (FORTUNATE)
40. Nowadays people are using energy at an _________ speed. (BELIEVE)
III. Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting. (5 points)
41. Although it rained heavily, but I came to class in time.
A
B
C
D
42. My father, along with his friends, are drinking tea in the living room.
A
B
C
D
43. The lesson is too difficult for us to understand it.
A
B
C
D
44. In many ways, riding a bicycle is similar with driving a car.
A
B
C
D
45. Your friends became very angrily over a seemingly little problem.
A
B
C
D
D. READING
I. Read the following passage and decide which option A, B, C, D best fits each space. (10 points)
A WELSH FESTIVAL
Wales has a population of about three million. English is the main language and only twenty per cent
speak both Welsh and English. Every year, (46) _______ August there is a Welsh-speaking festival. It (47)
_______ place in a different town each year so everyone has a chance for it to be near them. Local people
(48) _______ years making plans for when the festival will be in (49) _______ town. Each festival is (50)
_______ by about 160.000 people. They travel not only from nearby towns and villages (51) _______ also
from the rest of the British Isles and (52) _______ from abroad. There are concerts, plays and (53)
_______ to find the best singers, poets, writers and so on. Shops sell Welsh music, books, pictures and
clothes as (54) _______ as food and drink. The festival provides a chance for Welsh-speaking people to
be together for a whole week, with (55) _______ Welsh language all around them.
46. A. in
B. by
C. on
D. at
47. A. takes
B. finds
C. has
D. makes
48. A. pass
B. put
C. spend
D. do
49. A. our
B. their
C. his
D. its
50. A. arrived
B. come
C. visited
D. attended
51. A. and
B. but
C. since
D. however
52. A. just
B. hardly
C. quite
D. even
13
53. A. tests
B. examinations
C. competitions
D. races
54. A. long
B. far
C. good
D. well
55. A. one
B. a
C. the
D. some
II. Read the following passage and fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word. (10 points)
In Britain there is a (56)_________ now which people call Mother’s Day. In the old days many girls
from working-class families in towns and cities and from farmers’ families in the country worked in rich
13
houses. They had to do all the (57)_________ and their working day was usually very long, they often
(58)_________ on Sundays, too. Once a year, it was usually one Sunday in March, they could
(59)_________ their mothers. They went home on that day and (60)_________ presents for their mothers
and for (61)_________ members of their families. They could stay at home only one day, and then they
went back (62)_________their work. People call that day Mothering Day (63)_________Mothering
Sunday.
Later workers at the (64)_________ and girls who worked in the houses of rich families received one
free day a week, and Mothering Day became Mother’s Day. It is (65)_________ last Sunday in March.
III. Read the following passage and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. (10 points)
FRUITIBIX
Do you want to be slim? Do you worry about your family's health? Then you should try Fruitibix, the
new healthy fruit and nut biscuit. Fruitibix tastes wonderful, but it contains less sugar than most other
biscuits. Each biscuit contains dried fruit and nuts, including apples, coconuts and bananas. Sometimes
you feel like eating something between meals. Now, instead of having a chocolate, bite into a Fruitibix. It
won't make you fat and it will keep you healthy.
At lunchtime, instead of chips and hamburgers, have a Fruitibix. It contains all the essential foods for a
balanced meal. And if you are in a hurry, and you don't have time for a proper meal, Fruitibix will give you
the energy to keep on going. So whenever your children ask for something sweet, give them Fruitibix
instead of cakes or chocolate. They will love the taste and it won't harm their teeth. Discover Fruitibix. It's
on our supermarket shelves now!
