40 bài đọc hiểu thầy bùi văn vinh file word có lời giải chi tiết image marked image marked

Đọc hiểu
In the explosion of the linguistic life cycle, it is apparent that it is much more difficult to
learn a second language in adulthood than a first language in childhood. Most adults never
completely master a foreign language, especially in Phonology – hence the ubiquitous foreign
accent. Their development often “fossilizes” into permanent error patterns that no teaching or
correction can undo. Of course, there are great individual differences, which depend on effort,
attitudes, amount of exposure, quality of teaching and plain talent, but there seems to be a cap for
the best adults in the best circumstances
Many explanations have been advanced for children’s superiority; they exploit Motherese
(the simplified, repetitive conversation between parents and children), make errors unselfconsciously, are more motivated to communicate, like to conform, are not set in their ways, and
have not first language to interfere. But some of these accounts are unlikely, based on what is
known about how language acquisition works. Recent evidence is calling these social and
motivation explanations into doubt. Holding every other factor constant, a key factor stands out:
sheer age
Systematic evidence comes from the psychologist Elissa Newport and her colleagues. They
tested Korean and Chinese – born students at the University of Illinois who had spent a least ten
years in the United States. The immigrants were give a list of 276 simple English sentences, half
of them containing some grammatical error. The immigrants who came to the United States
between the age of 3 and 7 performed identically to American – born students. Those who arrived
between ages 8 and 15 did worse the latter they arrived, and those who arrived between 17 and 39
did the worst of all, and showed huge variability unrelated to their age of arrival
Question 1: The passage mainly discussed
A. adult differences in learning a foreign language
B. children’s ability to learn a language
C. the age factor in learning languages fast
D. research into language acquisition
Question 2: From the passage, it can be inferred that “Phonology” is the study of ____
A. he grammar of language
B. the rules of a language
C the vocabulary of a language
D. the sound system of a language

Question 3: The word “cap” in paragraph 1 is closet in meaning to _____
A. prize
B. limit
C. covering
D. level
Question 4: According to the passage, young children learn languages quickly for all of the
following reasons EXCEPT __________
A. they make many mistakes
B. they want to talk


C. their approach is flexible
D. they frequently repeat words
Question 5: The word “unrelated” in paragraph 3 is closet in meaning to ___
A. unconnected
B. unfamiliar
C. unclassified
D. unidentified
Question 6: In the experiment in the passage, the Psychologists discovered _____
A. most students had lived in the U.S for more that 10 years
B. older students were unable to learn English
C. young students learned English best
D. students who arrived late were worst of all
Question 7: The word “who” in paragraph 3 refers to _____
A. Elissa Newport B. Koreans
C. students
D. colleagues
Question 8: According to the passage, what was the purpose of examining a sample number of
immigrants?
A. To compare different age groups

B. To detect differences in nationalities
C. To confirm different language characteristics
D. To measure the use of grammar

The time when human crossed the Arctic land bridge from Siberia to Alaska seems remote
to us today, but actually represents a late stage in the prehistory of humans, an era when polished
stone implements and bows and arrows were already being used and dogs had already been
domesticated
When these early migrants arrived in North America, they found the woods and plains
dominated by three types of American mammoths. These elephants were distinguished from
today’s elephants mainly by their thick, shaggy coats and their huge, upward-curving tusks. They
had arrived on the continent hundreds of thousands of years before their followers. The woody
mammoth in the North, the Columbian mammoth in middle North America, and the imperial
mammoth of the South, together with their distant cousins the mastodons, dominated the land.
Here, as in the Old World, there is evidence that humans hunted these elephants, as shown by
numerous spear points found with mammoth remains
Then, at the end of the Ice Age, when the last glaciers had retreated, there was a relatively
sudden and widespread extinction of elephants. In the New World, both mammoths and mastodons
disappeared. In the Old World, only Indian and African elephants survived.
Why did the huge, seemingly successful mammoths disappear? Were humans connected
with their extinction? Perhaps, but at that time, although they were cunning hunters, humans were
still widely settled and not very numerous. It is difficult to see how they could have prevailed over
the mammoth to such an extent
Question 9: With which of the following is the passage primarily concerned?


A. Migration from Siberia to Alaska
B. Techniques used to hunt mammoths
C. The prehistory of humans
D. The relationship between man and mammoth in the New World

Question 10: The word “implements” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _____
A. tools
B. ornaments
C. houses
D. carvings
Question 11: The phrase “these early migrants” in paragraph 2 refers to ____
A. mammoths
B. humans
C. dogs
D. mastodons
Question 12: Where were the imperial mammoths the dominant type of mammoth?
A. Alaska
B. the central portion of North America
C. the southern part of North America
D. South America
Question 13: It can be inferred that when humans crossed into the New World, they ____
A. had previously hunted mammoths in Siberia
B. had never seen mammoth before
C. brought mammoths with them from the Old World
D. soon learned to use dogs to hunt mammoths
Question 14: Which of the following could be best substitute for the word “remains” in
paragraph 2?
A. bones
B. drawings
C. footprints
D. spear points
Question 15: The passage supports which of the following conclusions about mammoth
A. Humans hunted them to extinction
B. The freezing temperatures of the Ice Age destroyed their food supply
C. The cause of their extinction is not definitely known

D. Competition with mastodons caused them to become extinct
THE DIGITAL DIVIDE
Information technology is influencing the way many of us live and work today. We use the
Internet to look and apply for jobs, shop, conduct research, make airline reservations, and explore
areas of interest. We use e-mail and the Internet to communicate instantaneously with friends and
business associates around the world. Computers are commonplace in homes and the workplace.
Although the number of Internet users is growing exponentially each year, most of the
world’s population does not have access to computers or the Internet. Only 6 percent of the
population in developing countries are connected to telephones. Although more than 94 percent of
U.S. households have a telephone, only 42 percent have personal computers at home and 26
percent have Internet access. The lack of what most of us would consider a basic communications
necessity –the telephone –does not occur just in developing nations. On some Native American


