32 bài tập đọc HIỂU (240 câu)từ đề THẦY bùi văn VINH image marked image marked

BÀI TẬP ĐỌC HIỂU
EXERCISE 1: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
REALITY TELEVISION
Reality television is genre of television programming which, (it is claimed), presents unscripted
dramatic or humorous situation, documents actual events, and features ordinary rather than professional
actors. It could be described as a form of artificial or “heightened” documentary. Although the genre has
existed in some form or another since the early years of television, the current explosion of popularity
dates from around 2000.
Reality television covers a wide range of television programming formats, from game or quiz shows
which resemble the frantic, often demeaning programmes produced in Japan in the 1980s and 1990s (a
modem example is Gaki no Tsukai), to surveillance- or voyeurism- focused productions such as Big
Brother.
Critics say that the term “reality television” is somewhat of a misnomer and that such shows frequently
portray a modifies and highly influenced form of reality, with participants put in exotic location or
abnormal situations, sometimes coached to act in certain ways by off-screen handlers, and with events on
screen manipulated through editing and other post-production techniques.
Part of reality television’s appeal is due to its ability to place ordinary people in extraordinary situations.
For example, on the ABC show, The Bachelor, an eligible male dates a dozen women simultaneously,
traveling on extraordinary dates to scenic locales. Reality television also has the potential to turn its
participants into national celebrities, outwardly in talent and performance programs such as Pop Idol,
though frequently Survivor and Big Brother participants also reach some degree of celebrity.
Some commentators have said that the name “reality television” is an inaccurate description for several
styles of program included in the genre. In competition- based programs such as Big Brother and
Survivor, and other special-living-environment shows like The Real World, the producers design the
format of the show and control the day-to-day activities and the environment, creating a completely
fabricated world in which the competition plays out. Producers specifically select the participants, and
use carefully designed scenarios, challenges, events, and settings to encourage particular behaviours and
conflicts. Mark Burnett, creator of Survivor and other reality shows, has agreed with this assessment, and
avoids the word “reality” to describe his shows; he has said, “I tell good stories. It really is not reality TV.
It really is unscripted drama.”

Question 1. The word “demeaning” is closest in meaning to ..................
A. despising

B. diminishing

C. valueless

D. humiliating

Question 2. According to the passage, Reality TV appeals to some because ...................
A. it uses exotic locations


B. it shows eligible men dating women
C. it can um ordinary people into celebrities
D. it shows average people in exceptional circumstances
Question 3. According to the passage, the program “Pop Idol” ...................
A. turns all participants into celebrities
B. is more likely to turn its participants into celebrities that Big Brother
C. is less likely to turn participants into celebrities than Big Brother
D. is a dating show
Question 4. Producers choose the participants ..................
A. to make an imaginary world
B. on the ground of talent
C. to create conflict among other things
D. only for special-living-environment shows
Question 5. The term “reality television” is inaccurate ..................
A. for talent and performance programs
B. for special-living-environment program
C. for all programs

D. for Big Brother and Survivor
Question 6. The word “fabricated” is closest in meaning to ...................
A. imaginary

B. real

C. imaginative

D. isolated

Question 7. Which of the following in NOT true according to the passage?
A. Shows like Survivor have good narratives.
B. Mark Burnett thinks the term “reality television” is inaccurate.
C. Japan has produced demeaning TV shows copied elsewhere.
D. Reality television has been popular since well before 2000.
(ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 1 – THẦY BÙI VĂN VINH)
EXERCISE 2: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Theresa May, the second female Britain’s prime minister following Margaret Thatcher, revealed in 2013
that she had been given a diagnosis of Type 1 diabetes, a condition that requires daily insulin injections.
Asked later how she felt about the diagnosis, she said her approach to it was the same as toward
everything in her life: “Just get on and deal with it.” That kind of steeliness brought her to center stage in
the aftermath of Britain’s vote to leave the European Union and the feuding that erupted in the
Conservative Party over who would succeed David Cameron.


Ms” May, 59 years old, is the country’s longest-serving home secretary in half a century, with a
reputation for seriousness, hard work and above all, determination. She is one of a growing number of
women in traditionally male-dominated British politics rising to the upper position of leadership.
Bom in 1956, Ms. May grew up mainly in Oxford shire, an only child who was first drawn to the

Conservative Party at age 12. As a conscientious student, she never rebelled against her religious
upbringing and remains a regular churchgoer. Tellingly, her sports hero was Geoffrey Boycott, a solid,
stubborn cricketer who specialized in playing the long game.
Like many other Britain’s prime minister including Tony Blair, Sir Robert Peel and Margaret Thatcher,
she won a place at Oxford. But while almost every other political leader got there by way of Eton College
and joined Oxford’s hedonistic Bullingdon Club, she attended a state secondary school and had a more
sedate university career. After unsuccessful attempts to be elected to the House of Commons in 1992 and
1994, she finally became an MP in 1997 general election.
May is known for a love of fashion and in particular distinctive shoes. She even wore leopard-print
shoes to her final Cabinet meeting as Home Secretary in early 2016. However, she has been quite critical
of the media focusing on her fashion instead of her achievement as a politician. May also describes
cooking and walking as primary hobbies, and if someone is raising questions about why walking can be
classified as a hobby, she elaborates in a column for Balance magazine, in which she wrote of her battle
with diabetes.
Question 8. According to the passage, who is the prime minister coming before Theresa May?
A. Tony Blair

B. Margaret Thatcher

C. Sir Robert Peel

D. David Cameron

Question 9. The most prominent characteristic of Theresa May is ...................
A. stubbornness

B. seriousness

C. determination

D. hard work

Question 10. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. British political life is conventionally controlled mainly by men.
B. The number of women in politics is increasing.
C. Conservative Party didn’t have to discuss about who would be the next prime minister.
D. Theresa May’s toughness was one of the reasons for the Party to choose her for the prime
minister position.
Question 11. Which of the following facts is TRUE about Theresa May?
A. She graduated from Eon College.
B. As a child, she was quite rebellious.
C. She didn’t work part time as a university student.
D. She used not to be a home secretary.
Question 12. She first became a member of parliament in ..................