66. This is ______________.
A. an advertisement
B. a magazine
C. a student's notebook
D. a letter
67. The writer wants to ______________.
A. explain why people buy this product
C. give advice about healthy living
B. persuade people to buy the product
D. compare Fruitibix with other sorts of food
68. Why, in the writer's opinion, should people eat Fruitibix instead of chocolate?
A. Fruitibix tastes better than chocolate.
B. Fruitibix contains more fat than chocolate.
C. Fruitibix is cheaper and easier to eat than chocolate.
D. Fruitibix is healthier and less fattening than chocolate.
69. Why does the writer say that fruitibix is useful when you are in a hurry?
A. You don't need to cook it.
C. It's as good as a proper meal.
B. You can buy Fruitibix everywhere.
D. It won't be harmful to your teeth.
70. Which of these people should buy Fruitibix?
A. Mrs. Brown is looking for something special to serve for dessert at a dinner party.
B. Mr. Taylor is going on a fishing trip and wants to take something to eat with him. He enjoys salty food.
C. Mrs. Brook's daughter was ill yesterday. She is getting better but the doctor advised Mrs. Brook to
give her liquid food without any sugar or salt in it.
D. Mr. Green wants something to take to the office. He is busy today and might not have time for lunch.
E. WRITING
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
sentence printed before it. (5 points)
71. He won a prize at the competition because he spoke English fluently.
14
Because of _______________________________________________________________.
72. Nowhere is more expensive than this restaurant.
This restaurant ____________________________________________________________.
73. Mr. Lee said to his students, “Do as many exercises in English as you can.”
Mr. Lee advised ____________________________________________________________.
74. “How much do you think it will cost?” she asked.
14
She wanted to know ________________________________________________________.
75. I last saw him when I was a student.
I haven't __________________________________________________________________.
II. Use the following sets of words and phrases to write a letter from Lilly to Elizabeth. (10 points)
Dear Elizabeth,
76. I / be / glad / receive / letter.
77. I / just / wonderful / news.
78. I / pass / final / examination / university.
79. My father / be / please / he / hear this.
80. He / already / promise / pay / holiday abroad / I / pass.
81. So / I / come / England.
82. I / like / study English / school / near / home.
83. I / look for / advanced course / perhaps / three / four hours / day.
84. You / help / find / one?
85. I / look forward / see / soon.
Love,
Lilly
III. It is said that the Internet plays an important role in our life. Do you think so? Write a passage of
about 120 -150 words to express your idea about this saying. (10 points)
========== The end ==========
Họ và tên thí sinh: ...................................................... Số báo danh ................
Họ tên, chữ ký giám thị 1: ................................................................................
Họ tên, chữ ký giám thị 2: ................................................................................
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI HUYỆN VÒNG I
NĂM HỌC: 2012-2013
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 9
A. LISTENING
Listen to Becky and Sarah talking about their new apartments and decide whether the following
statements are True (T) or False (F). You’ll listen to their talks twice. (10 pts)
Tổng 10 điểm, mỗi câu đúng cho 1 điểm
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
T
F
F
F
T
T
F
T
F
T
B. phonetics
Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others in the group.
Tổng 5 điểm, mỗi câu đúng cho 1 điểm
11
12
13
14
15
C
A
D
B
C
C. grammar – vocabulary – language functions
I. Choose the option A, B, C or D which
15 best completes or responds to each sentence. (15 points)
Tổng 15 điểm, mỗi câu đúng cho 1 điểm
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
A
B
D
B
B
C
A
C
B
A
D
A
B
D
A
II. Give the correct form of the words in brackets to complete the sentences (10points).
Tổng 10 điểm, mỗi câu đúng cho 1 điểm
15
31
economic
36
representatives
32
encouraged/encourages
37
unpleasant
33
northern
38
decision
34
freezer(s)
39
unfortunately
35
servicing
40
unbelievable
III. Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correction. (5 points)
Tổng 5 điểm, mỗi câu đúng cho 1 điểm
41
42
43
44
45
B
B
D
C
B
D. READING
I. Read the following passage and decide which option A, B, C, D best fits each space. (10 points)
Tổng 10 điểm, mỗi câu đúng cho 1 điểm
46
47
48
49
50
51
52
53
54
55
A
A
C
B
D
B
D
C
D
C
II. Read the following passage and fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word. (10 points)
Tổng 10 điểm, mỗi câu đúng cho 1 điểm
56
holiday
61
other
57
housework
62
to
58
worked
63
or
59
visit/ meet/ see
64
factories
60
brought/ bought
65
the
16
III. Read the following passage and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. (10 points)
Tổng 10 điểm, mỗi câu đúng cho 2 điểm
66
A
16
67
B
68
D
69
C
70
D
E. WRITING
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
sentence printed before it. (5 points)
Tổng 5 điểm, mỗi câu đúng cho 1 điểm
Possible answer:
71. Because of his fluent English, he won a prize at the competition.
OR: Because of his fluency in English, he won a prize at the competition.
