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<b>Sở GD&ĐT Quảng Ninh KỲ THI LẬP ðỘI TUYỂN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH </b>


<b>LỚP 12 THPT NĂM HỌC 2011-2012 </b>
<b> §Ị thi chÝnh thøc </b>


<b> </b>

(

ðề

thi

12 trang)



Họ, tên và chữ ký


của hai giám thị



M«n:

<b>TiÕng Anh</b>



Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề



SBD:



1:

<b>Ngµy thi: 16/11/2011 </b>



Họ, tên thí sinh:

Số phách:



Ngày sinh:



2:

N¬i sinh:



Häc sinh tr

ườ

ng:



---




ðiểm bài thi: Bằng số:

……….

(Bằng chữ:

………..…...…………

)


Họ, tên và chữ ký của hai giám khảo:




1: ……… 2: ………....…….……….



Số phách:



<i>Ghi chú: Thí sinh trả lời ngay vào bài thi này. Nếu viết sai phải gạch bỏ rồi viết lại.</i>



<b>I. LISTENING </b>

(3,0 points)



<b>Activity 1: </b>

You are planning to make a train journey soon. Listen to the recorded



announcement and fill in the missing information.



Thank you for calling connex South (1) _______________________ . For general


information on (2) _______________________ availability and fares, please (3)


_______________________ .



National Rail Enquiries on (4) _______________________ .



Please make your selection from the (5) _______________________ numbers.



Press 1 for a recorded update on all Connex trains into (6) _______________________.


Press 2 if you have any (7) _______________________ on the way in (8)


_______________________ we could improve our (9) _______________________.


Press 3 if you wish to perchase or renew a (10) _______________________ ticket by


(11) _______________________ card.



Press 4 for any other (12) _______________________ or you would like to be (13)


_______________________ to one of our (14) _______________________ advisers.


Press select the number you (15) _______________________ now.




<b>Activity 2: </b>

You are going to hear five young people talking about exercise, fitness and



general health. Listen and choose one correct statement for each speaker. Write number


1, 2, 3, … next to the statement you choose. There are 2 extra statements.



Speaker 1

A.

_____ has tried to give something up.



Speaker 2

B.

_____ hates exercise.



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Speaker 4

D.

_____ takes exercise every day.


Speaker 5

E.

_____ is fitter now than last year.



F.

_____ only exercises at weekends.


G.

_____ enjoys exercising with friends.



<b>Activity 3: </b>

You are going to hear a recorded message, giving information about summer



study courses in a country house. Listen and write (T) next to the statement if it is true;


write (F) if it is false.



_____ 1. The new programme starts next week.



_____ 2. You can study Portuguese and French at the same time.


_____ 3. David Malcolm will teach for two weeks.



_____ 4. You can practise tennis in a group.



_____ 5. Lizzie Windrush will talk about family history.


_____ 6. Yoga is a new course.




_____ 7. Yoga is available only at weekends.


_____ 8. Peter Dennis is the computer expert.


_____ 9. You can study Modern Art in June.


_____ 10. You should ring 0191 48765 to book.



<b>II. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR </b>

(5,0 points)



<b>Activity 1:</b>

Circle the letter A, B, C or D next to the right word to complete the sentences



below.



1. I was dispoited that the restaurant had ______ flowers on the table.



A. artificial B. false C. untrue D. forged


2. Douglas took ______ of his meeting with the Prime Minister to argue his case.



A. opportunity B. advantage C. chance D. effect


3. All things ______ , he is the best president we are likely to get.



A. considered B. thought C. taken D. added


4. The minister assured us that there were______ funds for this project.



A. rich B. financial C. ample D. deep


5. This painting stands a good ______ of winning the prize.



A. possibility B. chance C. opportunity D. certainty


6. After months of getting ______, the detectives began to feel that they were onto


something.




A. something B. nothing C. everything D. anything


7. It is very appropriate that the prize ______ go to such a young architect.



A. could B. should C. need D. might


8. There is more work here than I can ______ on my own.



A. cope with B. do with C. make out D. go for



9. In the early years of the twentieth century, several rebellions ______ in the northern


parts of the country.