A. 1992

B. 1994

C. 1997

D. 2013

Question 13. Her reason to consider walking as one of her main hobbies is ..................
A. she is quite critical

B. it helps her fight diabete

C. someone asks about it

D. it is written on Balance magazine

Question 14. The word “approach” is closest in meaning to ..................
A. means

B. advance

C. technique

D. trick

Question 15. The word “hedonistic” is closest in meaning to ..................
A. ordinary

B. luxurious

C. economical

D. simple

(ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 1 – THẦY BÙI VĂN VINH)
EXERCISE 3: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
GREEN CARS
Many of the world’s cities lie under a permanent blanket of smog. People are concerned about global
warming, and fuel prices just keep going up and up. It’s no surprise therefore, that in recent years, car
manufacturers have been put under pressure to invent a vehicle that is both cheaper to run and better for
the environment. Finally, after much trial and error, it seems as though they might be making progress,
and the future of the car industry is beginning to look a little “greener”.

One of the first ideas which car manufacturers tried was to replace engines which run on fossil fuels
with electric motors. Unfortunately, these vehicles had several drawbacks and they didn’t sell very well.
The problems were that the batteries of these electric cars ran out very quickly and took a long time to
recharge. Also, the replacement energy parts were very expensive.
However, the idea of electric cars has not been scrapped altogether. Car manufacturers have improved
the concept so that environmentally friendly cars can now be efficient and economical as well. This is
where the hybrid car, which has both an electric motor and a traditional petrol engine, comes in. The
electric motor never needs to be recharged and it is much better for the planet than a traditional car.
In a hybrid car, the engine is controlled by a computer which determines whether the car runs on petrol,
electricity, or both. When the car needs maximum power, for example, if it is accelerating or climbing a
steep hill, it uses all of its resources, whereas at steady speeds it runs only on petrol. When slowing down
or braking, the electric motor recharges its batteries.
Hybrid cars are better for the environment because the electric motor can help out whenever it is needed
and they have a much smaller engine than a traditional car. Also, hybrid cars on the market are made
using materials such as aluminium and carbon fibre, which makes them extremely light. Both of these
factors mean that they use far less petrol than normal cars, so they produce less pollution.
Of course, hybrid cars aren’t perfect; they still run on fossil fuel and so pollute the environment to some
extent. However, they may be the first step along the road to cleaner, “greener” cars. Car manufacturers


are already working on vehicles which run on hydrogen. The only emission from these cars is harmless
water vapor. These are still some way in the future, though, as designers need to think of cheap and safe
ways of producing, transporting and storing hydrogen, but at last, it looks like we might be heading in the
right direction.

Question 16. Car manufacturers are trying to invent a new vehicle because___________.
A. today’s cars use too much fuel
B. today’s cars produce too much poisonous gas
C. the car industry is in trouble
D. it is difficult to drive in cities

Question 17. The word “drawbacks” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to “________”.
A. benefits

B. imperfections

C. withdrawings

D. virtue

Question 18. Vehicles which ran on electric motors____________.
A. were not very popular

B. were made of pieces of scrap

C. moved very fast

D. had to have their engines replaced.

Question 19. The electric motor in hybrid cars__________.
A. needs replacement energy packs

B. has its own petrol engine

C. takes a long time to be recharged

D. doesn’t need to recharge its batteries

Question 20. The phrase “comes in” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to “________”.
A. moves towards the land

B. becomes available at a particular time

C. joins the inventors in a project

D. finishes a race in particular time

Question 21. The computer in a hybrid car__________.
A. helps the car to go up hills
B. keeps the car running at a steady speed
C. powers the engine
D. decides how the car should be powered at any given time
Question 22. Hybrid cars are better for the planet because_______.
A. they produce less harmful gases
B. they are made of special materials
C. they use different fuel to normal cars
D. the electric motor is smaller than a normal engine
(ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 2 – THẦY BÙI VĂN VINH)
EXERCISE 4: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.


In young language learners, there is a critical period of time beyond which it becomes increasingly
difficult to acquire a language. Children generally attain proficiency in their first language by the age of
five and continue in a state of relative linguistic plasticity until puberty. [A] Neurolinguistic research has
singled out the lateralization of the brain as the reason for this dramatic change from fluidity to rigidity in
language function. Lateralization is the process by which the brain hemispheres become dominant for
different tasks. The right hemisphere of the brain controls emotions and social functions, whereas the left
hemisphere regulates the control of analytical functions, intelligence, and logic. [B] For the majority of
adults, language functions are dominant on the left side of the brain. [C] Numerous studies have
demonstrated that it is nearly impossible to attain a nativelike accent in a second language, though some

adults have overcome the odds, after lateralization is complete. [D]
Cognitive development also affects language acquisition, but in this case adult learners may have some
advantages over child learners. Small children tend to have a very concrete, here- and-now view of the
world around them, but at puberty, about the time that lateralization is complete, people become capable
of abstract thinking, which is particularly useful for language. Generally speaking, adults can profit from
grammatical explanations, whereas children cannot. This is evidenced by the fact that children are rather
unreceptive to correction of grammatical features and instead tend to focus on the meaning of an
utterance rather than its form. However, language learning theory suggests that for both adults and
children, optimal language acquisition occurs in a meaning centered context. Though children have the
edge over adult language learners with respect to attaining a nativelike pronunciation, adults clearly have
an intellectual advantage which greatly facilitates language learning.
Question 23: Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?
A. The Role of Language in the Psychological Development of Children.
B. The Function of Lateralization in Mediating Language Acquisition.
C. Factors in Adult and Child Language Acquisition.
D. The Superiority of Adults to Children in the Task of Language Acquisition.
Question 24: The word “critical” could best be replaced by_________.
A. judgmental

B. particular

C. crucial

D. negative

Question 25: Choose one of the four letters in square brackets [ ] to indicate where the following
sentence would best fit in paragraph 1.
Although this is the general tendency, a significant minority of the adult population (15 percent) exhibits
right-brain language dominance.
A. [A]

B. [B]

C. [C]

D. [D]

Question 26: It can be inferred from the passage that before lateralization occurs___________.
A. plasticity is lacking in language function
B. the left hemisphere is not yet dominant in language function


C. It is impossible to attain a native accent in a language
D. emotions are controlled by the left hemisphere of the brain
Question 27: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT controlled by the left hemisphere
of the brain?
A. Rational capability

B. The ability to analyze

B. Intellectual capacity

D. Emotional states

Question 28: What is stated in the passage about the achievement of an accent like a native’s by an adult?
A. It may happen that an adult is able to achieve such an accent.
B. Achieving such an accent is completely impossible.
C. It is common for adult language learners to acquire such as accent.
D. The achievement of such an accent is the norm among adult language learners.
Question 29: The word “its” refers to___________.