OR: Because of his speaking English fluently, he won a prize at the competition.
72. This restaurant is the most expensive.
73. Mr. Lee advised his students to do as many exercises in English as they could.
74. She wanted to know how much I/we thought it would cost.
75. I haven't seen him since I was a student.
II. Use the following sets of words and phrases to write a letter from Lilly to Elizabeth. (10 points)
Tổng 10 điểm, mỗi câu đúng cho 1 điểm.
Dear Elizabeth,
76. I am glad to receive your letter.
77. I have just got/had some wonderful news.
78. I have passed the final examination at the university.
79. My father will be very pleased when he hears this.
80. He has already promised to pay for a holiday abroad if I pass.
OR: He has already promised to pay for me to go on holiday abroad if I pass.
81. So I will come to England.
82. I’d like to study English in a school near your home.
83. I will look for an advanced course which perhaps lasts for three or four hours a day.
84. Can you help me to find one?
85. I am looking forward to seeing you soon.
Love,
Lilly
III. It is said that the Internet plays an important role in our life. Do you think so? Write a
passage of about 120 -150 words to express your idea about this saying. (10 points)
1. Content: (5 pts)
1.1. Passage structure for one side of the argument:
+ Introduction: topic + your opinion (either agree or disagree) (1.0 pt)
+ First idea to support your opinion
+ Second idea to support your opinion
+ Second idea to support your opinion
(3.0 pts)
………..
17
+ Conclusion: repeat your opinion (1.0 pt)
1.2. Passage structure for giving both sides:
+ Introduction: topic + say that you 'partly agree' (1.0 pt)
+ On the one hand,... (1.5 pts)
+ On the other hand,... (1.5 pts)
+ Conclusion: repeat that you accept elements of both arguments (1.0 pt)
17
2. Language: (5 pts)
+ Appropriate vocabulary (1.5 pts)
+ Correct grammar (2.5 pts)
+ Punctuating/ Spelling (1.0 pt)
Chú ý: Tổng số điểm là 100, sau đó qui về thang điểm 10 và làm tròn đến số thập phân thứ nhất.
Transcript of the listening part
1.
The bookshelf looks really good in the living room. And the TV is just fine. When I find a mp3 player, I’m
going to put it in the bookshelf. I don’t have mp3 player now because I want to find a cheap one. I’m going
to check out the sales next week. I’ve got a dinner table, but I still need a sofa. Now I have to sit at the
dinner table to watch TV. My living room is small, so I want a small sofa.
2.
I was thinking about getting a bookshelf, but I don’t have many books yet, so I guess I can wait. I was
lucky. I got a really cheap used TV the other day. It only cost $50 and it works really well. It’s nice to have
something to watch. Right now I don’t have enough money to buy mp3 player. The dinner table is very nice
and big enough for six people. I bought a cheap sofa, too. It’s really comfortable.
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI TỈNH LỚP 9 THCS
HẢI DƯƠNG
NĂM HỌC 2012-2013
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
Ngày thi: 27 / 3 / 2013
(Đề thi gồm có 05 trang)
Thí sinh làm bài vào tờ giấy thi.
Phần trắc nghiệm: Chỉ cần viết chữ cái A hoặc B, C, D.
Phần tự luận viết đầy đủ theo yêu cầu của bài.
(Thí sinh không được sử dụng bất cứ tài liệu gì.)
18
A. LISTENING
Hướng dẫn làm bài nghe:
18
-
Bài nghe gồm có 1 phần, thí sinh được nghe 2 lần. Mở đầu và kết thúc có tín hiệu nhạc
Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) có trong bài nghe.