A. rose up B. turned out C. came up D. broke out


10. For a couple of hours after I left the dentist's my jaw was still ______.



A. asleep B. unfeeling C. painless D. numb


11. Do not ______ the driver while the bus is in motion.



A. disturb B. distract C. convert D. interrupt



12. The patient's heart-rate and breathing must be carefully ______ during the operation.


A. counted B. monitored C. observed D. supervised


13. “There is no ______ of forced entry,” said inspector Morse.



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14. After eating the apple she threw the ______ in the bin.



A. core B. remains C. stones D. centre


15. The unpaid bills will be ______ to next month’s account.



A. carried in B. carried on C. carried up D. carried over




<b>Activity 2:</b>

Write the correct form of each word in the brackets on the right in the spaces



provided.



<b>Albert Einstein </b>



Albert Einstein’s work has enormously (1) __________________ (BROAD) our


understanding of the universe and has had a (2) __________________ (CONSIDER)


impact on all our lives. Thanks to his equation E=mc², we now know that energy and


mass (or matter) are directly related to each other. To a very great (3)


__________________ (EXTEND), it is Einstein who is responsible for our now knowing


that space and time are actually one thing: space-time. (4) ________________ (ADD),


without E=mc², we would not have nuclear power- and nuclear weapons- today.



Einstein did not become famous because of E=mc², which was first published in


1905. At the time, his paper was (5) ____________________ (LARGE) ignored, even by


most scientists. Indeed, it was 14 years later that Einstein first made headlines round the


world, when scientific evidence began to show that his Theory of General Gelativity,


which was an (6) __________________ (EXTEND) of his 1905 paper, was correct.



The idea that only a tiny (7) ___________________ (MINOR) of scientists can


understand Einstein’s theories comes from this media reporting. The New York Times


asked its golfing correspondent to cover the story. As he was clearly out of his (8)


_________________ (DEEP), he presumed that everyone else was too. A myth was born.



Space, time, energy and mass are (9) _______________________ (WEIGH)


subjects - no pun intended - to get to grips with, but Einstein’s ideas are not impossible to


understand by any means. The implications of Eistein’s work for our lives, however, may


well be (10) _______________________ (FINITE).




<b>Activity 3: </b>

In each of the lines of the following text, there is one mistake. Underline the



mistakes and write the correction in the spaces provided on the right. (0) has been done as


an example.



<i><b> </b></i>

<i><b> </b></i>

<i><b> </b></i>

Line



A team of Russian scientists have challenged the theory that the woolly


mammoths became extinction 10,000 years ago at the end of the Ice Age.


The scientists have reported that the beast may have survived until 2000


BC on an island of the coast of Siberia, where researchers uncovered 29


fossilized woolly mammoth teeth ranging in age from 4,000 and 7,000


years. The question to ask now is how did these prehistoric pachyderms


survive in its island environment? One possibility is that they adapted to


their confining surroundings by decreasing their bulk. This theory is


based on their smaller tooth size, which has led scientists believe that


they were only six feet tall on the shoulder, compared with ten feet of


their full-sized counterpart. But would this be enough to enable us to


survive thousands of years beyond that of other mammoths?



0. ____

<b>has</b>

____


1. ___________


2. ___________


3. ___________


4. ___________


5. ___________


6. ___________


7. ___________


8. ___________


9. ___________



10. __________



<b>Activity 4</b>

: Complete each sentence by using the correct form of the phrasal verbs in the



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chance upon

<sub></sub>

come across

<sub></sub>

dig up

<sub></sub>

slip up


spring up

<sub></sub>

store up

<sub></sub>

throw out

<sub></sub>

throw up



1. We were walking through the woods when we __________________ a trap set by


hunters.



2. It’s a huge risk, and we can’t afford to _________________ or everything will go


wrong.