A. correction

B. utterance

C. meaning

D. fact

Question 30: The word “unreceptive” is closest in meaning to____________.
A. indifferent

B. refusing to receive

C. unable to

D. insensitive

(ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 2 – THẦY BÙI VĂN VINH)
EXERCISE 5: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions
Weather forecasting
Cyclones in India, hurricanes in the Caribbean - severe weather events make news headlines almost
weekly. Yet even in Britain, which has comparatively few climate extremes, the country is still governed
by weather. If it’s pouring with rain the British might stay indoors or go to the cinema; if it’s fine they’ll
have a picnic.
Most people nervously study the weather forecast the evening before if they’ve got an important
appointment the following day. Even if they have nothing planned, the weather often affects their mood.
For individuals, the worst that can usually happen if the weather catches them on the hop is that they
get wet. For business, the effects are far more serious. Airlines and shipping companies need to avoid
severe weather and storm-force conditions. Power companies need to make sure they can supply the

demand for electricity in cold weather; farmers plan their harvests around the forecast and food
manufacturers increase their production of salads and other summer foods when fine weather is promised.
So who or what do meteorologists - weather forecasters as they are more commonly known - rely on
when it comes to producing a forecast? Ninety percent of the information comes from weather satellites,
the first of which was launched into space nearly forty years ago and was a minor revolution in the


science of forecasting. Up until then, forecasters had relied on human observers to provide details of
developing weather systems. As a result, many parts of the world where there were few humans around,
especially the oceans, were information-free weather areas. Today, however, satellites can watch weather
patterns developing everywhere.
In the UK meteorologists have also relied on releasing four weather balloons a day from eight fixed
sites. These balloons measure wind, temperature and humidity as they rise upwards to a height of about
26,000 metres.
Some commercial aircraft can also be fitted with a range of forecasting instruments although this
system has certain disadvantages. For example, it can provide a great deal of information about the
weather on popular routes, such as London to New York, but little about the weather on more out-of-the
way routes.
Instruments aboard ships can also supply basic weather information as well as important data on wave
height. Generally, the range of these instruments is fairly limited but they can indicate which direction
rain is coming from, how low the cloud is and give an idea of when the weather system will reach land.
One forecaster who has made a name for himself is a man called Piers Corbyn, who bases his forecasts
on watching the Sun. Most forecasters will offer forecasts for only 10 days ahead, but Corbyn’s forecasts
are for 11 months. Although most meteorologists believe that there is no scientific basis for his work,
Corbyn’s forecasts are used by insurance companies who want to plan months in advance.

Question 31: The weather system affects people’s lives in Britain____________.
A. despite being fairly moderate.

B. because it is so changeable.

C. because it is always raining.

D. despite being very seasonal.

Question 32: What does the writer mean by the phrase “catches them on the hop” in paragraph 3?
A. People run for shelter.

B. People are too busy to notice.

C. People are far from home.

D. people are unprepared.

Question 33: Why does the writer list so many different businesses in paragraph 3?
A. to give examples of ordinary people’s lives
B. to show the extent of the weather’s influence
C. to describe the recent effects of the bad weather
D. to explain how people manage in bad weather
Question 34: Why is the first weather satellite described as a “minor revolution” in paragraph 4?
A. It watches the human observers.

B. It replaced human observers.

C. It provided extra forecasts.

D. It forecast the weather in space.

Question 35: Using airplanes to help forecast the weather is____________.

A. very popular.

B. not expensive.

C. quite new.

D. not ideal.

C. using aircraft

D. using ships

Question 36: What does ‘it’ in paragraph 6 refer to?
A. using balloons

B. using satellites

Question 37: Corbyn’s forecasts using the Sun are considered____________.
A. useless and unscientific

B. helpful but short-term

C. unhelpful in the long-term

D. useful by some people

(ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 3 – THẦY BÙI VĂN VINH)
EXERCISE 6: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

You might be surprised to know that bicycles have existed for less than two hundred years. Though the
earliest comes from a sketch said to be from 1534 and attributed to Gian Giacomo, there are several early
but unverified claims for the invention of the modem bicycle. No one is sure who invented this popular
two- wheeled machine, but it was probably either the German Karl von Drais, in 1817, or the American
W K Clarkson, in 1819. The early models didn't look much like the bicycles of today. The front wheel
was much bigger than the back one, and also there weren't any pedals - riders had to move themselves
forward by pushing their feet against the ground. Pedals finally arrived in the 1840s, and in 1879 an
Englishman named Henry Lawson had the idea of connecting them to the back wheel with a chain. Gears,
which made things much easier for those cycling uphill, first appeared in the 1890s.
There are now approximately one billion bicycles in the world - more than twice the total number of
cars - and they are the main form of transport in some developing countries. They have to compete with
cars on the streets of all the world’s cities, and the two forms of transport don't always mix well. In
London in 2005, for example, over 300 cyclists were either killed or seriously injured in accidents
involving cars. Even though bicycles are much more environmentally friendly than cars, most
governments don't do much to encourage people to ride rather than drive. In China, which is famous for
having a huge number of bicycles (about 200 million), the authorities in the city of Shanghai even banned
cycling for a while in 2003.
Cycling is on the rise is the United Kingdom, and the number of annual journeys made by bike in
London has increased 50% over the last five years. Experts say there is a mixture of reasons for this
boom: concerns about the environment, the desire to keep fit, and also the fact that cycling is often not
only cheaper but also quicker than travelling by car.
However, although one in three British adults owns a bicycle, they still don't use them nearly as much
as they could. Bikes are used for a mere 2% of journeys in the UK, while the figure for the Netherlands is
an impressive 27%.