reservations only 60 percent of the residents have a telephone. The move to wireless connections
may eliminate the need for telephone lines, but it does not remove the barrier to equipment costs.
Who has Internet access? Fifty percent of the children in urban households with an income
over $75,000 have Internet access, compared with 2 percent of the children in low-income, rural
households. Nearly half of college-educated people have Internet access, compared to 6 percent of
those with only some high school education. Forty percent of households with two parents have
access; 15 percent of female, single-parent households do. Thirty percent of white households, 11
percent of black households, and 13 percent of Hispanic households have access. Teens and
children are the two fastest-growing segments of Internet users. The digital divide between the
populations who have access to the Internet and information technology tools is based on income,
race, education, household type, and geographic location. Only 16 percent of the rural poor, rural
and central city minorities, young householders, and single parent female households are
connected..
Another problem that exacerbates these disparities is that African-Americans, Hispanics,
and Native Americans hold few of the jobs in information technology. Women hold about 20
percent of these jobs and are receiving fewer than 30 percent of the computer science degrees. The

result is that women and members of the most oppressed ethnic groups are not eligible for the jobs
with the highest salaries at graduation. Baccalaureate candidates with degrees in computer science
were offered the highest salaries of all new college graduates in 1998 at $44,949.
Do similar disparities exist in schools? More than 90 percent of all schools in the country
are wired with at least one Internet connection. The number of classrooms with Internet
connections differs by the income level of students. Using the percentage of students who are
eligible for free lunches at a school to determine income level, we see that nearly twice as many
of the schools with more affluent students have wired classrooms as those with high
concentrations of low-income students.
Access to computers and the Internet will be important in reducing disparities between
groups. It will require greater equality across diverse groups whose members develop knowledge
and skills in computer and information technologies. If computers and the Internet are to be used
to promote equality, they will have to become accessible to populations that cannot currently afford
the equipment which needs to be updated every three years or so. However, access alone is not
enough. Students will have to be interacting with the technology in authentic settings. As
technology becomes a tool for learning in almost all courses taken by students, it will be seen as a
means to an end rather than an end in itself. If it is used in culturally relevant ways, all students
can benefit from its power.

Question 16. Why does the author mention the telephone in paragraph 2?
A. To contrast the absence of telephone usage with that of Internet usage
B. To describe the development of communications from telephone to Internet


C. To demonstrate that even technology like the telephone is not available to all
D. To argue that basic telephone service is a first step to using the Internet
Question 17. Which of the sentences below best expresses the information in the statement
“Although the number ............. or the Internet.” in the paragraph 2?
A. The number of computers that can make the Internet available to most of the people in the
world is not increasing fast enough.

B. The Internet is available to most of the people in the world, even though they don't have
their own computer terminals.
C. Most of the people in the world use the Internet now because the number of computers has
been increasing every year.
D. The number of people who use computers and the Internet is increasing every year, but
most people in the world still do not have connections.
Question 18. Based on information in paragraph 3, which of the following best explains the term
"digital divide?"
A. The disparity in the opportunity to use the Internet
B. Differences in socioeconomic levels among Internet users
C. The number of Internet users in developing nations
D. Segments of the population with Internet access
Question 19. Why does the author give details about the percentages of Internet users in paragraph
3?
A. To argue for more Internet connections at all levels of society
B. To suggest that improvements in Internet access are beginning to take place
C. To prove that there are differences in opportunities among social groups
D. To explain why many people have Internet connections now
Question 20. According to paragraph 4, why are fewer women and minorities employed in the
field of computer technology?
A. They do not have an interest in technology.
B. They prefer training for jobs with higher salaries.
C. They are not admitted to the degree programs.
D. They do not possess the educational qualifications.
Question 21. The word “concentrations” in the passage is closest in meaning to


A. confidence

B. protections C. numbers

D. support

Question 22. What can be inferred from paragraph 6 about Internet access?
A. The cost of replacing equipment is a problem.
B. Technology will be more helpful in three years.
C. Better computers need to be designed.
D. Schools should provide newer computers for students.

Cooperation is the common endeavor of two or more people to perform a task or reach a
jointly cherished goal. Like competition and conflict, there are different forms of cooperation,
based on group organization and attitudes.
In the first form, known as primary cooperation, group and individual fuse. The group
contains nearly all of each individual’s life. The rewards of the group’s work are shared with each
member. There is an interlocking identity of individual, group and task performed. Means and
goals become one, for cooperation itself is valued.
While primary cooperation is most often characteristic of preliterature societies, secondary
cooperation is characteristic of many modern societies. In secondary cooperation, individuals
devote only part of their lives to the group. Cooperation itself is not a value. Most members of the
group feel loyalty, but the welfare of the group is not the first consideration. Members perform
tasks so that they can separately enjoy the fruits of their cooperation in the form of salary, prestige,
or power. Business offices and professional athletic teams are examples of secondary cooperation.
In the third type, called tertiary cooperation or accommodation, latent conflict underlies
the shared work. The attitudes of the cooperating parties are purely opportunistic: the organization
is loose and fragile. Accommodation involves common means to achieve antagonistic goals: it
breaks down when the common means cease to aid each party in reaching its goals. This is not,
strictly speaking, cooperation at all, and hence the somewhat contradictory term antagonistic
cooperation is sometimes used for this relationship.

Question 23. What is the author’s main purpose in the first paragraph of the passage?

A. To offer a brief definition of cooperation
B. To explain how cooperation differs from competition and conflict
C. To urge readers to cooperate more often
D. To show the importance of group organization and attitudes
Question 24. The word cherished in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______


A. agreed on

B. prized

C. defined

D. set up

Question 25. Which of the following statements about primary cooperation is supported by
information in the passage?
A. It is an ideal that can never be achieved
B. It was confined to prehistoric times
C. It is usually the first stage of cooperation achieved by a group of individuals attempting to
cooperate
D. It is most commonly seen among people who have not yet developed reading and writing
skills
Question 26. According to the passage, why do people join groups that practice secondary
cooperation?
A. To get rewards for themselves
B. To defeat a common enemy
C. To experience the satisfaction of cooperation
D. To associate with people who have similar backgrounds
Question 27. Which of the following is an example of the third form of cooperation as it is defined

in the fourth paragraph?
A. Members of a farming community share work and the food that they grow
B. Two rival political parties temporarily work together to defeat a third party
C. Students form a study group so that all of them can improve their grades
D. A new business attempts to take customers away from an established company
Question 28. Which of the following is NOT given as a name for the third type of cooperation?
A. Accommodation

B. Latent conflict

C. Tertiary cooperation

D. Antagonistic cooperation

Question 29. The word fragile in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
A. poorly planned