3. Don’t just ________________ those plastic bottles- we can recycle them.


4. Isn’t it amazing how squirrels _________________ nuts to make sure they have



enough to eat in the winter?



5. The new law has _______________ a number of problems for farmers that weren’t


expected.



6. As I was flicking through the magazine, I _______________ an article about the local


nature reserve.



7. According to the evidence that has been _________________, people have been


farming this area for over 1,000 years.



8. Organizations concerned about the evironment seem to have _________________


everywhere these days.




<b>Activity 5:</b>

Complete each sentence with a correct preposition.



1. _____________ second thoughts, I’ll have the lentil soup after all.



2. Giles was mortified to discover that he had sent Cordelia a photograph of his


ex-girlfriend _______________ mistake.



3. The results will be published ______________ due course.



4. “Could I possibly use your phone?” ~ “Oh, _____________ all means.”


5. The intrepid women explored the remotest part of the sierra _____________



horseback.



6. _____________ all likelihood, we will never know the real reason.



7. Kindly sign the contracts in triplicate and send back to head office __________ return.



<b>III. READING</b>

(6,0 points)



<b>Activity 1:</b>

Read the passage below and circle the letter A, B, C or D next to the right



word to complete it.



<b>Wine at auction </b>



During the winter, most London auctioneers have wine auctions. Some are of


wines for (1) ______ drinking, but most are of fine wines. Last winter, at Christies, a


dozen bottles of Lafite 1945 were (2) ______ down at £158 a bottle. 1945 and 1961 are


the two most (3) ______ vintage years for claret. Of course, that is not the maximum you



could pay. Not (4) ______ ago, an American at Christies paid £8,500 for one bottle of


Lafite 1806. Sometimes, it is a matter of personal (5) ______ by the very rich. At other


times there can be a (6) ______ objective. Last October, a restaurateur from Memphis,


paid £9,000 for a magnum - that is, a two-bottle size - of 1864 Lafite. He (7) ______ 30


people $1,500 each for a dinner with a small glass of the wine. It was (8) ______ ten


times the cost of the wine in publicity for his restaurant.



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(12) ______ . But there is no (13) ______ that a bottle of wine at $1,000 is a hundred


times (14) ______ than one that costs $10. Perhaps the top price you can pay for wine to


enjoy for drinking is $100 a bottle. Above $100, you are paying for something (15)


______ than taste.



1. A. usual B. common C. daily D. everyday


2. A. knocked B. hit C. banged D. hammered


3. A. up-to-date B. recent C. now D. modern


4. A. far B. months C. long D. way



5. A. selfishness B. egotism C. flattery D. indulgence


6. A. money B. wholesale C. commercial D. economical


7. A. charged B. costed C. billed D. budgeted


8. A. valued B. priced C. worth D. estimated


9. A. lifting B. rising C. peaking D. raising


10. A. case B. box C. load D. carton


11. A. equal B. similar C. same D. level


12. A. reason B. account C. expectation D. addition


13. A. way B. hope C. consideration D. possible


14. A. better B. superior C. above D. more


15. A. to B. other C. above D. over



<b>Activity 2: </b>

Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word to complete the passage below.




Clothes have (1) _______________ basic functions. (2) _______________


protect us from extremes of temperature, rain and wind and provide a degree of modesty


by covering our bodies. (3) ________________ is also important however, is the way


clothing transmits messages about the wearer's personality, attitudes, social status,


behaviour and group allegiances. Some people are more sensitive to dress signals than


others, but there are very few (4) _________________ fail to take clothes into (5)


________________ at all when forming first (6) ________________ .



To fit in with (7) _______________ social role and to be (8) _______________


as a valid actor of your part, you usually have to look the part as well as act the part. (9)


_______________ eccentric managers and executives are able to (10) _______________


in jeans and baggy pullovers, but they are very much in the minority. Clothes in the


professional world are a kind (11) _______________ uniform and unwritten rules


prescribe certain standards and styles for everyone in the hierarchy. The way to be


accepted is neither to underdress nor (12) _______________ . If (13) _______________


the rules can be combined with a little individuality and personal flair, then the effect will


be greater. Silk scarves, ties and other items that (14) _______________ no real function


can communicate everything (15) _______________ political allegiance to temperament.