Cycling is becoming more popular as a competitive sport, and the most famous race is of course the
three-week Tour de France, which takes place every July. American Lance Armstrong won it every year
from 1999 to 2005 - one of the greatest individual sporting achievements of all time.
(Adaptedfrom Handouts for B2, University of Linguistics and International Studies, 2017)

Question 38: Why didn't early bicycles look much like today's models?
A. The wheels were different sizes.

B. They only had one wheel.

C. They were made of wood.

D. They had machine.

Question 39: The highlighted word "attributed" is closest in meaning to__________.
A. rejected

B. discounted

C. acknowledged

D. noticed

Question 40: Which of the following is FALSE?
A. Cycling was banned in Shanghai, China, in 2003.
B. There are about one billion bicycles in the world today.
C. More than 90% of the world's bicycles are in Africa.
D. About 20% of the world bicycles are in China.
Question 41: According to experts, which of the following is NOT an explanation for the recent increase
in bicycle use in London?
A. People want to keep fit.
B. People have more money, so they can afford to buy good bicycles.
C. Travelling by car is often slower than travelling by bicycle.
D. Cycling protects the environment.
Question 42: In the Netherlands, what percentage of journeys are made by bicycle?

A. More than 25%

B. 5-10%

C. 25%

D. Less than 5%

Question 43: What was Lance Armstrong’s amazing achievement?
A. Cycling continuously in three weeks.
B. Winning the Tour de France seven times.
C. Cycling to work every day for twenty years.
D. Cycling all the way around the world.
Question 44: The highlighted word “it” in paragraph 6 refers to__________.
A. cycling

B. sport

C. the race

D. the achievement

Question 45: Which can be the best title for the passage?
A. Bicycle

B. Tour-de-France

C. Best means of transport

D. The invention of bicycle

(ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 3 – THẦY BÙI VĂN VINH)
EXERCISE 7: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions
Twenty-five students from Walling School are currently living in France. They are there for three
months as part of a living-abroad project. The 16- and 17-year-old students are living with French
families and attending a French school. Most of the students have taken French language classes for 3 or
4 years and are finally getting an opportunity to use their French.
Not only are students learning a new language, but they are learning about a new culture, too. Students
have been particularly surprised about the French attitude towards food. “They won’t leave anything on
their plate,” says Vanessa Athol. “They aren’t wasteful at all.” Vanessa has vowed to be more careful
with waste when returning to the United States.
The group’s chaperone, Mrs. Smith, has been pleased with the students’ acquisition of language. “Even
the most timid are trying their best to speak. The students are learning a lot. I’m very impressed,” she
said. Mrs. Smith added that she thinks living with a French family makes a difference because students
are forced to speak French. “We are all very grateful to the French families who are hosting us.”
The French families are happy to have the students, as they are getting to leam about American culture.
Both groups will be celebrating the exchange at a large potluck dinner at the end of the stay. There will be
a slide show of memories and the students will speak about their experiences. Currently, the American
students are periodically posting pictures and student essays on the Walling School website. “Living in
France is an experience I’ll never forget,” writes student Tina Davis. “I know I’ll want to eat these
croissants and this Camembert for the rest of my life!”
(Source: 'Master TOEFL Junior (2014))
Question 46: Which title would be the most suitable for this article?
A. Walling School Students Stay Abroad in France.
B. French Families love America.
C. Student Tina Davis Lives in France.
D. Walling School Website Posts Student Essays.
Question 47: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE?

A. Students from Walling School are now staying in the USA.
B. Walling School students are now staying with French families.
C. These students are immigrants from the USA.
D. Walling School students are applying for jobs in France.
Question 48: What can be implied about the culture in France?
A. It requires fluency in French.
B. It can be learned from a book.


C. It scares the students.
D. It’s different from the culture in America.
Question 49: In paragraph 2, the word “vowed” is closest in meaning to________.
A. changed

B. saved

C. promised

D. received

Question 50: In paragraph 3, the word “acquisition” is closest in meaning to_________.
A. speaking

B. gaining

C. responsibility

D. purchase

Question 51: Based on the passage, what does Mrs. Smith probably think about the French language?

A. It is more beautiful than Spanish.
B. It’s best to learn it from a French family in France.
C. It is very important for international communication.
D. It is something each and every student needs to know.
Question 52: According to the passage, how will the students conclude their stay?
A. They will say in hostel together.

B. They well take a French exam.

C. They will have a party together.

D. They will visit Paris together.

(ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 4 – THẦY BÙI VĂN VINH)
EXERCISE 8: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Working on the computer is very tough on your body, which is not used to this modem type of work.
Sitting has long been known to cause back pain and negatively influence circulation, which can promote
cardiovascular disease. Extensive use of the keyboard and mouse can lead to stiffening of the muscles in
your hands, arms, and neck. Staring at a bright screen for too long can cause dry eyes and headaches. So,
computer work can be as unhealthy a job as you can imagine.
First and foremost, sitting for long stretches of time is a very serious health risk! Sitting affects your
blood circulation, your back experiences a steady stress, you are more likely to drink and eat stuff that
isn’t good for you, and you bum very little calories, making it more likely that you overeat. As a result,
sitting contributes to a host of conditions, most notably gaining weight, diabetes, heart disease, cancer,
and consequently a shortened life span.
Second, bad posture causes pain. You can develop bad posture from anything you do habitually,
whether it’s sitting, standing, or walking. The typical consequences associated with bad posture while
working on the computer are pain in the back, shoulder, and neck, often resulting in tension headaches.
Third, staring at the screen causes eve strain. Staring at a bright screen for hours can lead to eye fatigue

or eye strain, headaches, blurred vision, burning, itching or tearing eyes, and temporary vision disorders.
Fortunately, eye strain rarely results in a permanent condition and symptoms can be prevented or cured
rather easily.