B. involuntary

C. inefficient

D. easily broken

Question 30. Which of the following best describes the overall organization of the passage?
A. The author presents the points of view of three experts on the same topic
B. The author compares and contrasts two types of human relations
C. The author describes a concept by analyzing its three forms


D. The author provides a number of concrete examples and then draws a conclusion

Reading to oneself is a modern activity which was almost unknown to the scholars of the
classical and medieval worlds, while during the fifteenth century the term “reading” undoubtedly
meant reading aloud. Only during the nineteenth century did silent reading become commonplace.
One should be wary, however, of assuming that silent reading came about simply because
reading aloud was a distraction to others. Examinations of factors related to the historical
development of silent reading have revealed that it became the usual mode of reading for most
adults mainly because the tasks themselves changed in character.
The last century saw a steady gradual increase in literacy and thus in the number of readers.
As the number of readers increases, the number of potential listeners decline and thus there was
some reduction in the need to read aloud. As reading for the benefit of listeners grew less common,
so came the flourishing of reading as a private activity in such public places as libraries, railway
carriages and offices, where reading aloud would cause distraction to other readers.
Towards the end of the century, there was still considerable argument over whether books
should be used for information or treated respectfully and over whether the reading of materials
such as newspapers was in some mentally weakening. Indeed, this argument remains with us still
in education. However, whatever its virtues, the old shared literacy culture had gone and was
replaced by the printed mass media on the one hand and by books and periodicals for a specialized
readership on the other.
By the end of the twentieth century, students were being recommended to adopt attitudes
to books and to use reading skills which were inappropriate, if not impossible, for the oral reader.
The social, cultural and technological changes in the century had greatly altered what the
term “reading” implied.

Question 31. Reading aloud was more common in the medieval world because______
A. few people could read to themselves.
B. people relied on reading for entertainment.
C. there were few places available for private reading
D. silent reading had not been discovered
Question 32. The word “commonplace” in the first paragraph mostly means “______ .”
A. attracting attention

C. most preferable.

B. for everybody’s use
D. widely used

Question 33. The development of silent reading during the last century indicated______


A. an increase in the number of books.
C. a change in the nature of reading

B. an increase in the average age of readers.
D. a change in the status of literate people.

Question 34. Silent reading, especially in public places, flourished mainly because of______
A. the increase in literacy
C. the decreasing need to read aloud

B. the decreasing number of listeners
D. the development of libraries

Question 35. The phrase “a specialized readership” in paragraph 4 mostly means “______ ”
A. a reading volume for particular professionals.
B. a status for reader specialized in mass media.
C. a requirement for readers in a particular area of knowledge
D. a limited number of readers in a particular area of knowledge
Question 36. All of the following might be the factors that effected the continuation of the old
shard literacy culture EXCEPT ____
A. the specialized readership

B. the inappropriate reading skills

C. the diversity of reading materials.

D. the print mass media

Question 37. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE according to the passage?
A. The decline of reading aloud was wholly due to its distracting effect
B. Reading aloud was more common in the past than it is today
C. Not all printed mass media was appropriate for reading aloud
D. The change in reading habits was partly due to the social, cultural and technological changes.
Question 38. The writer of this passage is attempting to______
A. show how reading methods have improved

B. encourage the growth of reading

C. explain how reading habits have developed

D. change people’s attitudes to reading

For many people who live in cities, parks are an important part of the landscape. They
provide a place for people to relax and play sports, as well as a refuge from the often harsh
environment of a city. What people often overlook is that parks also provide considerable
environmental benefits.
One benefit of parks is that plants absorb carbon dioxide—a key pollutant—and emit oxygen,
which humans need to breathe. According to one study, an acre of trees can absorb the same
amount of carbon dioxide that a typical car emits in 11,000 miles of driving. Parks also make cities
cooler. Scientists have long noted what is called the Urban Heat Island Effect: building materials

such as metal, concrete, and asphalt absorb much more of the sun’s heat and release it much more
quickly than organic surfaces like trees and grass. Because city landscapes contain so much of
these building materials, cities are usually warmer than surrounding rural areas. Parks and other
green spaces help to mitigate the Urban Heat Island Effect.
Unfortunately, many cities cannot easily create more parks because most land is already
being used for buildings, roads, parking lots, and other essential parts of the urban environment.
However, cities could benefit from many of the positive effects of parks by encouraging citizens
to create another type of green space: rooftop gardens. While most people would not think of
starting a garden on their roof, human beings have been planting gardens on rooftops for thousands
of years. Some rooftop gardens are very complex and require complicated engineering, but others
are simple container gardens that anyone can create with the investment of a few hundred dollars
and a few hours of work.
Rooftop gardens provide many of the same benefits as other urban park and garden spaces,
but without taking up the much-needed land. Like parks, rooftop gardens help to replace carbon
dioxide in the air with nourishing oxygen. They also help to lessen the Urban Heat Island Effect,
which can save people money. In the summer, rooftop gardens prevent buildings from absorbing
heat from the sun, which can significantly reduce cooling bills. In the winter, gardens help hold in
the heat that materials like brick and concrete radiate so quickly, leading to savings on heating
bills. Rooftop vegetable and herb gardens can also provide fresh food for city dwellers, saving
them money and making their diets healthier. Rooftop gardens are not only something everyone
can enjoy, they are also a smart environmental investment.

Question 39. Based on its use in paragraph 2, it can be inferred that mitigate belongs to which of the
following word groups?
A. allay, alleviate, reduce
C. exacerbate, aggravate, intensify

B. absorb, intake, consume
D. obliterate, destroy, annihilate

Question 40. Using the information in paragraph 2 as a guide, it can be inferred that
______________
A. most people prefer parks to rooftop gardens
B. most people prefer life in the country over life in the city
C. cities with rooftop gardens are cooler than those without rooftop gardens
D. some plants are not suitable for growth in rooftop gardens
Question 41. Based on the information in paragraph 3, which of the following best describes the
main difference between parks and rooftop gardens?
A. Parks absorb heat while rooftop gardens do not.
B. Parks require much space while rooftop gardens do not.