<b>Activity 3:</b>

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. Circle the



letter A, B, C or D to indicate your answers.



Though Edmund Halley was most famous because of his achievements as an


astronomer, he was a scientist of diverse interests and great skill. In addition to studying


the skies, Halley was also deeply interested in exploring the unknown depths of the


oceans. One of his lesser-known accomplishments that was quite remarkable was his


design for a diving bell that facilitated exploration of the watery depths.




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Halley’s bell was an improvement in that its design allowed for an additional supply of


fresh air that enabled a crew of divers to remain underwater for several hours.



The diving contraption that Halley designed was in the shape of a bell that


measured three feet across the top and five feet across the bottom and could hold several


divers comfortably; it was open at the bottom so that divers could swim in and out

<i><b>at will</b></i>

<sub>. </sub>



The bell was built of wood, which was first heavily tarred to make it water repellent and


was then covered with a half-ton sheet of lead to make the bell heavy enough to sink in


water. The bell shape held air inside for the divers to breathe as the bell sank to the


bottom.



The air inside the bell was not the only source of air for the divers to breathe, and


it was this improvement that made Halley’s bell superior to its predecessors. In addition


to the air already in the bell, air was also supplied to the divers from a lead barrel on the


ocean floor to the bell. The diver could breath the air from a position inside the bell, or he


could move around outside the bell wearing a diving suit that consisted of a lead


bell-shaped helmet with a glass viewing window and a leather body suit, with a leather pipe


carrying fresh air from the diving bell to the helmet.



1. The subject of the preceding passage was most likely Halley’s... .



A. childhood

B. work as an astronomer



C. many different interests

D. invention of the diving bell


2. Which of the following best expresses the subject of this passage?



A. Halley’s work as an astronomer.


B. Halley’s many different interests.




C. Halley’s invention of a contraption for diving.


D. Halley’s experiences as a diver.



3. Halley’s bell was better than its predecessors because it... .



A. was bigger

B. provided more air



C. weighed less

D. could rise more quickly



4. The expression “ran low” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to... .



A. more slowly

B. had been replenished



C. sank to the bottom

D. was almost exhausted



5. How long could divers stay underwater in Halley’s bell?



A. Just a few seconds.

B. Only a few minutes.



C. For hours at a time.

D. For days on end.


6. It is NOT stated in the passage that Halley’s bell... .



A. was wider at the bottom than at the top

B. was made of tarred wood


C. was completely enclosed

D. could hold more than one diver


7. The expression “at will” in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by...



A. in the future

B. as they wanted



C. with great speed

D. upside down




8. It can be inferred from the passage that, were Halley’s bell not covered with lead, it


would.... .



A. float

B. get wet



C. trap the divers

D. suffocate the divers



9. In which paragraph does the author describe the diving bells that preceded Halley’s?


A. In the first paragraph

B. in the second paragraph



C. In the third paragraph

D. In the last paragraph


10. This passage would most likely be assigned reading in a course on....



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<b>Activity 4:</b>

Read the passage below. For each paragraph, choose the most suitable


heading from the list which follows. Write the letter A, B, C or D next to the number


given. There is one extra heading you do not need to use.



<b>Processed Food </b>



A. Not all doctors agree.



B. Adequate nourishment essential.


C. Additives disguise bad ingredients.


D. Diet to be fat-free, sugar-free.



E. Coffee increases risk of heart disease.


F. Tea and coffee bad for you.



G. Processed food may be bad for you.


H. Doctor's argument not logical.



1. ____________



After the cigarette manufacturers, it has become the turn of the food processors to


suffer the attacks of those who would have us lead a healthy life. Sometimes you have the


feeling that almost everything you eat is liable to damage your brain, clog your arteries,


ulcerate your stomach, or impact your intestine. On the other hand, it is certainly true that


there is nothing like reading the list of ingredients on the back of a cereal packet or a pot


of jam to put you off your breakfast.