Last, but not least, emotional pressure and isolation cause anxiety and depression. Computers are very
efficient tools in that they help us with getting more work done in less time. At the same time, you spend
less face-to-face time with your colleagues, family, or friends. This can lead to isolation, anxiety, and
depression, i.e. both physical and mental health issues. The symptoms are manifold and can include tense
muscles, back pain, headaches, poor sleep (insomnia), increased or flat breathing, quickened pulse, and
generally signs of stress, depression, or anxiety.
(Adaptedfrom: />Question 53: According to the passage, human body is NOT________working on the computer.
A. successful in

B. capable of

C. adaptive to

D. familiar with

Question 54: The word “cardiovascular” in Paragraph 1 means connected with.
A. the brain and the nerve systems.

B. the heart and the blood vessels

C. the lungs and the breathing organs

D. the limbs and their muscles

Question 55: What is NOT mentioned as a cause of health issues related to working on the computer?

A. Looking at the screen for hours

B. Sitting for a long time

C. Working from home

D. Lacking direct human contacts

Question 56: What is NOT mentioned as being affected by sitting for long?
A. Your back muscles

B. Your eating habits

C. Your blood circulation

D. Your eye-sight

Question 57: Which of the followings can best replace the word “eye strain” in Paragraph 4?
A. Eye stress

B. Eye disease

C. Eye fatigue

D. Eye trouble

Question 58: It can be inferred from the passage that emotional and physical issues are________.
A. inseparable

B. pressing

C. easy to cure

D. permanent

Question 59: According to the passage, all the mentioned issues are________.
A. controversial

B. preventable

C. international

D. simple

Question 60: What is the organization of the passage?
A. Advantages and disadvantages

B. Problems and solutions

C. Causes and effects

D. Comparing and contrasting

(ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 4 – THẦY BÙI VĂN VINH)
EXERCISE 9:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
An individual's personality is the complex of mental characteristics that makes them unique from other
people. It includes all of the patterns of thought and emotions that cause us to do and say things in
particular ways. At a basic level, personality is expressed through our temperament or emotional tone.

However, personality also colours our values, beliefs, and expectations. There are many potential factors
that are involved in shaping a personality. These factors are usually seen as coming from heredity and the
environment. Research by psychologists over the last several decades has increasingly pointed to
hereditary factors being more important, especially for basic personality traits such as emotional tone.
However, the acquisition of values, beliefs, and expectations seem to be due more to socialization and
unique experiences, especially during childhood. Some hereditary factors that contribute to personality
development do so as a result of interactions with the particular social environment in which people live.
For instance, your genetically inherited physical and mental capabilities have an impact on how others see
you and, subsequently, how you see yourself. Likewise, your health and physical appearance are likely to
be very important in your personality development. You may be frail or robust. You may have a learning
disability. These largely hereditary factors are likely to cause you to feel that you are nice - looking, ugly,
or just adequate. Likewise, skin colour, gender, and sexual orientation are likely to have a major impact
on how you perceive yourself. Whether you are accepted by others as being normal or abnormal can lead
you to think and act in a socially acceptable or marginal and even deviant way.
There are many potential environmental influences that help to shape personality. Child rearing
practices are especially critical. In the dominant culture of North America, children are usually raised in
ways that encourage them to become self-reliant and independent. Children are often allowed to act
somewhat like equals to their parents. In contrast, children in China are usually encouraged to think and
act as a member of their family and to suppress their own wishes when they are in conflict with the needs
of the family. Independence and self-reliance are viewed as an indication of family failure and are
discouraged.
(Adapted from: />Question 61: According to recent studies, what factor is the most important in shaping an individual’s
basic personality traits?
A. Transmission of traits from parents to children
B. Very special events or activities that affect him/her
C. Learning to behave in a socially acceptable way
D. The period of a person’s life when they a child
Question 62: According to the passage, sometimes heredity and environment_________.
A. are not well recognized in the society

B. interact in personality development

C. are interesting researchtopics

D. include values, beliefs and expectations

Question 63: What is NOT mentioned as a hereditary factor?
A. Health

B. Mental capabilities

C. Physical contact

D. Learning abilities

Question 64: Which of the followings can best replace the word “perceive” in the second paragraph?


A. Look at

B. See

C. Understand

D. Watch

Question 65: According to the passage, how your self-image____________.
A. is limited with your learning disability

B. is affected by the way others see you

C. increased in the process of socialization

D. is fulfilled with your appearance

Question 66: According to the passage, concepts like beauty or ugliness__________.
A. change from time to time

B. are different in societies

C. only appear recently

D. are related to skin colours

Question 67: According to the passage, what is the most important environmental factor in personality
development?
A. How a child is brought up

B. When a child starts school

C. What a child looks like

D. Which country a child is born in

(ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 5 – THẦY BÙI VĂN VINH)
EXERCISE 10:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
All over the country, young people are entering a world of homelessness and poverty, according to a
recent report by the housing group, Shelter.

Nearly 150,000 young people aged between sixteen and twenty-five will become homeless this year,
says Shelter. Some of the young homeless may sleep out in the open in such places as the “cardboard
city” in London, where people of all ages sleep in the open air in their only home - cardboard boxes.
Others may find accommodation in shelters run by voluntary organisations or get a place in a hostel,
which gives them board up to ten weeks.
But who are these people? Those who are seeking a roof over their heads are mostly not runaways but
“throwaways” — people who have been thrown out of their homes or forced to leave because of parental
divorce, an unsympathetic step-parent or one of many other reasons.
Take the case of one six teen-year-old schoolgirl, Alice. She did not come from a poor home and had
just passed her exams with good results. The Shelter team met her in a hostel where she was doing her
physics homework. Her parents had thrown her out of her home for no other reason that she wanted to do
Science Advanced Level Exams - which her parents refused her permissionjo do, saying that studying
sciences was unladylike!
Shelter says that the government’s laws do nothing to help these youngsters. Rising rents, the shortage
of cheap housing and the cut in benefits for young people under the age of twenty-five are causing a
national problem, according to Shelter. The recent changes in the benefit laws mean that someone aged
between sixteen and twenty-five gets less than older people and they can only claim state help if they
prove that they left home for a good reason.