C. Parks are expensive to create while rooftop gardens are not.
D. Parks are public while rooftop gardens are private.
Question 42. The author claims all of the following to be the benefits of rooftop gardens EXCEPT
______________
A. savings on heating and cooling costs
B. better food for city dwellers
C. improved air quality
D. increased space for private relaxation
Question 43. According to the author, one advantage that rooftop gardens have over parks is that
they ______________
A. do not require the use of valuable urban land
B. decrease the Urban Heat Island Effect
C. replenish the air with nourishing oxygen
D. are less expensive than traditional park spaces
Question 44. The author’s tone in the passage is best described as______________
A. informative B. argumentative

C. descriptive D. passionate

Question 45. Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?
A. A thesis is presented and then supported.
B. A hypothesis is stated and then analyzed.
C. A proposal is evaluated and alternatives are explored.
D. A viewpoint is established and then defended.
Not so long ago almost any students who successfully completed a university degree or
diploma course could find a good career quite easily. Companies toured the academic institutions,
competing with each other to recruit graduates. However, those days are gone, even in Hong
Kong, and nowadays graduates often face strong competition in the search for jobs.
Most careers organization highlight three stages for graduates to follow in the process of
securing a suitable career: recognizing abilities, matching these to available vacancies and
presenting them well to prospective employers
Job seekers have to make a careful assessment of their own abilities. One area of
assessment should be of their academic qualifications, which would include special skills within
their subject area. Graduates should also consider their own personal values and attitudes, or the


relative importance to themselves of such matters as money, security, leadership and caring or
others. An honest assessment of personal interests and abilities such as creative or scientific skills
acquired from work experience should also be give careful thought
The second stage is to study the opportunities available for employment and to think about
how the general employment situation is likely to develop in the future. To do this, graduates can
study job vacancies and information in newspapers or the can visit a career office, write to possible
employers for information or contact friends or relatives who may already be involved in a
particular profession. After studying all various options, they should be in a position to make
informed comparisons between various careers
Good personal presentation is essential in the search for a good career. Job application
forms and letters should, of course, be filled in carefully and correctly, without grammar or spelling
errors. Where additional information is asked for, job seekers should describe their abilities and

work experience in more depth, with example if possible. They should try to balance their own
abilities with the employer’s needs, explain why they are interested in a career with the particular
company and try to show that they already know something about the company and its activities
When graduates are asked to attend for the interview, they should prepare properly by
finding out all they can about the prospective employer. Dressing suitably and arriving for the
interview on time are also obviously important. Interviewees should try to give positive and helpful
answers and should not be afraid to ask questions about anything they are unsure about. This is
much better than pretending to understand a question and giving an unsuitable answer
There will always be good career opportunities for people with ability, skills, and
determination; the secret to securing a good job is to be one of them
Question 46: In paragraph 1, “those days are gone, even in Hong Kong”. Suggests that ____
A. in the past, finding a good career was easier in Hong Kong than elsewhere
B. nowadays, everyone in Hong Kong has an equal chance of finding a good job
C. it used to be harder to find a good job in Hong Kong than in other countries
D. even in Hong Kong companies tour the universities trying to recruit graduates
Question 47: The word “prospective” in paragraph 2 is closed in meaning to ____
A. generous
B. reasonable
C. future
D. ambitious
Question 48: According to paragraph 3, job seekers should:
A. aim to give a balanced account of what the employer needs
B. divide the time equally between listening to the interviewer and speaking
C. discuss their own abilities in relation to what the employer is looking for
D. attempt to show the employer is looking for
Question 49: According to paragraph 3, graduates should ____
A. only consider careers which are suited to them as people
B. include information about personal attitudes and values in their job application
C. consider how lucky they are to be able to find careers that provide such things

D. consider the values of their parents and families as well their own wishes
Question 50: The advice given in the first sentences of paragraph 4 is to___
A. find out what jobs are available and the opportunities for future promotion
B. examine the careers available and how these will be affected in the future
C. look at the information on, and probably future location of, various careers
D. study the opportunities and the kinds of training that will be available
Question 51: According to paragraph 4, graduates should ____
A. find a good position and then compare it with other careers
B. ask friends or relatives to secure them a good job
C. get information about a number of careers before making comparisons
D. find out as much as possible and inform employers of the complaints they want
Question 52: Which of the following does “this” in paragraph 6 refers to?
A. Not being afraid to be unsure B. Giving positive and helpful answers to the questions
C. Being prepared to ask questions about things they don’t understand
D. Being unsure about the questions
Question 53: In paragraph 6, the writer seems to suggest that ____
A. interviewees should ask question if they can’t think of an answer
B. pretending to understand a question is better than giving a suitable answer
C. it is better for interviewees to be honest than to pretend to understand
D. it is not a good idea for interviewees to be completely honest in their answers
Social parasitism involves one species relying on another to raise its young. Among
vertebrates, the best known social parasites are such birds as cuckoos and cowbirds; the female
lays egg in a nest belonging to another species and leaves it for the host to rear
The dulotic species of ants, however, are the supreme social parasites. Consider, for
example, the unusual behavior of ants belonging to the genus Polyergus. All species of this ant
have lost the ability to care for themselves. The workers do not forage for food, feed their brood
or queen, or even clean their own nest. To compensate for these deficits, Polyergus has become
specialized at obtaining workers from the related genus Formica to do these chores
In a raid, several thousand Polyergus workers will travel up to 500 feet in search of a

Formica nest, penetrate it, drive off the queen and her workers, capture the pupal brood, and
transport it back to their nest. The captured brood is then reared by the resident Formica workers
until the developing pupae emerge to add to the Formica population, which maintains the mixedspecies nest. The Formica workers forage for food and give it to colony members of both species.
They also remove wastes and excavate new chambers as the population increases
The true extent of the Polyergus and dependence on the Formica becomes apparent when
the worker population grows too large for existing nest. Formica scouts locate a new nesting site,
return to the mixed-species colony, and recruit additional Formica nest mates. During a period


that may last seven days, the Formica workers carry to the new nest all the Polyergus eggs, larvae,
and pupae, every Polyergus adult, and even the Polyergus queen
Of the approximately 8000 species of ants in the world, all 5 species of Polyergus and some
200 species in other genera have evolved some degree of parasitic relationship with other ants
Question 54: Which of the following statements best represents the main idea of the passage?
A. Ants belonging to the genus Formica are incapable of performing certain tasks
B. The genus Polyergus is quite similar to the genus Formica
C. Ants belonging to the genus Polyergus have an unusual relationship with ants belonging to
the genus Formica
D. Polyergus ants frequently leave their nests to build new colonies
Question 55: The word “raise” is closest in meaning to _____
A. rear
B. lift
C. collect
D. increase
Question 56: The author mentions cuckoos and cowbirds because they _____
A. share their nests with each other
B. are closely related species
C. raise the young of their birds
D. are social parasites
Question 57: The word “it” refers to ______