Listen to the passage and fill in the blank with ONE missing word (10 points):
Our oceans are becoming extremely (1)..................... Most of this pollution comes from the land which
(2) ..................... it comes from people. Firstly, there is raw sewage which is pumped (3).....................into the
sea. Many countries, both developed and developing, are guilty of doing this. Secondly, ships drop about six
million tons of (4)..................... into the sea. Thirdly, there are oil spills from ships. A ship has an (5).....................
and oil leaks from the vessel. This not only pollutes the water, but it also (6)..................... marine life. Next, there
are waste materials (7) ..................... factories. Without proper regulations, factory owners let the waste run
directly into the rivers, which then (8) ..................... to the sea. And (9) ....................., oil is washed from the
land. This can be the result of (10) ..................... or a deliberate dumping of waste.
B. PHONETICS
Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others (5 points):
11.
A. benefit
B. recycle
C. logical
D. grocery
12.
A. disappear
B. existence
C. imagine
D. extensive
13.
A. empty
B. relate
C. suggest
D. effect
14.
A. scenery
B. scholarship
C. dictionary
D. compulsory
15.
A. sample
B. behave
C. replace
D. parade
C. GRAMMAR - VOCABULARY - LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS
I. Choose the word, phrase or expression which best completes each sentence (15 points):
16. The man asked me .....................
A. where had I gone the previous day.
B. where I had gone the previous day.
C. where I had gone yesterday.
D. where did I go yesterday.
17. Jenny refused to explain the reason ..................... her absence from class last week.
A. why
B. about
C. for
D. of
18. The party was great! Everyone enjoyed ..................... very much.
A. themselves
B. ourselves
C. oneself
D. itself
19. Nguyen Du is considered one of the best ..................... that Vietnam has ever produced.
A. poets
B. poems
C. poetry
D. poetic
20. Hardly ..................... at school when it started to rain.
A. did we arrive
B. we arrived
C. we had arrived
D. had we arrived
21. Please don't put much salt in the soup. Just ......................
A. few
B. a few
C. a little
D. little
22. The police are looking for the man ..................... car was found in the jungle last night.
A. whose
B. whom
C. who
D. his
23. It is high time we.....................something to protect rare animals from extinction.
A. did
B. do
C. will do
D. are doing
24. Despite working in the same office, Mary earns ..................... her boyfriend.
A. twice as many as
B. twice more than
C. twice as more than D. twice as much as
25. Jack never helps his mum with the housework,.....................?
19
A. does he
doesn't he
C. will he
D. did he
26. When the boy was told that he had failed the exam, he was extremely .....................
A. disappointing
B. disappointedly
C. disappointed
D. disappointment
27. "No, you are not allowed ..................... out tonight, Mike," the father said angrily.
A. to go
B. going
C. to going
D. go
28. "The room is too dirty! Do you think it needs...................., honey?" said the wife.
19
A. to clean
B. cleaning
B. to be cleaning
29. I think your health will not improve ..................... you give up smoking.
A. if
B. when
C. unless
30. Can you close the gate ..................... the hens will not go out?
A. so as to
B. in order to
C. in order for
II. Give the correct form of the words in brackets (10 points):
D. cleaned
D. until
D. so that
31. Why don't you ask Uncle John this question? He is very .................about the history of
English.
32. Henry wondered who had sent him that .....................email.
33. Please don't serve Mrs. Thomson with meat. She is a.....................
34. Many rural areas in the North have been.....................
35. They are ..................... awaiting the test results.
36. Tom phoned his friend to apologize for his..................... at the get-together.
37. Many families are trying to ..................... by not eating in restaurants.
38. "I have just won the first prize in the English speaking contest," the little girl
said.....................
39. Travelling helps to..................... our knowledge.
40. It is not difficult to see that there are many ..................... differences between the two
regions.