Shelter believes that because of the major cuts in benefits to young people, more and more are being
forced to sleep on the streets. Shelter also points out that if you are homeless, you can’t get a job because
employers will not hire someone without a permanent address; and if you can’t get a job, you are
homeless because you don’t have any money to pay for accommodation. It’s an impossible situation.
(Source: FCE success workbook)
Question 68: According to a recent report by Shelter, it appears that________.
A. hostels are too full to offer accommodation to homeless young people
B. more and more young people all over the world are finding themselves homeless
C. nearly 150,000 young people live out in the open
D. young homeless people live in places like “cardboard city”

Question 69: The word “Others” in paragraph 2 refers to_________.
A. people of all ages

B. young people

C. the young homeless

D. voluntary organisations

Question 70: Most young people become homeless because_________.
A. circumstances make it impossible for them to live at home
B. they do not want to live with a divorced parent
C. they have run away from home
D. they have thrown away any chances of living at home by behaving badly
Question 71: Why was Alice turned out of her home?
A. Her parents didn’t agree with what she wanted to do.
B. She didn’t want to study for her Advanced Level Exams.
C. She had not obtained high marks in her exams.
D. She refused to do her homework in the evening.
Question 72: According to the passage, “benefits” are____________.
A. subsidies for those in need

B. extra wages for part-time workers

C. gifts of food and clothing

D. laws about distributing money

Question 73: The changes in the system of benefits mean that

.

A. the under twenty-fives can claim money only if they have left home
B. anyone under twenty-five and not living at home will receive help with food and accommodation
C. young people cannot claim money unless they are under sixteen or over twenty-five
D. young people do not receive as much money as those over twenty-five
Question 74: According to Shelter, once young people have forced onto the streets,___________.
A. their benefits will be severely cut


B. they will never go back home again
C. they will find it difficult to find work
D. they will encourage their friends to do the same
Question 75: The word “permanent” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to__________.
A. stable

B. flexible

C. obvious

D. simple

(ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 5 – THẦY BÙI VĂN VINH)
EXERCISE 11: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Almost all living things ultimately get their energy from the sun. In a process called photosynthesis,
plants, algae, and some other organisms capture the sun's energy and use it to make simple sugars such as
glucose. Most other organisms use these organic molecules as a source of energy. Organic materials
contain a tremendous amount of energy. As food, they fuel our bodies and those of most other creatures.
In such forms as oil, gas, and coal, they heat our homes, run our factories and power our cars.

Photosynthesis begins when solar energy is absorbed by chemicals called photosynthetic pigments that
are contained within an organism. The most common photosynthetic pigment is chlorophyll. The bright
green color characteristic of plants is caused by it. Most algae have additional pigments that may mask
the green chlorophyll. Because of these pigments, algae may be not only green but brown, red, blue or
even black.
In a series of enzyme-controlled reactions, the solar energy captured by chlorophyll and other pigments
is used to make simple sugars, with carbon dioxide and water as the raw materials. Carbon dioxide is one
of very few carbon- containing molecules not considered to be organic compounds. Photosynthesis then
converts carbon from an inorganic to an organic form. This is called carbon fixation. In this process, the
solar energy that was absorbed by chlorophyll is stored as chemical energy in the form of simple sugars
like glucose. The glucose is then used to make other organic compounds. In addition, photosynthesis
produces oxygen gas. All the oxygen gas on earth, both in the atmosphere we breathe and in the ocean,
was produced by photosynthetic organisms. Photosynthesis constantly replenishes the earth's oxygen
supply.
Organisms that are capable of photosynthesis can obtain all the energy they need from sunlight and do
not need to eat. They are called autotrophs. Plants are the most familiar autotrophs on land. In the ocean,
algae and bacteria are the most important autotrophs. Many organisms cannot produce their own food and
must obtain energy by eating organic matter. These are called heterotrophs.
(Hooked on TOEFL Reading - LinguaForum)
Question 76. The word “fuel” in the first paragraph is similar in meaning to_________.
A. give fuel to

B. produce organic materials

C. help to function

D. provide nutrients for


Question 77. Based on the information in paragraph 3, we can see that glucose________.

A. enables photosynthesis

B. is a byproduct of oxygen production

C. contains carbon

D. creates enzymes

Question 78. Which of the following is true about heterotrophs?
A. They require more energy than autotrophs.

B. They are not reliant on simple sugars for energy.

C. They cannot exist without the presence of autotrophs.D. They are mostly land-bound organisms.


Question 79. The phrase “this process” in the third paragraph refers to the process of__________.
A. storing chemical energy

B. photosynthesis

C. absorbing solar energy

D. carbon fixation

Question 80. It can be inferred from the passage that the author considers solar energy to be_________.
A. useless to most bacteria and algae
B. a permanent and everlasting source of energy
C. a perfect solution to the energy problem
D. essential for every organism on earth

Question 81. Which of the following is NOT true?
A. Plants are familiar heterotrophs
B. Plants capture the sun's energy to make sugars.
C. Photosynthesis produces oxygen gas
D. Organic materials contain an amount of energy.
Question 82. From the passage, we can see that___________.
A. Most plants have additional pigments
B. Algae are a kind of simple plants
C. Autotrophs obtain energy by eating organic matter
D. Oxygen helps the process of photosynthesis
(ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 6– THẦY BÙI VĂN VINH)
EXERCISE 12: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
“They told me I could never walk again. But when I listened to music, I forgot all about the pain. I
found the strength I didn’t know I had.”Ninety-two-year-old Tina Goodman, who regained her ability to
walk, thanks to music.
This is just one of the many stories in Fettaro’s book “The Healing Power of Music” . Fettaro tries to
show just how important music is in our lives and how it can help us to be healthy and happy.
According to Fettaro, music can make sick people again. In fact, his book comes with a CD of
recordings, each one specially designed to help with a number of health problems.
Fettaro, e well-known music therapist, promises that by reading his book, you will be able to develop
the healing power of music in your life. He says this will help you fight headaches and back pain, as well
as reduce stress, high blood pressure, and many other common illnesses.