A. species
B. nest
C. egg
D. female
Question 58: What does the author mean by stating that “The dulotic species of ants, however,
are the supreme social parasites”
A. The Polyergus are more highly developed than the Formica
B. The Formica have developed specialized roles
C. The Polyergus are heavily dependent on the Formica
D. The Formica do not reproduce rapidly enough to care for themselves
Question 59: The word “excavate” is closest in meaning to _____
A. find
B. clean
C. repair
D. dig
Question 60: According to the information in the passage, all of the following terms refer to ants
beginning to the genus Formica EXCEPT ______
A. dulotic
B. captured brood
C. developing pupae D. worker population
ARE HUMAN BEINGS GETTING SMARTER?
Do you think you're smarter than your parents and grandparents? According to James Flynn,
a professor at a New Zealand university, you are! Over the course of the last century, people who
have taken IQ tests have gotten increasingly better scores-on average, three points better for every
decade that has passed. This improvement is known as "the Flynn effect," and scientists want to
know what is behind it.
IQ tests and other similar tests are designed to measure general intelligence rather than
knowledge. Flynn knew that intelligence is partly inherited from our parents and partly the result
of our environment and experiences, but the improvement in test scores was happening too quickly
to be explained by heredity. So what was happening in the 20th century that was helping people

achieve higher scores on intelligence tests?
Scientists have proposed several explanations for the Flynn effect. Some suggest that the
improved test scores simply reflect an increased exposure to tests in general. Because we take so
many tests, we learn test-taking techniques that help us perform better on any test. Others have
pointed to better nutrition since it results in babies being born larger, healthier, and with more brain
development than in the past. Another possible explanation is a change in educational styles, with
teachers encouraging children to learn by discovering things for themselves rather than just
memorizing information. This could prepare people to do the kind of problem solving that
intelligence tests require.
Flynn limited the possible explanations when he looked carefully at the test data and
discovered that the improvement in scores was only on certain parts of the IQ test. Test takers didn't
do better on the arithmetic or vocabulary sections of the test; they did better on sections that
required a special kind of reasoning and problem solving. For example, one part of the test shows
a set of abstract shapes, and test-takers must look for patterns and connections between them and
decide which shape should be added to the set.
According to Flynn, this visual intelligence improves as the amount of technology in our
lives increases. Every time you play a computer game or figure out how to program a new cell
phone, you are exercising exactly the kind of thinking and problem solving that helps you do well
on one kind of intelligence test. So are you really smarter than your parents? In one very specific
way, you may be.
Question 61. The Flynn effect is____________.
A. used to measure intelligent
B. an increase in IQ test scores over time
C. unknown in some parts of the world
D. not connected to our experiences
Question 62. The Flynn effect must be the result of____________.
A. heredity
B. our environment and experiences

C. taking fewer tests
D. memorizing information
Question 63. IQ tests evaluate____________.
A. our knowledge
B. our environment
C. our intelligence
D. our memories
Question 64. Which sentence from the article gives a main idea?
A. Scientists have proposed several explanations for the Flynn effect.
B. Because we take so many tests in our lives, we learn test-taking techniques that help us perform
better on any test.
C. Test-takers didn’t do better on the arithmetic or vocabulary sections of the test.
D. For example, one part of the test shows a set of abstract shapes, and test-takers must look for
pattern and connections between them and decide which shape should be added to the set.
Question 65. According to the article, newer education techniques include____________.
A. exposure to many tests
B. children finding things out themselves


C. memorizing information
D. improved test scores
Question 66. Why does the author mention computer games?
A. to give an example of technology that improve our visual intelligence.
B. to explain why young people have poor vocabularies.
C. to encourage the reader to exercise.
D. to show that young people are not getting more intelligent.
Question 67. Which statement would Professor Flynn agree with?
A. People today are more intelligent than in the past in every way.
B. People today have fewer problems to solve.
C. People today are taking easier tests.

D. People today have more visual intelligence.
Learning means acquiring knowledge or developing the ability to perform new behaviors.
It is common to think of learning as something that takes place in school, but much of human
learning occurs outside the classroom, and people continue to learn throughout their lives.
Even before they enter school, young children learn to walk, to talk, and to use their hands
to manipulate toys, food, and other objects. They use all of their senses to learn about the sights,
sounds, tastes, and smells in their environments. They learn how to interact with their parents,
siblings, friends, and other people important to their world. When they enter school, children learn
basic academic subjects such as reading, writing, and mathematics. They also continue to learn a
great deal outside the classroom. They learn which behaviors are likely to be rewarded and which
are likely to be punished. They learn social skills for interacting with other children. After they
finish school, people must learn to adapt to the many major changes that affect their lives, such as
getting married, raising children, and finding and keeping a job.
Because learning continues throughout our lives and affects almost everything we do, the
study of learning is important in many different fields. Teachers need to understand the best ways
to educate children. Psychologists, social workers, criminologists, and other human-service
workers need to understand how certain experiences change people’s behaviors. Employers,
politicians, and advertisers make use of the principles of learning to influence the behavior of
workers, voters, and consumers.
Learning is closely related to memory, which is the storage of information in the brain.
Psychologists who study memory are interested in how the brain stores knowledge, where this
storage takes place, and how the brain later retrieves knowledge when we need it. In contrast,
psychologists who study learning are more interested in behavior and how behavior changes as a
result of a person’s experiences.
There are many forms of learning, ranging from simple to complex. Simple forms of
learning involve a single stimulus. A stimulus is anything perceptible to the senses, such as a sight,
sound, smell, touch, or taste. In a form of learning known as classical conditioning, people learn to
associate two stimuli that occur in sequence, such as lightning followed by thunder. In operant
conditioning, people learn by forming an association between a behavior and its consequences
(reward or punishment). People and animals can also learn by observation – that is, by watching

others perform behaviors. More complex forms of learning in clued learning languages, concepts,
and motor skills.