(KNOW)
(MYSTERY)
(VEGETABLE)
(URBAN)
(ANXIETY)
(POLITE)
(ECONOMY)
(PRIDE)
(RICH)
(CULTURE)
III. Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting (5 points):
41. Remember not to say anything that makes high sensitive people upset.
A
B
C
D
42. One of the biggest problems faces us today is how to reduce pollution.
A
B
C
D
43. There is no point to explain the situation to such a narrow-minded person.
A
B
C
D
44. John could not go camping with his classmates last weekend because his illness.
A
B
C
D
45. I am absolutely convinced that life is pleasure and easy.
A
B
C
D
IV. Match one sentence in Column A with one suitable response in Column B. Use each response ONCE only (5
points):
A
46. Excuse me, are you ready to order, Sir?
47. Would you mind turning down the radio?
48. Could you do me a favor, Madam?
49. I think we should stop here and go out for some
coffee.
50. Could you take a message, please?
20
B
A. Great idea!
B. You must be kidding!
C. Thanks for your nice compliment.
D. Certainly, let me get a pen and a piece of paper.
E. No, of course not.
F. Yes, how can I help you?
G. Yes, I'd like some red wine and some steak.
D. READING
I. Read the following passage and decide which option A, B, C or D best fits each space (10 points):
20
Plants grow (51).................almost every part of the world. We see (52).................plants as flowers,
grass, and trees nearly every day. Plants grow high on mountaintops, far in the oceans, and in many deserts
and (53).................regions.
Without plants, there could be no life on earth. Man could not live without air or food, and so he could
not live without plants. The oxygen in the air we breathe comes from plants. The food we eat also comes from
plants or from animals that eat plants. We build houses and make many (54)................. products from lumber
cut from trees. (55)................. of our clothing is made from the fibers of the cotton plant.
Scientists believe there are more than 350,000 species of plants, but no one knows for (56).................
Some of the smallest plants, called diatoms, can be seen only with a (57)................. A drop of water may hold
as many as 500 diatoms. The largest living things are the giant sequoia trees of California. Some of them stand
more than 290 feet high and measure over 30 feet wide
Scientists (58)................. all living things into two main groups – plants and animals. It is usually easy to
tell the two (59)................. Almost all kinds of plants stay in one place, but nearly all species of animals move
about under their own power. Most plants make their own food from air, sunlight, and water. Animals cannot
make their own food. The basic units of all life, called cells, are also different in plants and animals. Most plants
have thick walls that (60).................a material called cellulose. Animal cells do not have this material.
51.
A. on
B. in
C. at
D. of
52.
A. these
B. those
C. all
D. such
53.
A. polar
B. polarized
C. poled
D. pole
54.
A. harmful
B. useful
C. unnecessary
D. unhealthy
55.
A. Many
B. Few
C. Much
D. Lot
56.
A. certainty
B. guarantee
C. sure
D. certainly
57.
A. telescope
B. periscope
C. stethoscope
D. microscope
58.
A. part
B. separate
C. divide
D. sort
59.
A. difference
B. apart
C. distinctly
D. separately
60.
A. contain
B. maintain
C. stock
D. incorporate
II. Read the following passage and choose the words from A to H in the box to fill in each gap from 61 to
65. There are THREE extra words you do not need to use (5 points):
A. for
C. of
21
B. afford
D. excited
E. kinds
G. concerned
F. channels
H. broadcast
Many parents in the United States are (61) .....................about the effect of advertisements on TV on
their children. Children may watch TV and may see candy advertised. The children may ask their parents to buy
21
the candy they have seen on TV. The candy may not be good (62) ..................... the children’s health. Also
children see many (63) .....................of toys and games advertised on TV. If their parents cannot (64)
..................... to buy these things, the children will be upset. Many parents wish to have no advertising during
the time when children watch TV. Maybe some day all TV (65) .....................will drop advertisements. No one
likes them much, but they help to pay for the programs.
III. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question (10 points):
It is not easy for adult students of English to improve their accents. Unlike children, who are flexible,
adults often find it hard to change the way they speak. This is why even the top or smartest adult students have
difficulty with pronunciation. There are several things that an international student can do to improve his or her
pronunciation.
One method is to sign up for a pronunciation class. Studying pronunciation can help students to
understand the rules of English, but in order to practice speaking students often need to be exposed to
English outside the classroom as well. This is why many students say that studying in an English-speaking
country greatly affects their English. Living with native speakers can help students to pick up new vocabulary as
well as improve their accents. International students can also learn important cultural information. This can help
to prevent misunderstandings that may occur when people from different cultures live together.