Certainly, I accept that listening to certain types of music can help with particular problems, such as
stress. I am also comfortable with Fettaro’s claim that by reading his book, you’ll be able to create a
peaceful enviroment to help you relax in your home. I found the relaxation and breathing techniques very
useful. Similarly his claim that music help you sleep better seems reasonable. Yet when he goes on to
promise his music therapies will help cure depression and even cancer, he begins to sound a little bit

unbelievable.
Nevertheless, for those of you who are interested in the power of music to heal, this is a great book to
buy. It’s a thorough introduction to the history and practice of music therapy. Fettaro writes in a simple,
easy to understand way and shows clearly how music can affect us positively. His basic message-that
music can improve our lives-is well-presented and clear. It may even be true that certain techniques
covered here can help some people recover from unpleasant health problems. However, his promises of
“amazing results” seem impossible to justify.
Question 83: What was Tina Goodman’s problem?
A. stress

B. high blood pressure

C. disablement

D. headaches

Question 84: Which statement is not true?
A. Music can help you sleep better
B. Music has positive effects
C. It is necessary to create a peaceful enviroment when you read Fettaro’s book
D. The recordings accompanied with the book are to help with some health problems.
Question 85: What is the basic message of Fettaro’s book?
A. Music can make our lives better
B. No illness is incurable with the help of music
C. Music can cure even depression and cancer
D. Music brings amazing results
Question 86: What are the two techniques useful to the writer?
A. relaxing and peace-making ones

B. listening and reading

C. recovering and relaxing in your own home

D. relaxing and breathing ones

Question 87: Which is not stated by Fettaro as curable?
A. cancer

B. high blood pressure

C. back pain

D. sore throat

Question 88: What is the writer’s opinion of the book?


A. He likes the book a lot and recommends it to everyone
B. He likes the book but is not so happy about some of the promises it makes
C. He doesn’t like the book because few of the claim can be proved
D. He finds all claims impossible to be proved
Question 89: What is the meaning of the word “covered”?
A. included

B. paid

C. attended to

D. illustrated

Question 90: Which word is similar to the word “justify”?
A. attain

B. deny

C. believe

D. prove

(ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 6– THẦY BÙI VĂN VINH)
EXERCISE 13: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Thirty years ago, Lake Ponkapog in Hartwell, New Jersey, was full of life. Many birds and animals
lived beside the water, which was full of fish. Now there are few birds, animals, and fish. The lake water
is polluted. It is a dirty brown colour, and it is filled with strange plants.
How did this happen? First, we must think about how water gets into Lake Ponkapog. When it rains,
water comes into the lake from all around. In the past, there were woods all around Lake Ponkapog, so
the rainwater was clean.
Now there are many homes on the lake shore. People often use the chemicals in their gardens. They use
other chemicals inside their houses for cleaning and killing insects. There are also many businesses.
Businesses use chemicals in their machines or stores. Other chemicals fall onto the ground from cars or
trucks. When it rains, the rainwater flows by these homes and businesses. It picks up all the chemicals and
then pours them into the lake. They pollute the water and kill the animal life.
There is still another problem at the lake: exotic plants. These plants come from other countries. They
have no natural enemies here, and they grow very quickly. In a short time, they can fill up a lake. Then
there is no room for other plants. The plants that normally grow there die. These plants gave many
animals and fish their foods or their homes. So now those animals and fish die, too.
People in Hartwell are worried. They love their lake and want to save it. Will it be possible? A clean
lake must have clean rainwater going into it. Clean rainwater is possible only if people are more careful
about chemicals at home and at work. They must also be more careful about gas and oil and other

chemicals on the ground.
(“Reading Power ” by Beatrice S. Mikulecky/Linda Jeffries - Longman)
Question 91: This article is about____________.


A. the exotic plants in Lake Ponkapog

B. dirty lakes in New Jersey

C. chemicals in Lake Ponkapog

D. why the water is dirty in Lake Ponkapog

Question 92: In the past, the water in Lake Ponkapog was made clean by____________.
A. fish

B. rain

C. forests

D. birds

Question 93: Chemicals from homes and businesses___________.
A. get into the rainwater

B. are good for the lake

C. are always clean

D. can help the animals

Question 94: The highlighted word “They” in the third paragraph refers to___________.
A. these homes

B. chemicals

C. cars or trucks

D. businesses

Question 95: Exotic plants grow quickly because they___________.
A. make the water dirty

B. have no natural enemies

C. are large and strong

D. have a lot of water

Question 96: The phrase “fill up” in the passage probably means__________.
A. become too crowded

B. grow in tiny quantities

C. become full of water

D. cover the surface

Question 97: To save Lake Ponkapog, people need to ___________.
A. use more water from the lake

B. be more careful about chemicals

C. grow fewer plants in the gardens

D. use more boats on the lake

(ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ7– THẦY BÙI VĂN VINH)
EXERCISE 14: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
It is often the case with folktales that they develop from actual happenings but in their development lose
much of their factual base; the story of Pocahontas quite possibly fits into this category of folktale. This
princess of the Powhatan tribe was firmly established in the lore of early America and has been made
even more famous by the Disney film based on the folktale that arose from her life. She was a real-life
person, but the actual story of her life most probably different considerably from the folktale and the
movie based on the folktale. Powhatan, the chief of a confederacy of tribes in Virginia, had several
daughters, none of whom was actually named Pocahontas. The nickname means “playful one,” and
several of Powhatan’s daughters were called Pocahontas. The daughter of Powhatan who became the
subject of the folktale was named Matoaka. What has been verified about Matoaka, or Pocahontas as she
has come to be known, is that she did marry an Englishman and that she did spend time in England before
she died there at a young age. In the spring of 1613, a young Pocahontas was captured by the English and


taken into Jamestown. There she was treated with courtesy as the daughter of chief Powhatan. While
Pocahontas was at Jamestown, English gentlemen John Rolfe fell in love with her and asked her to marry.
Both the governor of the Jamestown colony and Pocahontas’s father Powhatan approved the marriage as a
means of securing peace between Powhatan’s tribe and the English at Jamestown. In 1616, Pocahontas
accompanied her new husband to England, where she was royally received. Shortly before her planned
return to Virginia in 1617, she contracted an illness and died rather suddenly.
A major part of the folktale of Pocahontas that is unverified concerns her love for English Captain John