Question 68. According to the passage, which of the following is learning in broad view comprised
of?
A. Acquisition of academic knowledge
B. Acquisition of social and behavioral skills
C. Knowledge acquisition and ability development
D. Knowledge acquisition outside the classroom
Question 69. According to the passage, what are children NOT usually taught outside the
classroom?
A. Literacy and calculation
B. Interpersonal communication
C. Life skills
D. Right from wrong
Question 70. Getting married, raising children, and finding and keeping a job are mentioned in
paragraph 2 as examples of ________.
A. the situations in which people cannot teach themselves
B. the changes to which people have to orient themselves
C. the areas of learning which affect people’s lives
D. the ways people’s lives are influenced by education
Question 71. Which of the following can be inferred about the learning process from the passage?
A. It is more interesting and effective in school than that in life.
B. It becomes less challenging and complicated when people grow older.
C. It plays a crucial part in improving the learner’s motivation in school.
D. It takes place more frequently in real life than in academic institutions.
Question 72. It can be inferred from the passage that social workers, employers, and politicians
concern themselves with the study of learning because they need to ______.

A. understand how a stimulus relates to the senses of the objects of their interest
B. change the behaviors of the objects of their interest towards learning
C. thoroughly understand the behaviors of the objects of their interest
D. make the objects of their interest more aware of the importance of learning
Question 73. The word “retrieves” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. recovers
B. generates
C. creates
D. gains
Question 74. Which of the following statements is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Psychologists studying learning are interested in human behaviors.
B. Psychologists studying memory are concerned with how the stored knowledge is used.
C. Psychologists studying memory are concerned with the brain’s storage of knowledge.
D. Psychologists are all interested in memory as much as behaviors.
Question 75. The passage mainly discusses ______.
A. simple forms of learning


B. practical examples of learning inside the classroom
C. general principles of learning
D. application of learning principles to formal education
BRINGING UP CHILDREN
Where one stage of child development has been left out, or not sufficiently experienced,
the child may have to go back and capture the experience of it. A good home makes this possible
- for example, by providing the opportunity for the child to play with a clockwork car or toy railway
train up to any age if he still needs to do so. This principle, in fact, underlies all psychological
treatment of children in difficulties with their development, and is the basic of work in child clinics.
The beginnings of discipline are in the nursery. Even the youngest baby is taught by
gradual stages to wait for food, to sleep and wake at regular intervals and so on. If the child feels
the world around him is a warm and friendly one, he slowly accepts its rhythm and accustoms

himself to conforming to its demands. Learning to wait for things, particularly for food, is a very
important element in upbringing, and is achieved successfully only if too great demands are not
made before the child can understand them. Every parent watches eagerly the child's acquisition
of each new skill: the first spoken words, the first independent steps, or the beginning of reading
and writing. It is often tempting to hurry the child beyond his natural learning rate, but this can set
up dangerous feelings of failure and states of anxiety in the child. This might happen at any stage.
A baby might be forced to use a toilet too early, a young child might be encouraged to learn to
read before he knows the meaning of the words he reads. On the other hand, though, if a child is
left alone too much, or without any learning opportunities, he loses his natural zest for life and his
desire to find out new things for himself.
Learning together is a fruitful source of relationship between children and parents. By
playing together, parents learn more about their children and children learn more from their parents.
Toys and games which both parents and children can share are an important means of achieving
this co-operation. Building-block toys, jigsaw puzzles and crosswords are good examples.
Parents vary greatly in their degree of strictness or indulgence towards their children.
Some may be especially strict in money matters; others are severe over times of coming home at
night, punctuality for meals or personal cleanliness. In general, the controls imposed represent the
needs of the parents and the values of the community as much as the child's own happiness and
well-being.
With regard to the development of moral standards in the growing child, consistency is
very important in parental teaching. To forbid a thing one day and excuse it the next is no
foundation for morality. Also, parents should realize that“Example is better than precept”. If they
are hypocritical and do not practice what they preach, their children may grow confused and
emotionally insecure when they grow old enough to think for themselves, and realize they have
been, to some extent, deceived. A sudden awareness of a marked difference between their parents'
ethics and their morals can be a dangerous disillusion.
Question 76. The principle underlying all treatment of developmental difficulties in children
A. is in the provision of clockwork toys and trains
B. is to send them to clinics
C. is to capture them before they are sufficiently experienced

D. offers recapture of earlier experiences

.


Question 77. Learning to wait for things is successfully taught
.
A. in spite of excessive demands being made
B. only if excessive demands are avoided
C. because excessive demands are not advisable
D. is achieved successfully by all children
Question 78. The encouragement of children to achieve new skills .
A. should be focused on only at school
B. can never be taken too far
C. will always assist their development
D. should be balanced and moderate
Question 79. Parental controls and discipline
.
A. serve a dual purpose
B. are designed to promote the child's happiness
C. reflect only the values of the community
D. should be avoided as far as possible
Question 80. The practice of the rule “Example is better than precept” .
A. only works when the children grow old enough to think for themselves
B. would help avoid the necessity for ethics and morals
C. will free a child from disillusion when he grows up
D. is too difficult for all parents to exercise
Question 81. In the 1st paragraph, the author lays some emphasis on the role of ____ helping the
child in trouble.
A. Psychiatrists

B.community
C. family
D. nursery
Question 82. Hypocrisy on the part of the Parents may__________.
A. result in their children's wrong behaviors.
B. make their children lose faith in them
C. disqualify their teachings altogether
D. impair their children's mind
According to airline industry statistics, almost 90 percent of airline accidents are
survivable or partially survivable. But passengers can increase their chances of survival by
learning and following certain tips. Experts say that you should read and listen to safety
instructions before take-off and ask questions if you have uncertainties. You should fasten your
seat belt low on your hips and as tightly as possible. Of course, you should also know how to
release mechanism of your belt operates. During take-offs and landings, you are advised to keep
your feet flat on the floor. Before take-off you should locate the nearest exit and an alternative
exit and count the rows of seats between you and the exits to so that you can find them in the
dark if necessary.
In the event that you are forewarned of a possible accident, you should put your hands
on your ankles and keep your head down until the plane comes to a complete stop. If smoke is
present in the cabin, you should keep your head low and cover your face with napkins, towels,
or clothing. If possible, wet these for added protection against smoke inhalation. To evacuate
as quickly as possible, follow crew commands and do not take personal belongings with you.
Do not jump on escape slides before they are inflated, and when you jump, do so with your
arms and legs extended in front of you. When you get to the ground, you should move away


from them as quickly as possible, and never smoke near the wreckage.
Question 83. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Guidelines for increasing aircraft passenger survival.
B. Airline industry accident statistics.