However, living with someone from another culture can be difficult. International students are usually
excited when they first show up at their new homes, but after a few months they may start to think about their
home countries and get homesick. Students who are homesick get depressed quickly. They might cry a lot or
want to be alone. This makes it difficult for them to make friends and learn English.
66. According to the passage, it seems that.....................
A. all that the students need to improve their pronunciation is to practice more outside the classroom
B. attending a pronunciation class can be very helpful to adult learners who have problems with their
pronunciation.
C. most younger students cannot change their pronunciation.
D. adult students of English cannot improve their accents because they are slow to change
67. What does the phrase “to be exposed to English” in the second paragraph mean?
A. Imitating native speakers.
B. Avoiding speaking English outside the classroom.
22
C. Living in an English–speaking environment.
D. Listening to native speakers
68. Which of the flowing is TRUE?
22
A. The passage implies that adult learners should not study English in an English-speaking country to
avoid these problems.
B. Many students feel depressed because they cannot improve their pronunciation.
C. On their arrival, most international students may forget about the problems because they are very
excited.
D. To avoid misunderstandings about cultures, students should live with native speakers.
69. According to the passage, many international students feel depressed because.....................
A. living with someone from another culture can be difficult.
B. they are lonely.
C. they are homesick.
D. they cannot improve their pronunciation.
70. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The problem adult students may face.
B. Learning English.
C. How to improve pronunciation.
D. How to overcome homesickness.
E. WRITING
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence
given before it (5 points):
71. Although the weather was very bad, the captain ordered his men to sail down the coast.
→ In spite
of...........................................................................................................................................................................
72. We would rather walk home than take a bus.
→ We
prefer.........................................................................................................................................................................
..
23
73. If you worry, you will find it difficult to get to sleep.
→ The
more..........................................................................................................................................................................
.
23
74. Jane cannot get a good job because she does not have any qualifications.
→
If................................................................................................................................................................................
.........
75. The boss made us work 12 hours a day.
→
We.............................................................................................................................................................................
........
II. Use the suggested words and phrases below to write a complete letter (10 points):
I write / tell / how much / I / enjoy evening / I spend / you / your family / last Saturday evening. I / be /
Sydney / since/ January / and it be / first time / dinner / an Australian family. I / find / conversation / most
interesting. I also / congratulate you / excellent cooking. I / very grateful / helpful / information/ courses of
English. I / hope / I / find / suitable school / next few days, and English / not too hard / me / study. You / give /
best regards / husband / lovely daughters?
Thank / again/ extremely / pleasant evening.
I / look forward / see / you / next week.
You are required to begin and end your letter as followed:
Dear Mrs. Thomson,
..................................................................................................................................................................................
.............
..................................................................................................................................................................................
.............
..................................................................................................................................................................................
.............
..................................................................................................................................................................................
.............
24
..................................................................................................................................................................................
.............
Yours faithfully,
Pham Thanh Thuy
24
III. Write a paragraph of about 120 words about your favorite teacher (10 points)
========== THE END ==========
Họ và Tên thí sinh: ............................................................................... Số báo danh: .................
Họ và Tên giám thị 1: ............................................................................Chữ ký :………………….
Họ và Tên giám thị 2: ............................................................................Chữ ký :………………….
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
ĐÁP ÁN VÀ HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM
HẢI DƯƠNG
BÀI THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI TỈNH LỚP 9 THCS
NĂM HỌC 2012-2013
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH
Ngày thi: 27 / 3 / 2013
A. LISTENING (10 points): One point for each correct answer.
1. polluted
2. means
3. directly
4. garbage
5.
7. from
8. leads
9. finally
10.
14. D
15. A
18. A
19. A
20. D
accident
6. kills
carelessness
B. phonetics (5 points): One point for each correct answer.
11. B
12. A
13. A
C. grammar - vocabulary - LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS
I. (15 points): One point for each correct answer.
16. B
17. C
25
21. C
22. A
23. A
24.D
25. A
26. C
27. A
28. B
29. C
30. D
II. (10 points): One point for each correct answer.
25