2. ____________



One dietician writes of pork pies as follows: "People wouldn't buy a pork pie if


chemicals had not been designed into them. A pork pie can contain as much as 50 per


cent of highly saturated fat which is bad for the heart and arteries. A perfectly good pork


pie could be made from reasonable ingredients but it is cheaper to make it with additives


because less meat is then needed. The additives in the pie do little harm in themselves.


The fat is made acceptable by a perfectly safe emulsifier. Added colour makes the fat


look like meat. The additives in it deceive our senses and persuade us to eat too much fat.


Even if the additives themselves are considered to be relatively safe, the nutritional


consequences are appalling."



3. ____________



Since a study by Johns Hopkins Medical Centre, Baltimore, in the mid-eighties,


coffee has been on everyone's blacklist. According to the study: "Regardless of the


measure of coffee consumption used, analyses found that heavy coffee drinkers were


almost three times more likely to have coronary disease than were non-drinkers. Even


one or two cups of coffee a day appear to be associated with a small extra risk of heart


disease - a one-third increase over non-drinkers". The one piece of good news appears to


be that the risk decreases rapidly once a person stops drinking coffee.




4. ____________



Few arguments create greater passion among medical experts than the supposed


link between diet and heart disease. Some doctors, however, refuse to accept any


connection between the two. They have argued that diets which cut back on dairy


produce, although unlikely to cause physical harm, could lead to malnutrition,


particularly among children. They are appalled that breakfast, that traditional British


meal, should be under attack by the spectre of disease. Come between some doctors and


their bacon and eggs and feelings will run high.



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The nutritionists have fought back. They remain convinced that sugary, fatty foods


lead to preventable ill health. One doctor argues that a fibre-rich diet is only of use to


those who suffer from diabetes. Rubbish, say the nutritionists, and go on to point out that


"over one third of British adults are constipated. At least one in seven takes laxatives.


And dietary fibre is of proven value in the treatment of constipation."



6. ____________



Yet another doctor argues that dental decay should really be seen as a disease


which results from a lack of fluoride. What we need to do is clean our teeth like crazy,


have them coated with sealants, and take fluorides daily. The nutritionist blasts back by


pointing out that you might as well say that headaches are caused by a lack of aspirin.


7. ____________



What we do know is that nutrition does affect health. Too little food and too much


food are both bad for you. In Britain, poor boys tend to be two inches shorter on average


than rich boys.



<b>Activity 5: </b>

Read the following passage and answer the questions.




<b>The Call of The Wild </b>


<b>A </b>



The monotonous shrill of cicadas fills the humid air as a dozen orange-colored


apes swing from branches and vines. It is almost feeding time at the Sepilok Orangutan


Rehabilitation Center, and the residents are impatiently waiting for their human


caretakers to bring them their morning meal. Located 24 km from the city of Sandakan


near the northern coast of Malaysian Borneo, this 4,000-hectare rainforest reserve is a


temporary home for orphaned young orangutans. Some were taken by Sepilok rangers


from people who had been illegally keeping the apes as pets; others were brought in from


lumber camps where their mothers had been killed in logging accidents. The center’s


mission is to “rehabilitate” the orangutans by breaking their dependence on human beings


and reintroducing them to the wild. The process can take years.



<b>B </b>



Twenty-five staff members watch over the 80 animals at Spilok and play host to


the 150 or more visitors who stop by on most days. “The main thing is conservation,”


says Reynard Gondipon, 27, the center’s veterinarian. “We try to get the local people to


love the animals and become more conservation conscious.”



<b>C </b>



Newly-arrived orangutans are carefully examined and then placed in quarantine.


In the beginning, they cry much of the time, seeking affection by stretching out their long


arms toward anyone who walks by their cages. “It’s difficult when the orangutans come


in very young,” says Gondipon. “I urge the rangers to hug them every now and then. But


latter on, we try to reduce contact, or else they will become too accustomed to us.”