C. Procedures for evacuating aircraft.
D. Safety instructions in air travel.
Question 84. Travelers are urged by experts to read and listen to safety instructions
A. if smoke is in the cabin
B. before take off
C. in an emergency
D. before locating the exits
Question 85. According to the passage, which exits should an airline passenger locate before
takeoff.
A. The ones with counted rows of seats between them.
B. The ones that can be found in the dark.
C. The two closest to the passenger's seat.
D. The nearest one.
Question 86. It can be inferred from the passage that people are more likely to survive fires in
aircrafts if they____________.
A. wear a safety belt
B. don't smoke in or near a plane
C. read airline safety statistics
D. keep their heads low
Question 87. Airline passengers are advised to do all of the following EXCEPT
A. locate the nearest exit
B. ask questions about safety
C. fasten their seat belts before takeoff
D. carry personal belongings in an emergency
Question 88. The word "inflated" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. extended
B. assembled C. lifted
D. expanded
Question 89. The word "wreckage" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. material

B. damage
C. prosperity
D. wreck
Question 90. What does the paragraph following the passage most probably discuss!
A. How to recover your luggage
B. Where to go to continue your trip
C. When to return to the aircraft
D. How to proceed once you are away from the aircraft
According to airline industry statistics, almost 90% of airline accidents are survivable or partially
survivable. But passengers can increase their chances of survival by learning and following certain
tips. Experts say that you should read and listen to safety instructions before take-off and ask
questions if you have uncertainties. You should fasten your seat belt low on your hips and as tightly
as possible. Of course, you should also know how the release mechanism of your belt operates.
During take-offs and landings, you are advised to keep your feed flat on the floor. Before take-off


you should locate the nearest exit and an alternative exit and count the rows of seats between you
and the exits so that you can find them in the dark if necessary
In the event that you are forewarned of a possible accident, you should put your hands on
your ankles and keep your head down until the plane comes to a complete stop. If smoke is present
in the cabin, you should keep your head low and cover your face with napkin, towels or clothing.
If possible, wet these for added protection against smoke inhalation. To evacuate as quickly as
possible, follow crew commands and do not take personal belongings with you. Do not jump on
escape slides before they’re fully inflated, and when you jump, do so with your arms and legs
extended in front of you. When you get to the ground, you should move away from the plane as
quickly as possible, and never smoke near the wreckage
Question 91: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Airline industry accident statistics
B. Procedures for evacuating aircraft
C. Guidelines for increasing aircraft passenger survival

D. Safety instruction in air travel
Question 92: Travelers are urged by experts to read and listen to safety instructions _____
A. in an emergency
B. before locating the exits
C. if smoke is in the cabin
D. before take-off
Question 93: According to the passage, when should you keep your feet flat on the floor?
A. throughout the flight
B. during take-offs and landings
C. especially during landings
D. only if an accident is possible
Question 94: According to the passage, which exits should an airline passenger locate before
take-off”
A. The ones that can be found in the dark
B. The two closest to the passenger’s seat
C. The nearest one
D. The ones with counted rows of seats between them
Question 95: The word “them” in the last line of the first paragraph refers to ___
A. rows
B. feet
C. seats
D. exits
Question 96: It can be inferred from the passage that people are more likely to survive fires in
aircraft if they ____
A. keep their heads low
B. war a safety belt
C. don’t smoke in or near a plane
D. read airline safety statistics
Question 97: Airline passengers are advised to do all of the following EXCEPT ____
A. locate the nearest exits

B. ask questions about safety
C. fasten their seat belts before take-off D. carry personal belongings in an emergency
Question 98: The word “evacuate” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ____
A. evade
B. vacate
C. escape
D. maintain


Franklin D. Roosevelt, the 32nd President of the United States, was from a wealthy wellknown family. As a child, he attended private school, had private tutors, and traveled with his
parents to Europe. He attended Harvard University, and afterward studied law. At age 39,
Roosevelt suddenly developed polio, a disease that left him without the full use of his legs for the
rest of his life. Even though the worst of his illness, however, he continued his life in politics. In
1942 he appeared at the Democratic National Convention to nominate Al Smith for president, and
eight years after that he himself was nominated for the same office. Roosevelt was elected to the
presidency during the Great Depression of the 1930s, at a time when more than 5,000 banks had
failed and thousands of people were out of work. Roosevelt took action. First he declared a bank
holiday that closed all the banks so no more could fail; then he reopened the banks little by little
with government support. Roosevelt believed in using the full power of government to help what
he called the “forgotten people”. And it was these workers, the wage earners, who felt the strongest
affection toward Roosevelt. There were others, however, who felt that Roosevelt’s policies were
destroying the American system of government, and they opposed him in the same intense way
that others admired him
In 1940 the Democrats nominated Roosevelt for an unprecedented third term. No
president in American history had ever served three terms, but Roosevelt felt an obligation not to
quit while the United States’ entry into World War II was looming in the future. He accepted the
nomination and went on to an easy victory
Question 99: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. political aspects of Roosevelt’s life
B. problems during the Great Depression

C. Roosevelt’s upbringing
D. criticisms of Roosevelt’s action
Question 100: Which on of the following statements is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Roosevelt was elected during the Great Depression
B. Roosevelt voted for Al Smith
C. Roosevelt had difficulty walking during his presidency
D. Roosevelt supported strong government powers
Question 101: The phrase “took action” in the first paragraph is used to illustrate the idea that
Roosevelt _______
A. performed admirably
B. exerted himself physically
C. responded immediately
D. got assistance
Question 102: As used in the passage, the phrase “little by little” means that Roosevelt ____
A. opened the smaller banks first
B. opened the banks for minimal services
C. opened the banks a few at a time
D. opened the bank for a short time
Question 103: The word “full” in the first paragraph could be best replaced by which of the
following?
A. packed
B. loaded
C. overflowing
D. complete


Question 104: The word “affection” could be best replaced by which of the following?
A. fascination
B. fondness
C. lure