Smith is the period of time before her capture by the British and her rescue of him from almost certain
death. Captain John Smith was indeed at the colony of Jamestown and was acquainted with Powhatan and
his daughters, he even described meeting them in 1612 journal. However, the story of his rescue by the
young maiden did not appear in his writing until 1624, well after Pocahontas had aroused widespread
interest in England by her marriage to an English gentlemen and her visit to England. It is the discrepancy
in dates that has caused some historians to doubt the veracity of the tale. However, other historians do
argue quite persuasively that this incident did truly take place.
(“Preparation Course " for the TEOFL Test - Deborah Phillips - Longman)

Question 98: The main idea of the passage is that________.
A. Pocahontas fell in love with John Smith and saved his life
B. any one of Powhatan’s daughter could have been the Pocahontas of legend
C. Pocahontas did not really exist
D. folktales are often not very factual
Question 99: The expression “arose from” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to_________.
A. went up with

B. developed from

C. climbed to

D. was told during

Question 100: What is true about the name Pocahontas, according to the passage?
A. It meant that someone was playful.
B. Only one girl was known to have used this name.
C. Powhatan was one of several people given this nickname.
D. It was the real name of a girl named Matoaka.
Question 101: How was Pocahontas treated when she was held at Jamestown?
A. With disregard

B. With surprise

C. With harshness

D. With respect

Question 102: It can be inferred from the passage that Pocahontas____________.


A. suffered from a long illness

B. had a long marriage

C. never intended to return to Virginia

D. did not mean to remain in England

Question 103: The pronoun “he” in the third paragraph refers to___________.
A. the governor

B. Powhatan

C. John Smith

D. Pocahontas

Question 104: When did John Smith most likely meet Pocahontas?
A. In 1613

B. In 1616

C. In 1612

D. In 1624

Question 105: Why are some historians doubtful about the portion of the Pocahontas folktale dealing
with John Smith?
A. His account did not appear until well after the event supposedly happened.
B. Captain John Smith probably never knew Pocahontas.
C. Captain John Smith was never actually in Jamestown.
D. His rescue purportedly happened while Pocahontas was in England.
(ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ7– THẦY BÙI VĂN VINH)
EXERCISE 15: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, R, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions
People have been donating blood since the early twentieth century to help accident victims and patients
undergoing surgical procedures. Usually a pint of whole blood is donated, and it is then divided into
platelets, white blood cells, and red blood cells. People can donate blood (for red blood cells) about once
every two months.
Transfusing the blood from the donor to the recipient is straightforward. It involves taking the blood
from a donor’s arm vein by means of a hypodermic syringe. The blood flows down from the container by
gravity. This is a slow process and may last as long as 2 hours to complete the infusion of blood into the
recipient. The patient is protected from being infected during the transfusion. Only sterile containers,
tubing, and needles are used, and this helps ensure that transfused or stored blood is not exposed to
disease causing bacteria.
Negative reactions to transfusions are not unusual. The recipient may suffer an allergic reaction or be
sensitive to donor leukocytes. Some may suffer from an undetected red cell incompatibility. Unexplained
reactions are also fairly common. Although they are rare, other causes of such negative reactions include
contaminated blood, air bubbles in the blood, overloading of the circulatory system through
administration of excess blood, or sensitivity to donor plasma or platelets.

Today, hospitals and blood banks go to great lengths to screen all blood donors and their blood. All
donated blood is routinely and rigorously tested for diseases, such as HIV, hepatitis B, and syphilis. When


the recipient is a newborn or an infant, the blood is usually irradiated to eliminate harmful elements.
Donated blood is washed, and the white blood cells and platelets removed.
Storing the blood sometimes requires a freezing process. To freeze the red blood cells, a glycerol
solution is added. To unfreeze the, the glycerolis removed. The ability to store blood for long periods has
been a boon to human health.
Question 106. The word "it" refers to___________.
A. surgical procedures

B. accident victims

C. a pint of whole blood

D. surgery patients

Question 107. According to the passage, how often can people donate blood for red blood cells?
A. Every four months

B. Every three month

C. Every two months

D. Every month

Question 108. All of the following are mentioned as potential negative reactions to transfusion
EXCEPT__________.
A. Sensitivity to donor leukocytes

B. Air bubbles in the blood

C. Allergies

D. Red-cell incompatibility

Question 109. What answer choice is closest in meaning to the word “undetected”?
A. not illustrated

B. not captured

C. not found

D. not wanted

Question 110. What can the phrase "go to great length" best replaced by?
A. irradiated

B. rigorously

C. routinely

D. removed

Question 111. Based on the information in the passage, what can be inferred about blood transfused to
infants and newborns?
A. It is treated with radiant energy.

B. It is not treated differently from adults.

C. It is not dangerous for children.

D. It is rigorously tested as blood for adults.

Question 112. What does the author imply in the passage?
A. Storing blood benefits mankind.

B. Clotting cannot be prevented.

C. Freezing blood destroys platelets.

D. Transfusing blood is a dangerous process.

(ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ8– THẦY BÙI VĂN VINH)
EXERCISE 16: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
In addition to improved physical health, sport plays a primarily positive role in youth development,
including improved academic achievement, higher self- esteem, fewer behavioural problems, and better