<b>D </b>



After a few months of quarantine, the young orangutans are slowly introduced to


the surrounding jungle. At first they spend about two hours a day playing in the open.


Once they reach the age of two, they are allowed to roam freely, though they instinctively


stay near the platform where they are fed. Imitating their elders, the youngsters learn to


climb, swing in and jump from trees, build sleeping nests and search for food.



<b>E </b>



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food for themselves. “During the fruiting season, we also decrease the amount,” says


Gondipon. “This encourages them to go into the forest to find their own.” On this day, a


dozen apes swing in from the jungle and pull themselves up to the platform. The rangers


hand out bananas as the animals take turns sticking their heads in a bucket for gulps of


milk.



<b>F </b>



On most mornings visitors gather on a nearby knoll to watch the feeding, and after


the meal are joined by some of the apes, interested in studying their human observers.


Most, though not all, of the orangutans are so tame that they wrap their gangly arms


around the guests. But there are exceptions. When a young ape, Boy, ambles toward a


woman and reaches for her purse, Sylvia Alsisto, 24, who heads the center’s education


division, shakes a stick at the ape and yells, “Boy!” “Excuse me,” she tells the vistor.


“Don’t touch him. He’ll bite.” The woman pulls away, though not before the orangutan


has grabbed and eaten her map of Sepilok.



<b>G </b>



Because excessive contact with humans hinders rehabilitation, the staff



discourages visitors from touching the animals. An exception is Jojo, 3, once a pet, who


disdains the jungle life and is content with prancing and posing for a curious audience. “It


is very hard trying to rehabilitate Jojo,” says Gondipon. “He doesn’t want to climb, and


he once fell from a tree and broke his arm. So, rather than let the visitors touch all the


other orangutans, we let Jojo do the job them.”



<b>H </b>



By the age of nine, the apes are moved to a second feeding platform a kilometer


away. Here they have little contact with people but are still brought food to supplement


their diet. On a platform near the ground, two feeders bellow like orangutans as a way of


telling the apes out in the forest that it is mealtime. A few people are waiting nearby,


brushing off the occasional leech that tumbles onto them from the trees above.


“Someone’s up there,” whispers Janet Liew, 31, who has come from Sandakan. “I see


her.” At first there is little response to the feeders’ howls. Then the leaves rustle


overhead. Down comes a female orangutan with an infant clinging to her. The mother


accepts a few bananas and then some milk. As the excited visitors snap pictures, the


orangutans retreat back up the tree.



<b>I </b>



The rangers see the the apes’ flight from the cameras’ flashes as a good sign: it


shows that as the animals become less dependent on people for food, they are also less at


ease with them. High above in the overhead canopy, the mother cradles her baby and


carries it off into the forest.



<b>Questions 1-3: </b>

Circle the letter A, B, C or D next to the right answer.



1. The word “visitors” is used a number of times in the passage (paragraphs B, F, G and


H). It is used to refer to ... .




A. people only

B. apes only

C. both people and apes

D. orangutans


2. The target population of the Orangutan Rehabilitation Center are .... .(please choose



TWO)



A. orangutans formerly kept as pets by people


B. orangutans living in the wild



C. young orangutans whose mothers have been killed


D. wild animals in the area



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A. Reduce rangers’ physical contact with them.


B. Reduce food during fruiting season.



C. Limit the daily food.


D. Move the feeding place.



E. Brush off the occasional leech that tumbles onto them.



<b>Questions 4-5: </b>

The reading passage has 9 paragraphs marked A-I. Answer questions 4



and 5 by writing letter A or B, C, D … of the appropriate paragraphs at the end of the


questions.



Example:



Which paragraph mentions the geographic location of the Orangutan Rehabilitation


Centre?

<b>A</b>




4. Which paragraph says that some young orangutans can be dangerous?



5. Which paragraph mentions more explicitly that the rangers are achieving their


purpose?