D. appeal
Question 105: In the second paragraph, the author uses the word “looming” to indicate a feeling
of _____
A. reservation
B. determination
C. regret
D. threat
At 7 pm on a dark, cold November evening, thousands of people are making their way across
a vast car park. They're not here to see a film, or the ballet, or even the circus. They are all here
for what is, bizarrely, a global phenomenon: they are here to see Holiday on Ice. Given that most
people don’t seem to be acquainted with anyone who's ever been, the show's statistics are
extraordinary: nearly 300 million people have seen Holiday on Ice since it began in 1943; it is the
most popular live entertainment in the world.
But what does the production involve? And why are so many people prepared to spend their
lives travelling round Europe in caravans in order to appear in it? It can't be glamorous, and it's
undoubtedly hard work. The backstage atmosphere is an odd mix of gym class and workplace. A
curtained-off section at the back of the arena is laughably referred to as the girls' dressing room,
but is more accurately described as a corridor, with beige, cracked walls and cheap temporary
tables set up along the length of it. Each girl has a small area littered with pots of orange make-up,
tubes of mascara and long false eyelashes.
As a place to work, it must rank pretty low down the scale: the area round the ice-rink is grey
and mucky with rows of dirty blue and brown plastic seating and red carpet tiles. It's an
unimpressive picture, but the show itself is an unquestionably vast, polished global enterprise: the
lights come from a firm in Texas, the people who make the audio system are in California, but
Montreal supplies the smoke effects; former British Olympic skater Robin Cousins is now creative
director for the company and conducts a vast master class to make sure they're ready for the show's
next performance.
The next day, as the music blares out from the sound system, the case start to go through
their routines under Cousins' direction. Cousins says, 'The aim is to make sure they're all still
getting to exactly the right place on the ice at the right time - largely because the banks of lights in

the ceiling are set to those places, and if the skaters are all half a metre out they'll be illuminating
empty ice. Our challenge, ' he continues, 'is to produce something they can sell in a number of
countries at the same time. My theory is that you take those things that people want to see and you
give it to them, but not in the way they expect to see it. You try to twist it. And you have to find
music that is challenging to the skaters, because they have to do it every night.'
It may be a job which he took to pay the rent, but you can’t doubt his enthusiasm. 'They only
place you'll see certain skating moves is an ice show,' he says, 'because you're not allowed to do
them in competition. It's not in the rules. So the ice show word has things to offer which the
competitive world just doesn't. Cousins knows what he's talking about because he skated for the
show himself when he stopped competing - he was financially unable to retire. He learnt the hard
way that you can't put on an Olympic performance every night. I'd be thinking, these people have
paid their money, now do your stuff, and I suddenly thought, "I really can't cope. I'm not enjoying
it".' The solution, he realized, was to give 75 per cent every night, rather than striving for the sort
of twice-a-year excellence which won him medals.


To be honest, for those of us whose only experience of ice-skating is watching top-class
Olympic skaters, some of the movements can look a bit amateurish, but then, who are we to judge?
Equally, it's impossible not to be swept up in the whole thing; well, you'd have to try pretty hard
not to enjoy it.
Question 106. The writer describes the backstage area in order to show
A. how much fun the cast have during their work
B. how much preparation is needed for a performance
C. the type of skater that the show attracts
D. the conditions that the skaters put up with
Question 107. The word blares out in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
A. seeps out

B. sounds beautifully C. resounds loudly

D. rings

Question 108. What does the writer highlight about the show in the third paragraph?
A. the difficulty of finding suitable equipment
B. the need for a higher level of professional support
C. the range of companies involved in the production
D. the variety of places in which the show has been staged
Question 109. The word them in paragraph 5 refers to
A. skating moves

B. skating competitions

C. things that people want to see

D. the skaters

Question 110. For Robin Cousins, the key point when rehearsing skating routines is
A. keeping in time with the music

B. the skaters' positions on the ice

C. the movement of the lights

D. filling all available space on the ice

Question 111. Cousins believes that he can meet the challenge of producing shows for different
audiences
A. by adapting movements to suit local tastes
B. by presenting familiar material in an unexpected way
C. by selecting music that local audiences will respond to

D. by varying the routines each night
Question 112. What is meant by 'the hard way'?
A. through making a lot of errors
B. through difficult personal experience
C. by misunderstanding the expectations of others
D. by over-estimating the ability of others


Question 113. What conclusion does the writer draw about Holiday on Ice?
A.It is hard to know who really enjoys it
B. It requires as much skill as Olympic ice-skating
C. It is more enjoyable to watch than formal ice-skating
D. It is difficult to dislike it
Before the 1500’s, the western plains of North America were dominated by farmers. One
group, the Mandans, lived in the upper Missouri River country, primarily in present – day North
Dakota. They had large villages of houses built close together. The tight arrangement enabled the
Mandans to protect themselves more easily from the attacks of others who might seek to obtain
some of the food these highly capable farmers stored from one year to the next.
The women had primary responsibility for the fields. They had to exercise considerable skill
to produce the desired results, for their northern location meant fleeting growing seasons. Winter
often lingered; autumn could be ushered in by severe frost. For good measure, during the spring
and summer, drought, heat, hail, grasshoppers, and other frustrations might await the wary grower.
Under such conditions, Mandan women had to grow maize capable of weathering adversity.
They began as early as it appeared feasible to do so in the spring, clearing the land, using fire to
clear stubble from the fields and then planting. From this point until the first green corn could be
harvested, the crop required labor and vigilance.
Harvesting proceeded in two stages. In August the Mandans picked a smaller amount of the
crop before it had matured fully. This green corn was boiled, dried and shelled, with some of the
maize slated for immediate consumption and the rest stored in animal – skin bags. Later in the fall,
the people picked the rest of the corn. They saved the best of the harvest for seeds or for trade,

with the remainder eaten right away or stored for alter use in underground reserves. With
appropriate banking of the extra food, the Mandans protected themselves against the disaster of
crop failure and accompany hunger.
The woman planted another staple, squash, about the first of June, and harvested it near the
time of the green corn harvest. After they picked it, they sliced it, dried it, and strung the slices
before they stored them. Once again, they saved the seeds from the best of the year’s crop. The
Mandans also grew sunflowers and tobacco; the latter was the particular task of the older men.
Question 114. What is the main topic of the passage ?
A. The agricultural activities of a North American Society
B. Various ways corn can be used.
C. The problems encountered by farmers specializing in growing once crop
D. Weather conditions on the western plains.
Question 115. The Mandans built their houses close together in order to ____________.
A. share farming implements
B. guard their supplies of food