<b>Questions 6-13: </b>

Complete the following summary of the reading passage. Choose NO



MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each gap. Write your answers in


the spaces provided.



A center to rehabilitate orphaned young arangutans is run by some conservation


(6) ________________________ people in Sepilok, 24 km from the city of Sandakan,


Borneo. A (7) _________________________ home for about 80 orangutans, it gives


them a chance to learn to be less (8) _________________________ people for food and


eventually be able to fend for themselves in (9) __________________________. On a


platform near the ground, bananas and milk are offered to the orangutans (10)


__________________________. After several years, the orangutans are moved to a


second feeding platform (11) ___________________________, to further reduce their


(12) ________________________________ with people. They gradually become less


(13) ________________________________ with people, which is seen as an indicator of


the rangers’ success.



<b>IV. WRITING</b>

(6,0 points)



<b>Activity 1: </b>

Use the word in the brackets to write a new sentence as similar as possible in



meaning to the original one. Don't change the form of the given words.

<b> </b>



1. I can't agree to your proposal at all. (

<b>degree</b>

)




<i>... </i>
<i>... </i>


2. Luca is just working here temporarily. (

<b>being</b>

)



<i>... </i>
<i>... </i>


3. We have to settle this matter in a definitive manner. (

<b>all</b>

)



<i>... </i>
<i>... </i>


4. In the area, Thailand is much better than all other countries in football. (

<b>shoulders</b>

)



<i>... </i>
<i>... </i>


5. We could just see him in the crowd. (

<b>make</b>

)



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<b>Activity 2: </b>

Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the


same as the one printed before it.



1.

Their chances of success are small.



It is not ...

<i>... </i>


<i>...</i>



2.

There isn’t a pair of thermal socks left in the shop, madam!




We are completely

<i>... </i>


<i>...</i>



3.

The patient recovered more rapidly than expected.



The patient made

<i>... </i>


<i>...</i>



4.

The protest has been so vociferous that the committee has had to reconsider.



There has been

<i>... </i>


<i>... </i>



5.

You think that fat people are always jolly, but you are wrong.



Contrary

<i>... </i>


<i>...</i>



<b>Activity 3:</b>

The graph below shows four countries of residence of overseas students in



Australia. Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and


make comparisons where relevant. Write at least 150 words.



<b>Selected countries of residence of visitor arrivals for education </b>



0
5
10
15
20


25
30


1982 1984 1986 1988 1990 1992 1994 1996 1998 2000


<b>Year ended 30 June</b>


<b>N</b>


<b>u</b>


<b>m</b>


<b>b</b>


<b>e</b>


<b>r</b>


<b> o</b>


<b>f </b>


<b>s</b>


<b>tu</b>


<b>d</b>


<b>e</b>



<b>n</b>


<b>ts</b>


<b> i</b>


<b>n</b>


<b> 1</b>


<b>0</b>


<b>0</b>


<b>0</b>


<b>s</b>


Singapor
Malaysia
Hong Kong
Indonesia


</div>
<span class='text_page_counter'>(12)</span><div class='page_container' data-page=12>

<i>...</i>
<i>...</i>
<i>...</i>
<i>...</i>
<i>...</i>
<i>...</i>


<i>...</i>
<i>...</i>
<i>...</i>
<i>...</i>
<i>...</i>
<i>...</i>
<i>...</i>
<i>...</i>
<i>...</i>
<i>...</i>
<i>...</i>


<b>Activity 4: </b>

Write about the following topic:



“For developing countries like Viet Nam, more money should be invested in public


transport rather than education.”



To what extend do you agree or disagree with this statement? Give reasons for your


answer and include any relevant ideas from your own knowledge or experience.



You should write at least 250 words.



<i>...</i>
<i>...</i>
<i>...</i>
<i>...</i>
<i>...</i>
<i>...</i>
<i>...</i>
<i>...</i>


<i>...</i>
<i>...</i>
<i>...</i>
<i>...</i>
<i>...</i>
<i>...</i>
<i>... </i>


--- the end ---



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